| Chapter 352 |
| 2026 -- H 8501 Enacted 06/23/2026 |
| A N A C T |
| RELATING TO STATUTES AND STATUTORY CONSTRUCTION |
Introduced By: Representative Christopher R. Blazejewski |
| Date Introduced: May 01, 2026 |
| It is enacted by the General Assembly as follows: |
| ARTICLE I -- STATUTORY REENACTMENT |
| SECTION 1. It is the express intention of the General Assembly to reenact chapters 1-16, |
| 18-26, 27-52 and 53-70 of title 45 of the General Laws of Rhode Island, including every section |
| therein, and any chapters and sections thereof not included in this act may be, and are hereby, |
| reenacted as if fully set forth herein. |
| SECTION 2. Section 45-9-7 of the General Laws in Chapter 45-9 entitled "Budget |
| Commissions" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 45-9-7. Appointment of receiver. |
| (a) If the budget commission established by § 45-9-5 concludes that its powers are |
| insufficient to restore fiscal stability to the city, town, or fire district, it shall so notify the director |
| of revenue and shall forward to the director of revenue a statement of the reasons why it has been |
| unable to restore fiscal stability to the city, town, or fire district. Upon receipt of such statement, |
| the director of revenue shall terminate the existence of the budget commission, notwithstanding § |
| 45-9-5, and the director of revenue shall appoint a receiver for the city, town, or fire district for a |
| period as the director of revenue may determine. The director of revenue may, at any time, and |
| without cause, remove the receiver and appoint a successor, or terminate the receivership. |
| (b) The receiver shall have the following powers: |
| (1) All powers of the fiscal overseer and budget commission under §§ 45-9-2 and 45-9-6. |
| Such powers shall remain through the period of any receivership; |
| (2) The power to exercise any function or power of any municipal or fire district officer or |
| employee, board, authority or commission, whether elected or otherwise relating to or impacting |
| the fiscal stability of the city, town, or fire district including, without limitation, school and zoning |
| matters; and |
| (3) The power to file a petition in the name of the city, town, or fire district under Chapter |
| 9 of Title 11 of the United States Code, and to act on the city’s, town’s, or fire district’s behalf in |
| any such proceeding. |
| (c) Upon the appointment of a receiver, the receiver shall have the right to exercise the |
| powers of the elected officials under the general laws, special laws and the city, town, or fire district |
| charter and ordinances and rules and regulations relating to or impacting the fiscal stability of the |
| city, town, or fire district including, without limitation, school and zoning matters; provided, |
| further, that the powers of the receiver shall be superior to and supersede the powers of the elected |
| officials of the city, town, or fire district who shall continue to be elected in accordance with the |
| city or town or fire district charter, and shall serve in an advisory capacity to the receiver. The |
| receiver shall allow the city’s, town’s, or fire district’s elected officials to serve their constituents |
| by providing advice to the receiver on the matters relating to the operation of the city, town, or fire |
| district. In the event a conflict arises between the chief elected official or city or town council or |
| fire district governing body and the receiver, the receiver’s decision shall prevail. The director of |
| revenue shall determine the salary of the receiver, which salary shall be payable by the city, town, |
| or fire district. |
| SECTION 3. Sections 45-19-1 and 45-19-2 of the General Laws in Chapter 45-19 entitled |
| "Relief of Injured and Deceased Fire Fighters and Police Officers" are hereby amended to read as |
| follows: |
| 45-19-1. Salary payment during line of duty illness or injury. |
| (a)(1) Whenever any police officer of the Rhode Island airport corporation or whenever |
| any police officer, firefighter, crash rescue crewperson, fire marshal, chief deputy fire marshal, or |
| deputy fire marshal of any city, town, fire district, or the state of Rhode Island is wholly or partially |
| incapacitated by reason of injuries received or sickness contracted in the performance of their duties |
| or due to their rendering of emergency assistance within the physical boundaries of the state of |
| Rhode Island at any occurrence involving the protection or rescue of human life which necessitates |
| that they respond in a professional capacity when they would normally be considered by their |
| employer to be officially off-duty, the respective city, town, fire district, state of Rhode Island, or |
| Rhode Island airport corporation by which the police officer, firefighter, crash rescue crewperson, |
| fire marshal, chief deputy fire marshal, or deputy fire marshal, is employed, shall, during the period |
| of the incapacity, pay the police officer, firefighter, crash rescue crewperson, fire marshal, chief |
| deputy fire marshal, or deputy fire marshal, the salary or wage and benefits to which the police |
| officer, firefighter, crash rescue crewperson, fire marshal, chief deputy fire marshal, or deputy fire |
| marshal, would be entitled had he or she not been incapacitated, and shall pay the medical, surgical, |
| dental, optical, or other attendance, or treatment, nurses, and hospital services, medicines, crutches, |
| and apparatus for the necessary period, except that if any city, town, fire district, the state of Rhode |
| Island, or Rhode Island airport corporation provides the police officer, firefighter, crash rescue |
| crewperson, fire marshal, chief deputy fire marshal, or deputy fire marshal, with insurance coverage |
| for the related treatment, services, or equipment, then the city, town, fire district, the state of Rhode |
| Island, or Rhode Island airport corporation is only obligated to pay the difference between the |
| maximum amount allowable under the insurance coverage and the actual cost of the treatment, |
| service, or equipment. In addition, the cities, towns, fire districts, the state of Rhode Island, or |
| Rhode Island airport corporation shall pay all similar expenses incurred by a member who has been |
| placed on a disability pension and suffers a recurrence of the injury or illness that dictated his or |
| her disability retirement, subject to the provisions of subsection (j) herein. |
| (2) A police officer or firefighter diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (as |
| described in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, current edition, published |
| by the American Psychiatric Association) by an individual who holds the title of an independent |
| licensed mental health professional with a master’s degree, related to the exposure of potentially |
| traumatic events, resulting from their acting within the course of their employment or from the |
| rendering of emergency assistance in the state of Rhode Island, at any occurrence involving the |
| protection or the rescue of human life while off-duty, as set forth in subsection (h) of this section, |
| shall be presumed to have sustained an injury in the line of duty, as that term is used in subsection |
| (a)(1) of this section, unless the contrary is proven by a fair preponderance of the evidence that the |
| post-traumatic stress injury/PTSD is not related to their job as a police officer or firefighter. The |
| benefits provided for under this section shall not be extended to a police officer or firefighter, if |
| their post-traumatic stress injury/PTSD diagnosis arises out of any disciplinary action, work |
| evaluation, job transfer, layoff, demotion, termination, or similar adverse job actions. |
| (b) As used in this section, “police officer” means and includes any chief or other member |
| of the police department of any city or town regularly employed at a fixed salary or wage and any |
| deputy sheriff, member of the fugitive task force, or capitol police officer, permanent |
| environmental police officer or criminal investigator of the department of environmental |
| management, or airport police officer. |
| (c) As used in this section, “firefighter” means and includes any chief or other member of |
| the fire department or rescue personnel of any city, town, or fire district, and any person employed |
| as a member of the fire department of the town of North Smithfield, or fire department or district |
| in any city or town. |
| (d) As used in this section, “crash rescue crewperson” means and includes any chief or |
| other member of the emergency crash rescue section, division of airports, or department of |
| transportation of the state of Rhode Island regularly employed at a fixed salary or wage. |
| (e) As used in this section, “fire marshal,” “chief deputy fire marshal,” and “deputy fire |
| marshal” mean and include the fire marshal, chief deputy fire marshal, and deputy fire marshals |
| regularly employed by the state of Rhode Island pursuant to the provisions of chapter 28.2 of title |
| 23. |
| (f) Any person employed by the state of Rhode Island, except for sworn employees of the |
| Rhode Island state police, who is otherwise entitled to the benefits of chapter 19 of this title, shall |
| be subject to the provisions of chapters 29 — 38 of title 28 for case management procedures and |
| dispute resolution by the workers’ compensation court, for all petitions filed on or after July 1, |
| 2025, for the following benefit and disability determinations: |
| (1) The nature and status of disability of the injured employee; |
| (2) The nature and location of injury relative to the work incident; |
| (3) Maximum medical improvement (MMI), as it is defined under § 28-33-2(9) 28-29-2; |
| (4) All issues of legal and/or medical causation; and |
| (5) The assignment of fees and costs pursuant to the provisions of § 28-35-32. |
| The court may, in its discretion, appoint an impartial medical examiner in accordance with |
| § 28-33-35. The court shall hereby be empowered to enforce all of its orders, decrees, and consent |
| agreements of the parties. |
| (g) In order to receive the benefits provided for under this section, a police officer or |
| firefighter must prove to their employer that they had reasonable grounds to believe that there was |
| an emergency that required an immediate need for their assistance for the protection or rescue of |
| human life. |
| (h) Any claims to the benefits provided for under this section resulting from the rendering |
| of emergency assistance in the state of Rhode Island at any occurrence involving the protection or |
| rescue of human life while off-duty, shall first require those covered by this section to submit a |
| sworn declaration to their employer attesting to the date, time, place, and nature of the event |
| involving the protection or rescue of human life causing the professional assistance to be rendered |
| and the cause and nature of any injuries sustained in the protection or rescue of human life. Sworn |
| declarations shall also be required from any available witness to the alleged emergency involving |
| the protection or rescue of human life. |
| (i) All declarations required under this section shall contain the following language: |
| “Under penalty of perjury, I declare and affirm that I have examined this declaration, |
| including any accompanying schedules and statements, and that all statements contained herein are |
| true and correct.” |
| (j) Any person, not employed by the state of Rhode Island, receiving injured-on-duty |
| benefits pursuant to this section, and subject to the jurisdiction of the state retirement board for |
| accidental retirement disability, for an injury occurring on or after July 1, 2011, shall apply for an |
| accidental disability retirement allowance from the state retirement board not later than the later of |
| eighteen (18) months after the date of the person’s injury that resulted in the person’s injured-on- |
| duty status or sixty (60) days from the date on which the treating physician certifies that the person |
| has reached maximum medical improvement. Nothing herein shall be construed to limit or alter |
| any and all rights of the parties with respect to independent medical examination or otherwise, as |
| set forth in the applicable collective bargaining agreement. Notwithstanding the forgoing, any |
| person receiving injured-on-duty benefits as the result of a static and incapacitating injury whose |
| permanent nature is readily obvious and ascertainable shall be required to apply for an accidental |
| disability retirement allowance within sixty (60) days from the date on which the treating physician |
| certifies that the person’s injury is permanent, or sixty (60) days from the date on which the |
| determination of permanency is made in accordance with the independent medical examination |
| procedures as set forth in the applicable collective bargaining agreement. |
| (1) If a person with injured-on-duty status fails to apply for an accidental disability |
| retirement allowance from the state retirement board within the time frame set forth above, that |
| person’s injured-on-duty payment shall terminate. Further, any person suffering a static and |
| incapacitating injury as set forth in subsection (j) above and who fails to apply for an accidental |
| disability benefit allowance as set forth in subsection (j) shall have their injured-on-duty payment |
| terminated. |
| (2) A person who so applies shall continue to receive injured-on-duty payments, and the |
| right to continue to receive IOD payments of a person who so applies shall terminate in the event |
| of a final ruling of the workers’ compensation court allowing accidental disability benefits. Nothing |
| herein shall be construed to limit or alter any and all rights of the parties with respect to independent |
| medical examination or otherwise, as set forth in the applicable collective bargaining agreement. |
| (k) Any person employed by the state of Rhode Island who is currently receiving injured- |
| on-duty benefits or any person employed by the state of Rhode Island who in the future is entitled |
| to injured-on-duty benefits pursuant to this chapter, and subject to the jurisdiction of the state |
| retirement board for accidental retirement disability, shall apply for an accidental disability |
| retirement allowance from the state retirement board the later of eighteen (18) months after the date |
| of the person’s injury that resulted in the person’s injured-on-duty status or sixty (60) days from |
| the date on which the treating physician certifies that the person has reached maximum medical |
| improvement. Nothing herein shall be construed to limit or alter any and all rights of the parties |
| with respect to independent medical examination or otherwise, as set forth in the applicable |
| collective bargaining agreement. Notwithstanding the forgoing, any person receiving injured-on- |
| duty benefits as the result of a static and incapacitating injury whose permanent nature is readily |
| obvious and ascertainable shall be required to apply for an accidental disability retirement |
| allowance within sixty (60) days from the date on which a treating physician or an independent |
| medical examiner certifies that the person’s injury is permanent, or sixty (60) days from the date |
| on which such determination of permanency is made in accordance with the independent medical |
| examination procedures as set forth in the applicable collective bargaining agreement. |
| (1) If a person employed by the state of Rhode Island with injured-on-duty status fails to |
| apply for an accidental disability retirement allowance from the state retirement board within the |
| time frame set forth in subsection (k) above, that person’s injured-on-duty payment shall terminate. |
| Further, any person employed by the state of Rhode Island suffering a static and incapacitating |
| injury as set forth in subsection (k) above and who fails to apply for an accidental disability benefit |
| allowance as set forth in subsection (k) shall have his or her injured-on-duty payment terminated. |
| (2) A person employed by the state of Rhode Island who so applies shall continue to receive |
| injured-on-duty payments, and the right to continue to receive injured-on-duty payments of a |
| person who so applies shall terminate upon final adjudication by the state retirement board |
| approving or denying either ordinary or accidental disability payments and, notwithstanding § 45- |
| 31.2-9, this termination of injured-on-duty benefits shall not be stayed. |
| (3)(i) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, all persons employed by the state of |
| Rhode Island entitled to benefits under this section who were injured prior to July 1, 2019, and who |
| have been receiving injured-on-duty benefits pursuant to this section for a period of eighteen (18) |
| months or longer as of July 1, 2019, shall have up to ninety (90) days from July 1, 2019, to apply |
| for an accidental disability retirement benefit allowance. Any person employed by the state of |
| Rhode Island receiving injured-on-duty benefits for a period less than eighteen (18) months as of |
| July 1, 2019, shall apply for an accidental disability retirement benefit allowance within eighteen |
| (18) months of the date of injury that resulted in the person receiving injured-on-duty pay; provided |
| however, said person shall have a minimum of ninety (90) days to apply. |
| Applications for disability retirement received by the state retirement board by any person |
| employed by the State of Rhode Island receiving injured-on-duty payments that shall be deemed |
| untimely pursuant to § 36-10-14(b) shall have ninety (90) days from July 1, 2019, to apply for an |
| accidental disability retirement benefit allowance. Failure to apply for an accidental disability |
| retirement benefit allowance within the timeframe set forth herein shall result in the termination of |
| injured-on-duty benefits. |
| (ii) Any person employed by the state of Rhode Island receiving injured-on-duty payments |
| who has been issued a final adjudication of the state retirement board on an application for an |
| ordinary or accidental disability benefit, either approving or denying the application, shall have his |
| or her injured-on-duty payments terminated. |
| (4) If awarded an accidental disability pension, any person employed by the state of Rhode |
| Island covered under this section shall receive benefits consistent with § 36-10-15. |
| 45-19-2. Board of police officer’s relief. |
| Within the department of labor and training there is a board of police officer’s relief |
| consisting of seven (7) members which administers the fund for the relief of police officers as |
| provided by law. Five (5) members of the board appointed by the director of labor and training; |
| provided, that four (4) of the five (5) members must be actually occupied and working as full-time |
| police officers in the police force of some municipality in this state. These four (4) full-time police |
| are selected, two (2) each, from a list of six (6) candidates submitted by the Rhode Island State |
| Lodge Fraternal Order of Police and the International Brotherhood of Police Officers. The sixth |
| member is appointed by the Rhode Island Police Chiefs’ Association as a representative of the |
| conference association on the board. The seventh member is appointed by the Providence Retired |
| Police and Fire Association, and must be a retired Providence police officer; provided, further, that |
| all financial powers and duties concerning the board of police officer’s relief are administered by |
| the general treasurer. |
| SECTION 4. Section 45-21-52 of the General Laws in Chapter 45-21 entitled "Retirement |
| of Municipal Employees" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 45-21-52. Automatic increase in service retirement allowance. |
| (a) The local legislative bodies of the cities and towns may extend to their respective |
| employees automatic adjustment increases in their service retirement allowances, by a resolution |
| accepting any of the plans described in this section: |
| (1) Plan A. All employees and beneficiaries of those employees receiving a service |
| retirement or disability retirement allowance under the provisions of this chapter on December 31 |
| of the year their city or town accepts this section, receive a cost of living adjustment equal to one |
| and one-half percent (1.5%) per year of the original retirement allowance, not compounded, for |
| each calendar year the retirement allowance has been in effect. This cost of living adjustment is |
| added to the amount of the retirement allowance as of January 1 following acceptance of this |
| provision, and an additional one and one-half percent (1.5%) is added to the original retirement |
| allowance in each succeeding year during the month of January, and provided, further, that this |
| additional cost of living increase is three percent (3%) for the year beginning January 1 of the year |
| the plan is accepted and each succeeding year. |
| (2) Plan B. All employees and beneficiaries of those employees receiving a retirement |
| allowance under the provisions of this chapter on December 31 of the year their municipality |
| accepts this section, receive a cost of living adjustment equal to three percent (3%) of their original |
| retirement allowance. This adjustment is added to the amount of the retirement allowance as of |
| January 1 following acceptance of this provision, and an additional three percent (3%) of the |
| original retirement allowance, not compounded, is payable in each succeeding year in the month |
| of January. |
| (3) Plan C. All employees and beneficiaries of those employees who retire on or after |
| January 1 of the year following acceptance of this section, on the first day of January next following |
| the date of the retirement, receive a cost of living adjustment in an amount equal to three percent |
| (3%) of the original retirement allowance. |
| (b) In each succeeding year in the month of January, the retirement allowance is increased |
| an additional three percent (3%) of the original retirement allowance, not compounded. |
| (c) This subsection (c) shall be effective for the period July 1, 2012, through June 30, 2015. |
| (1) Notwithstanding any other subsections of this section, and subject to subsection (c)(2) |
| below, for all present and former employees, active and retired members, and beneficiaries |
| receiving any retirement, disability or death allowance or benefit of any kind by reason of adoption |
| of this section by their employer, the annual benefit adjustment provided in any calendar year under |
| this section shall be equal to (A) multiplied by (B) where (A) is equal to the percentage determined |
| by subtracting five and one-half percent (5.5%) (the “subtrahend”) from the Five-Year Average |
| Investment Return of the retirement system determined as of the last day of the plan year preceding |
| the calendar year in which the adjustment is granted, said percentage not to exceed four percent |
| (4%) and not to be less than zero percent (0%), and (B) is equal to the lesser of the member’s |
| retirement allowance or the first twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) of retirement allowance, |
| such twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) amount to be indexed annually in the same percentage |
| as determined under (c)(1)(A) above. The “Five-Year Average Investment Return” shall mean the |
| average of the investment returns of the most recent five (5) plan years as determined by the |
| retirement board. Subject to subsection (c)(2) below, the benefit adjustment provided by this |
| subsection (c)(1) shall commence upon the third (3rd) anniversary of the date of retirement or the |
| date on which the retiree reaches their Social Security retirement age, whichever is later; or for |
| municipal police and fire retiring under the provisions of chapter 21.2 of this title, the benefit |
| adjustment provided by this subsection (c)(1) shall commence on the later of the third (3rd) |
| anniversary of the date of retirement or the date on which the retiree reaches age fifty-five (55). In |
| the event the retirement board adjusts the actuarially assumed rate of return for the system, either |
| upward or downward, the subtrahend shall be adjusted either upward or downward in the same |
| amount. |
| (2) Except as provided in subsection (c)(3) the benefit adjustments provided under this |
| section for any plan year shall be reduced to twenty-five percent (25%) of the benefit adjustment |
| for each municipal plan within the municipal employees’ retirement system unless the municipal |
| plan is determined to be funded at a Funded Ratio equal to or greater than eighty percent (80%) as |
| of the end of the immediately preceding plan year in accordance with the retirement system’s |
| actuarial valuation report as prepared by the system’s actuary, in which event the benefit adjustment |
| will be reinstated for all members for such plan year. |
| In determining whether a funding level under this subsection (c)(2) has been achieved, the |
| actuary shall calculate the funding percentage after taking into account the reinstatement of any |
| current or future benefit adjustment provided under this section. |
| (3) Notwithstanding subsection (c)(2), for each municipal plan that has a Funded Ratio of |
| less than eighty percent (80%) as of June 30, 2012, in each fifth plan year commencing after June |
| 30, 2012, commencing with the plan year ending June 30, 2017, and subsequently at intervals of |
| five (5) plan years, a benefit adjustment shall be calculated and made in accordance with subsection |
| (c)(1) above until the municipal plan’s Funded Ratio exceeds eighty percent (80%). |
| (d) This subsection (d) shall become effective July 1, 2015. |
| (1)(A) As soon as administratively reasonable following the enactment into law of this |
| subsection (d)(1)(A), a one-time benefit adjustment shall be provided to members and/or |
| beneficiaries of members who retired on or before June 30, 2012, in the amount of two percent |
| (2%) of the lesser of either the employee’s retirement allowance or the first twenty-five thousand |
| dollars ($25,000) of the member’s retirement allowance. This one-time benefit adjustment shall be |
| provided without regard to the retiree’s age or number of years since retirement. |
| (B) Notwithstanding the prior subsections of this section, for all present and former |
| employees, active and retired employees, and beneficiaries receiving any retirement, disability or |
| death allowance or benefit of any kind by reason of adoption of this section by their employer, the |
| annual benefit adjustment provided in any calendar year under this section for adjustments on and |
| after January 1, 2016, and subject to subsection (d)(2) below, shall be equal to (I) multiplied by |
| (II): |
| (I) shall equal the sum of fifty percent (50%) of (i) plus fifty percent (50%) of (ii) where: |
| (i) is equal to the percentage determined by subtracting five and one-half percent (5.5%) |
| (the “subtrahend”) from the five-year average investment return of the retirement system |
| determined as of the last day of the plan year preceding the calendar year in which the adjustment |
| is granted, said percentage not to exceed four percent (4%) and not to be less than zero percent |
| (0%). The “five-year average investment return” shall mean the average of the investment returns |
| of the most recent five (5) plan years as determined by the retirement board. In the event the |
| retirement board adjusts the actuarially assumed rate of return for the system, either upward or |
| downward, the subtrahend shall be adjusted either upward or downward in the same amount. |
| (ii) is equal to the lesser of three percent (3%) or the percentage increase in the Consumer |
| Price Index for All Urban Consumers (CPI-U) as published by the U.S. Department of Labor |
| Statistics determined as of September 30 of the prior calendar year. |
| In no event shall the sum of (i) plus (ii) exceed three and one-half percent (3.5%) or be less |
| than zero percent (0%). |
| (II) is equal to the lesser of either the member’s retirement allowance or the first twenty- |
| five thousand eight hundred and fifty-five dollars ($25,855) of retirement allowance, such amount |
| to be indexed annually in the same percentage as determined under (d)(1)(B)(I) above. |
| The benefit adjustments provided by this subsection (d)(1)(B) shall be provided to all |
| retirees entitled to receive a benefit adjustment as of June 30, 2012, under the law then in effect, |
| and for all other retirees the benefit adjustments shall commence upon the third anniversary of the |
| date of retirement or the date on which the retiree reaches their Social Security retirement age, |
| whichever is later; or for municipal police and fire retiring under the provisions of § 45-21.2- |
| 5(b)(1)(A) 45-21.2-5(b)(1), the benefit adjustment provided by this subsection (d)(1)(B) shall |
| commence on the later of the third anniversary of the date of retirement or the date on which the |
| retiree reaches age fifty-five (55); or for municipal police and fire retiring under the provisions of |
| § 45-21.2-5(b)(1)(B) 45-21.2-5(b)(2), the benefit adjustment provided by this subsection (d)(1)(B) |
| shall commence on the later of the third anniversary of the date of retirement or the date on which |
| the retiree reaches age fifty (50). |
| (2) Except for municipal employees and/or beneficiaries of municipal employees who |
| retired on or before June 30, 2012, the benefit adjustments under subsection (d)(1)(B) for any plan |
| year shall be reduced to twenty-five percent (25%) of the benefit adjustment for each municipal |
| plan within the municipal employees’ retirement system unless the municipal plan is determined to |
| be funded at a funded ratio equal to or greater than eighty percent (80%) as of the end of the |
| immediately preceding plan year in accordance with the retirement system’s actuarial valuation |
| report as prepared by the system’s actuary, in which event the benefit adjustment will be reinstated |
| for all members for such plan year. Effective July 1, 2024, the funded ratio for each municipal plan |
| within the municipal employees’ retirement system, calculated by the system’s actuary, of equal to |
| or greater than eighty percent (80%) for the benefit adjustment to be reinstated for all members for |
| such plan year shall be replaced with seventy-five percent (75%). |
| In determining whether a funding level under this subsection (d)(2) has been achieved, the |
| actuary shall calculate the funding percentage after taking into account the reinstatement of any |
| current or future benefit adjustment provided under this section. |
| (3) Effective for members and/or beneficiaries of members who retired after June 30, 2012, |
| or on or before June 30, 2015, the dollar amount in (d)(1)(B)(II) of twenty-five thousand eight |
| hundred and fifty-five dollars ($25,855) shall be replaced with thirty-one thousand and twenty-six |
| dollars ($31,026) until the municipal plan’s funded ratio exceeds eighty percent (80%). Effective |
| July 1, 2024, the funded ratio for each municipal plan within the municipal employees’ retirement |
| system, calculated by the system’s actuary, of exceeding eighty percent (80%) for the benefit |
| adjustment to be reinstated for all members for such plan year shall be replaced with seventy-five |
| percent (75%). |
| (e) Upon acceptance of any of the plans in this section, each employee shall on January 1 |
| next succeeding the acceptance, contribute by means of salary deductions, pursuant to § 45-21-41, |
| one percent (1%) of the employee’s compensation concurrently with and in addition to |
| contributions otherwise being made to the retirement system. |
| (f) The city or town shall make any additional contributions to the system, pursuant to the |
| terms of § 45-21-42, for the payment of any benefits provided by this section. |
| (g) The East Greenwich town council shall be allowed to accept Plan C of subsection (a)(3) |
| of this section for all employees of the town of East Greenwich who either, pursuant to contract |
| negotiations, bargain for Plan C, or who are non-union employees who are provided with Plan C |
| and who shall all collectively be referred to as the “Municipal-COLA Group” and shall be separate |
| from all other employees of the town and school department, union or non-union, who are in the |
| same pension group but have not been granted Plan C benefits. Upon acceptance by the town |
| council, benefits in accordance with this section shall be available to all such employees who retire |
| on or after January 1, 2003. |
| (h) Effective for members and/or beneficiaries of members who have retired on or before |
| July 1, 2015, and without regard to whether the retired member or beneficiary is receiving a benefit |
| adjustment under this section, a one-time stipend of five hundred dollars ($500) shall be payable |
| within sixty (60) days following the enactment of the legislation implementing this provision, and |
| a second one-time stipend of five hundred dollars ($500) in the same month of the following year. |
| These stipends shall not be considered cost of living adjustments under the prior provisions of this |
| section. |
| SECTION 5. Section 45-31-9 of the General Laws in Chapter 45-31 entitled |
| "Redevelopment Agencies" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 45-31-9. Agencies created. |
| (a) There is created in each community a redevelopment agency to be known as the |
| redevelopment agency of the community. |
| (b) Redevelopment agencies may also be created by public law for the purposes of |
| exercising the powers set forth in chapters 31-33 of this title, provided an ordinance of the |
| legislative body of the community authorizes the exercise of the provisions of the public law for |
| the purposes of these chapters. The provisions of §§ 45-31-12, 45-31-13, 45-31-14, 45-31-15, and |
| 45-31-21 that are inconsistent with such a public law shall be deemed to be superseded by the |
| public law and not applicable to the redevelopment agency thereby created, upon adoption of the |
| ordinance putting into effect the purposes of the public law. Where authorized by such a special |
| act, the term “blighted area and substandard area” shall be deemed to include areas where the |
| presence of hazardous materials, as defined in § 23-19.14-2, impairs the use, reuse, or |
| redevelopment of impacted sites. |
| SECTION 6. Section 45-31.2-10 of the General Laws in Chapter 45-31.2 entitled "Uniform |
| Relocation Payments" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 45-31.2-10. Payments not to be considered as income or resources. |
| No payment received by a displaced person under this chapter shall be considered income |
| or resources for the purpose of determining the eligibility or extent of eligibility of any person for |
| assistance under any state law, or for the purposes of determining the eligibility or extent of |
| eligibility of any person for assistance under any state law, or for the purposes of the state’s |
| personal income tax law, corporation tax law, or other tax laws. These payments shall not be |
| considered income or resources of any recipient of public assistance and the payments shall not be |
| deducted from the amount of aid to which the recipient would otherwise be entitled. |
| SECTION 7. Section 45-38.2-1 of the General Laws in Chapter 45-38.2 entitled "School |
| Building Authority Capital Fund" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 45-38.2-1. Definitions. |
| As used in this chapter, the following terms, unless the context requires a different |
| interpretation, shall have the following meanings: |
| (1) “Application” means a project proposed by a city, town, or LEA that would make |
| capital improvements to public school facilities consistent with project evaluation criteria and |
| chapter 41.1 of title 16-7; |
| (2) “Approved project” means any project approved for financial assistance by the Council |
| on Elementary and Secondary Education; |
| (3) “Corporation” means the Rhode Island health and educational building corporation as |
| set forth in chapter 38.1 of title 42 45; |
| (4) “Department” means the department of elementary and secondary education as |
| established under title 16; |
| (5) “Eligible project” means an application, or a portion of an application, that meets the |
| project evaluation criteria and approved by the council on elementary and secondary education; |
| (6) “Financial assistance” means any form of financial assistance provided by the |
| corporation to a city, town, or LEA in accordance with this chapter for all or any part of the cost of |
| an approved project, including, without limitation, loans, guarantees, insurance, subsidies for the |
| payment of debt service on loans, lines of credit, and similar forms of financial assistance; |
| (7) “Fund” means the school building authority capital fund; |
| (8) “LEA” means a local education agency, a public board of education, school committee |
| or other public authority legally constituted within the state for administrative control or direction |
| of one or more Rhode Island public elementary or secondary schools; |
| (9) “Market rate” means the rate the city, town, or LEA would receive on the open market |
| at the time of the original loan agreement as determined by the corporation in accordance with its |
| rules and regulations; |
| (10) “Project evaluation criteria” means the criteria used by the school building authority |
| to evaluate applications and rank eligible projects; |
| (11) “Project priority list” means the list of eligible projects approved by the council on |
| elementary and secondary education ranked in the order in which financial assistance shall be |
| awarded by the corporation; and |
| (12) “Subsidy assistance” means the credit enhancements and other measures to reduce the |
| borrowing costs for a city, town, or LEA. |
| SECTION 8. Sections 45-39.2-11 and 45-39.2-12 of the General Laws in Chapter 45-39.2 |
| entitled "Clear River Electric and Water District" are hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 45-39.2-11. Bonds. |
| (a) The electric and water district shall have the power and is hereby authorized from time |
| to time to issue its negotiable bonds for any of its corporate or district purposes and to secure the |
| payment of the bonds in such manner and by such means as may be provided in the resolution or |
| resolutions of the electric and water district authorizing the bonds, subject to the regulatory |
| jurisdiction of the division of public utilities and carriers in the manner prescribed in § 39-3-15, |
| where applicable. |
| (b) The electric and water district is specifically authorized to secure bonds that it may |
| issue from time to time by a pledge of, or creation of other security interest in, the revenues of the |
| electric and water district, which pledge or security interest may be enforceable by the grant of a |
| conditional franchise, in the event of default in the payment of the bonds, entitling the secured party |
| or trustee to enter upon and take control of the electric and water district’s facilities and service and |
| to provide utility service and receive the revenues from the electric and water district’s facilities |
| and service for such period, not exceeding forty (40) years, as may be necessary to recover all |
| payments due on the bonds. |
| (c) The bonds of the electric and water district shall be authorized by resolution of the board |
| of utility commissioners. The bonds shall bear such date or dates, mature at such time or times not |
| exceeding forty (40) years from their issuance, bear interest at such rate or rates payable at such |
| time or times, be in such denominations and in such form, carry such registration privileges, be |
| executed in such manner, be payable in such medium of payment, at such place or places and such |
| time or times and be subject to redemption at such premium, if required, and on such terms, as the |
| resolution may provide. The bonds so authorized and issued pursuant to this chapter may be sold |
| at public or private sale for any price or prices that the electric and water district shall determine. |
| (d) Pending the issuance of bonds in definitive form, the electric and water district may |
| issue bond anticipation notes or interim receipts in such form as the board of utility commissioners |
| may elect. |
| (e) The electric and water district is hereby authorized to provide for the issuance of |
| refunding bonds of the electric and water district for the purpose of refunding any bonds then |
| outstanding which shall have been issued under the provisions of this chapter, including the |
| payment of any redemption premium on the bonds or interest accrued or to accrue to the earliest or |
| subsequent date of redemption, purchase, or maturity of the bonds and, if deemed advisable by the |
| electric and water district, for the additional purpose of paying all or a part of the cost of acquiring, |
| constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, or improving any property, facilities, or systems or |
| parts of property, facilities, or systems of the electric and water district. The proceeds of bond or |
| notes issued for the purpose of refunding outstanding bonds or notes may be applied, in the |
| discretion of the electric and water district, to the purchase, retirement at maturity, or redemption |
| of outstanding bonds or notes either on their earliest or a subsequent redemption date and may, |
| pending that application, be placed in escrow in the same manner and through the same means as |
| are generally available to and incumbent upon political subdivisions of the state. |
| (f) It is hereby declared that the electric and water district and the carrying out of its |
| corporate, district, and political subdivision purposes is in all respects for the benefit of the people |
| of the state and for the improvement of their health, welfare, and prosperity, and the electric and |
| water district will be performing an essential governmental function in the exercise of the powers |
| conferred by this chapter. The state therefore covenants with the holders of the electric and water |
| district’s bonds that the electric and water district shall not be required to pay taxes or payments in |
| lieu of taxes to the state or any other political subdivision of the state upon any property of the |
| electric and water district or under its jurisdiction, control, or supervision, or upon any of the |
| electric and water district’s activities in the operation or maintenance of the property or upon any |
| earnings, revenues, monies, or other income derived by the electric and water district, and that the |
| bonds of the electric and water district and the income from the bonds shall at all times be exempt |
| from taxation by the state and its political subdivisions. Notwithstanding the foregoing, nothing in |
| this section shall be deemed to prohibit the division of public utilities and carriers, the public |
| utilities commission, and the department of attorney general from assessing the utility in |
| accordance with the provisions of §§ 39-1-23, 39-1-26, 39-19-9, and 39-19-14. |
| (g) The state does hereby pledge to and agree with the holders of the bonds, notes, or other |
| evidence of an indebtedness of the electric and water district that the state will not limit or alter the |
| rights vested in the electric and water district until the bonds, notes, or other evidence of |
| indebtedness, together with the interest on the debt, are fully met and discharged. |
| (h) Any resolution or resolutions authorizing any bond, or any issue of bonds, may contain |
| provisions which shall be a part of the contract with the bondholders of the bonds thereby |
| authorized, as to: |
| (1) Pledging all or any part of the money, earnings, income, and revenues derived from all |
| or any part of the property of the electric and water district to secure the payment of any bonds or |
| of any issue of bonds subject to such agreements with bondholders as may then exist; |
| (2) The rates to be fixed and the charges to be collected and the amounts to be raised in |
| each year and the use and disposition of the earnings and other revenue; |
| (3) The setting aside of reserves and the creation of sinking funds and the regulation and |
| disposition thereof; |
| (4) Limitations on the right of the electric and water district to restrict and regulate the use |
| of the properties in connection with which the bonds are issued; |
| (5) Limitations on the purposes to which the proceeds of sale of any issue of bonds may be |
| put; |
| (6) Limitations on the issuance of additional bonds, including refunding bonds and the |
| terms upon which additional bonds may be issued and secured; |
| (7) The procedure, if any, by which the terms of any contract with bondholders may be |
| amended or abrogated, the percentage of bondholders whose consent shall be required for such |
| amendment or abrogation, and the manner in which consent may be given; |
| (8) The creation of special funds into which any earnings or revenues of the electric and |
| water district may be deposited, and the investment of the funds; |
| (9) The appointment of a fiscal agent and the determination of its powers and duties; |
| (10) Limitations on the power of the electric and water district to sell or otherwise dispose |
| of its properties; |
| (11) The preparation of annual budgets by the authority electric and water district and |
| the employment of consultants and auditors; |
| (12) The rights and remedies of bondholders in the event of failure on the part of the electric |
| and water district to perform any covenant or agreement relating to a bond indenture; |
| (13) Covenanting that as long as any bonds are outstanding the electric and water district |
| shall use its best efforts to establish and maintain its rates and charges at levels adequate at all times |
| to pay and provide for all operating expenses of the electric and water district, all payments of |
| principal, redemption premium (if any), and interest on bonds, notes, or other evidences of |
| indebtedness incurred or assumed by the electric and water district, all renewals, repairs, and |
| replacements to the property and facilities of the electric and water district, and all other amounts |
| which the electric and water district may be required by law to pay; and |
| (14) Any other matters of like or different character which in any way affect the security |
| or protection of the bonds. |
| (i) The bonds of the electric and water district are hereby made securities in which all public |
| officers and bodies of this state and all municipalities and municipal subdivisions, all insurance |
| companies and associations and other persons carrying on an insurance business, all banks, bankers, |
| trust companies, savings banks, and savings associations (including savings and loan associations), |
| building and loan associations, investment companies and other persons carrying on a banking |
| business, all administrators, guardians, executors, trustees and other fiduciaries and all other |
| persons whomsoever, who are now or may thereafter be authorized to invest in bonds or other |
| obligation of the state may properly and legally invest funds including capital in their control or |
| belonging to them. The bonds are also hereby made securities which may be deposited with and |
| shall be received by all public officers and bodies of this state, and all municipalities and municipal |
| subdivisions, for any purpose for which the deposit of bonds or other obligations of this state is |
| now or may thereafter be required. |
| 45-39.2-12. Money of the electric and water district. |
| (a) All money of the electric and water district, from whatever source derived, shall be paid |
| to the treasurer of the electric and water district. The money on receipt shall be deposited forthwith |
| in a separate bank account or accounts. The money in the accounts shall be paid out with a check |
| of the treasurer, on requisition by the electric and water district, or of any other person or persons |
| that the electric and water district may authorize to make the requisitions. All deposits of money |
| shall be secured by obligations of the United States or of the state, of a market value at all times |
| not less than the amount of deposits, and all banks and trust companies are authorized to give |
| security for the deposits. The electric and water district shall have the power, notwithstanding the |
| provisions of this section, to contract with the holders of any of its bonds as to the custody, |
| collection, security, investment, and payment of any money of the authority electric and water |
| district, or any money held in trust or otherwise for the payment of bonds or in any way to secure |
| the bonds, and to carry out any contract notwithstanding that the contract may be inconsistent with |
| the previous provisions of this section. Money held in trust or otherwise for the payment of bonds |
| or in any way to secure bonds and deposits of money may be secured in the same manner as the |
| money of the authority electric and water district, and all banks and trust companies are |
| authorized to give security for the deposits. |
| (b) Notwithstanding subsection (a) of this section, or any other provision of this chapter, |
| the board of utility commissioners shall have the power to authorize by resolution a loan or advance |
| from one utility fund of the electric and water district to another. Any such interfund advance or |
| loan shall be for a term specified in the authorizing resolution of the board of utility commissioners |
| and shall bear interest at a rate reasonably determined by the board of utility commissioners to be |
| consistent with the public interest implicated in all funds involved in the interfund loan or advance; |
| provided, however, that an interest rate set at the rate applicable to the electric and water district’s |
| most recent borrowing from a bank or other financial institution shall be presumptively reasonable |
| as the rate of interest for an interfund loan or advance. |
| SECTION 9. Section 45-48.1-8 of the General Laws in Chapter 45-48.1 entitled "West |
| Greenwich Water District" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 45-48.1-8. Condemnation power. |
| (a) If for any of the purposes of this act chapter, the district shall find it necessary to |
| acquire any real property, whether for immediate or future use, the district may find and determine |
| that the property, whether a fee simple absolute or a lesser interest, is required for the acquisition, |
| construction or operation of a water supply facility, and upon that determination, the property shall |
| be deemed to be required for public use until otherwise determined by the district; and with the |
| exceptions hereinafter specifically noted, the determination shall not be affected by the fact that the |
| property has theretofore been taken for, or is then devoted to, a public use; but the public use in the |
| hands or under the control of the district shall be deemed superior to the public use in the hands of |
| any other person, association or corporation; provided further, however, that no real property or |
| interest, estate or right belonging to the state shall be acquired without consent of the state; and no |
| real property or interest, estate or right belonging to any municipality shall be acquired without the |
| consent of the municipality. |
| (b) The district may proceed to acquire and is hereby authorized to and may proceed to |
| acquire property, whether a fee simple absolute or a lesser interest, by the exercise of the right of |
| eminent domain in the manner prescribed in this act chapter. |
| (c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit the district from bringing any |
| proceedings to remove a cloud on title or other proceedings as it may, in its discretion, deem proper |
| and necessary, or from acquiring any property by negotiation or purchase. |
| (d) The necessity for the acquisition of property under this act chapter shall be |
| conclusively presumed upon the adoption by the district of a vote determining that the acquisition |
| of property or any interest in property described in its vote is necessary for the acquisition, |
| construction or operation of a water supply facility. Within six (6) months after its passage, the |
| district shall cause to be filed in the appropriate land evidence records a copy of its vote together |
| with a statement signed by the chairperson or treasurer of the district that the property is taken |
| pursuant to this act chapter, and also a description of real property indicating the nature and extent |
| of the estate or interest therein taken as aforesaid and a plat thereof, a copy of the vote and statement |
| of the chairperson or treasurer shall be certified by the secretary of the district and the description |
| and plat shall be certified by the city or town clerk for the city or town where the real property lies. |
| (e) Forthwith thereafter the district shall cause to be filed in the superior court in and for |
| the county within which the real property lies a statement of the sum of money estimated to be just |
| compensation for the property taken, and shall deposit in the superior court to the use of the persons |
| entitled thereto the sum set forth in the statement. The district shall satisfy the court that the amount |
| so deposited with the court is sufficient to satisfy the just claims of all persons having an estate or |
| interest in the real property. Whenever the district satisfies the court that the claims of all persons |
| interested in the real property taken have been satisfied, the unexpended balance shall be ordered |
| repaid forthwith to the district. |
| (f) Upon the filing of the copy of the vote, statement, description and plat in the land |
| evidence records and upon the making of the deposit in accordance with the order of the superior |
| court, title to the real property in fee simple absolute or such lesser estate or interest specified in |
| the resolution shall vest in the district, and the real property shall be deemed to be condemned and |
| taken for the use of the district and the right to just compensation for the same shall vest in the |
| persons entitled thereto, and the district thereupon may take possession of the real property. No |
| sum so paid into the court shall be charged with clerks’ fees of any nature. |
| (g) After the filing of the copy of the vote, statement, description and plat, notice of the |
| taking of land or other real property shall be served upon the owners or persons having any estate |
| or interest in the real property by the sheriff or his or her deputies of the county in which the real |
| estate is situated by leaving a true and attested copy of the vote, statement, description and plat with |
| each of the persons personally, or at the last and usual place of abode in this state with some person |
| living there, and in case of any such persons absent from this state and have no last and usual place |
| of abode therein occupied by any person, the copy shall be left with the person or persons, if any, |
| in charge of, or having possession of the real property taken of such absent persons, and another |
| copy thereof shall be mailed to the address of such person, if the address is known to the officer |
| serving the notice. |
| (h) After the filing of the vote, description and plat, the district shall cause a copy of the |
| vote and description to be published in some newspaper having general circulation in the city or |
| town in which the real property lies at least once a week for three (3) successive weeks. |
| (i) If any party shall agree with the district upon the price to be paid for the value of the |
| real property so taken and of appurtenant damage to any remainder or for the value of his or her |
| estate, right or interest therein, the court, upon application of the parties in interest, may order that |
| the sum agreed upon be paid forthwith from the money deposited, as the just compensation to be |
| awarded in the proceedings; provided, however, that no payment shall be made to any official or |
| employee of the district for any property or interest therein acquired from such official or employee |
| unless the amount of the payment is determined by the court to constitute just compensation to be |
| awarded in the proceedings. |
| (j) Any owner of, or person entitled to any estate or right in, or interested in any part of the |
| real property so taken, who cannot agree with the district upon the price to be paid for his or her |
| estate, right or interest in the real property so taken and the appurtenant damage to the remainder, |
| may, within three (3) months after personal notice of the taking, or if he or she has no personal |
| notice, may within one year from the time the sum of money estimated to be just compensation is |
| deposited in the superior court to the use of the persons entitled thereto, apply by petition to the |
| superior court for the county in which the real property is situated, setting forth the taking of his or |
| her land, his or her estate or interest therein, and paying for an assessment or damages by the court |
| or by a jury. Upon the filing of the petition, the court shall cause twenty (20) days’ notice of the |
| pendency thereof to be given to the district by serving the chairperson or treasurer of the district |
| with a certified copy thereof. |
| (k) After the service of notice, the court may proceed to trial. The trial shall be conducted |
| as other civil actions at law are tried. The trial shall determine all questions of fact relating to the |
| value of the real property, and any estate or interest therein, and the amount thereof and the |
| appurtenant damage to any remainder and the amount thereof, and the trial and decision or verdict |
| of the court or jury shall be subject to all rights to except to rulings, to move for new trial, and to |
| appeal, as are provided by law. Upon the entry of judgment in the proceedings, execution shall be |
| issued against the money so deposited in court and in default thereof against any other property of |
| the district. |
| (l) In case two (2) or more petitioners make claim to the same real property, or to any estate |
| or interest therein, or to different estates or interests in the same real property, the court shall, upon |
| motion, consolidate their several petitions for trial at the same time and may frame all necessary |
| issues for the trial thereof. |
| (m) If any real property or any estate or interest in property or an estate, in which any infant |
| or other person not capable in law to act in his or her own behalf is interested, is taken under the |
| provisions of this act chapter, the superior court, upon the filing of a petition by or in behalf of an |
| infant or person or by the district may appoint a guardian ad litem for the infant or other person. |
| Guardians may, with the advice and consent of the superior court, and upon terms the superior court |
| may prescribe, release to the district all claims for damages for the land of the infant or other person |
| or for any estate or interest therein. Any lawfully appointed, qualified and acting guardian or other |
| fiduciary of the estate of any infant or other person, with the approval of the court of probate within |
| this state having jurisdiction to authorize the sale of lands and properties within this state of the |
| infant or other person, may before the filing of any petition, agree with the infant or other person |
| for any taking of his or her real property or of his or her interest or estate, and may upon receiving |
| the amount, release to the district all claims for damages for the infant or other person for the taking. |
| (n) In case any owner of or any person having an estate or interest in real property shall fail |
| to file his or her petition as above provided, the superior court for the county in which the real |
| property is situated, in its discretion, may permit the filing of a petition within one year subsequent |
| to the year following the time of the deposit in the superior court of the sum of money estimated to |
| be just compensation for the property taken; provided, the person shall have had no actual |
| knowledge of the taking of land in season to file the petition; and provided, no other person or |
| persons claiming to own the real property or estate or interest therein shall have been paid the value |
| thereof; and provided, no judgment had been rendered against the district for the payment of the |
| value to any other person or persons claiming to own the real estate. |
| (o) In any real property or any estate or interest therein is unclaimed or held by a person or |
| persons whose whereabouts are unknown, after making inquiry satisfactory to the superior court |
| for the county in which the real property lies, the district, after the expiration of two (2) years from |
| the first publication of the copy of the vote, statement and description, may petition the court that |
| the value of the estate or interest or the unknown person or persons be determined. After notice by |
| publication to the person or persons as the court in its discretion may order, and after hearing on |
| the petition, the court shall fix the value of the estate or interest and shall order the sum to be |
| deposited in the registry of the court in a special account to accumulate for the benefit of the person |
| or persons, if any, entitled thereto. The receipt of the clerk of the superior court shall constitute a |
| discharge of the district from all liability in connection with the taking. When the person entitled |
| to the money deposited shall have satisfied the superior court of his or her right to receive the same, |
| the court shall cause it to be paid over to him or her, with all accumulations thereon. |
| (p) The superior court shall have power to make orders with respect to encumbrances, liens, |
| taxes and other charges on the land, if any, as shall be just and equitable. |
| (q) Whenever in the opinion of the district a substantial saving in the cost of acquiring title |
| can be effected by conveying other real property, title to which is in the district, to the person or |
| persons from whom the estate or interest in real property is being purchased or taken, or by the |
| construction or improvement by the district of any work or facility upon the remaining real property |
| of the person or persons from whom the estate or interest in real property is being purchased or |
| taken, the district shall be and hereby is authorized to convey other real property to the person or |
| persons from whom the estate or interest in real property is being purchased or taken and to |
| construct or improve any work or facility upon the remaining land of the person or persons. |
| (r) At any time during the pendency of any proceedings for the assessment of damages for |
| property or interests taken or to be taken by eminent domain by the district, the district or any owner |
| may apply to the court for an order directing an owner or the district, as the case may be, to show |
| cause why further proceedings should not be expedited, and the court may upon the application |
| make an order requiring that the hearings proceed and that any other steps be taken with all possible |
| expedition. |
| SECTION 10. Section 45-50-13 of the General Laws in Chapter 45-50 entitled "Municipal |
| Public Buildings Authorities" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 45-50-13. Eminent domain proceedings. |
| (a) The authority has the right to acquire any land, or any interest in it, including |
| development rights, by the exercise of the power of eminent domain, whenever it is determined by |
| the authority that the acquisition of the land, or interest, is necessary for the construction or the |
| operation of any project. |
| (1)(i) The power of eminent domain shall be exercised only within the boundaries of the |
| city or town whose council established the authority, except that any authority in existence on the |
| effective date of this chapter shall have the power to acquire, by exercise of eminent domain, only |
| the development rights, except as stated in subsection (a) (5), in the land described in the tax |
| assessor’s plats for the towns of Foster, Scituate, Johnston, and Glocester, as of February 14, 1989, |
| for the purpose of protecting the water supply as follows: |
| (ii) That certain land situated in the town of Foster delineated as Foster tax assessor’s lot |
| 47, plat 15 consisting of 32 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Scituate |
| delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 147, plat 17 consisting of 5.6 acres, more or less; that certain |
| land situated in the town of Scituate described as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 60, plat 20 consisting |
| of 5.8 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate |
| tax assessor’s lot 5, plat 42 consisting of 12 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the |
| town of Johnston delineated as Johnston tax assessor’s lot 5, plat 57 consisting of 3.9 acres, more |
| or less; that certain land situated in the town of Johnston delineated as Johnston tax assessor’s lot |
| 58, plat 57 consisting of .7 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Johnston |
| delineated as Johnston tax assessor’s lot 6, plat 57 consisting of .4 acres, more or less; that certain |
| land situated in the town of Johnston delineated as Johnston tax assessor’s lot 7, plat 57 consisting |
| of .4 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Foster delineated as Foster tax |
| assessor’s lot 52, plat 15 consisting of 80 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town |
| of Foster delineated as Foster tax assessor’s lot 41A, plat 12 consisting of 9.8 acres, more or less; |
| that certain land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 1, plat 38 |
| consisting of 67 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as |
| Scituate tax assessor’s lot 4, plat 42 consisting of 10.7 acres, more or less; that certain land situated |
| in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 251, plat 49 consisting of 129 acres, |
| more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s |
| lot 3, plat 47 consisting of 29.6 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Scituate |
| delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 41, plat 41 consisting of 140 acres, more or less; that certain |
| land situated in the town of Johnston delineated as Johnston tax assessor’s lot 17, plat 57 consisting |
| of 45 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Johnston delineated as Johnston |
| tax assessor’s lot 20, plat 59 consisting of 55 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the |
| town of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 15, plat 47 consisting of 9 acres, more or |
| less; that certain land situated in the town of Glocester delineated as Glocester tax assessor’s lot |
| 164, plat 18 consisting of 211.7 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Foster |
| delineated as Foster tax assessor’s lot 31, plat 21 consisting of 22 acres, more or less; that certain |
| land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 14, plat 37 consisting |
| of 15 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Foster delineated as Foster tax |
| assessor’s lot 49, plat 15 consisting of 4.5 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town |
| of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 35, plat 14 consisting of 57 acres, more or less; |
| that certain land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 1, plat 37 |
| consisting of 16 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as |
| Scituate tax assessor’s lot 5, plat 11 consisting of 33.8 acres, more or less; that certain land situated |
| in the town of Foster delineated as Foster tax assessor’s lot 34A, plat 9 consisting of 20 acres, more |
| or less; that certain land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 47, |
| plat 51 consisting of 10 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Foster delineated |
| as Foster tax assessor’s lot 42, plat 12 consisting of .3 acres, more or less; that certain land situated |
| in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 82, plat 49 consisting of 10 acres, |
| more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Foster delineated as Foster tax assessor’s lot |
| 41, plat 12 consisting of 8 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Scituate |
| delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 16, plat 37 consisting of 10 acres more or less; that certain |
| land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 83, plat 49 consisting |
| of 20 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate |
| tax assessor’s lot 46, plat 9 consisting of 40 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the |
| town of Glocester delineated as Glocester tax assessor’s lot 162, plat 18 consisting of 50.6 acres, |
| more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s |
| lot 15, plat 37 consisting of 15 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Scituate |
| delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 29, plat 52 consisting of .2 acres, more or less; that certain |
| land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 37, plat 17 consisting |
| of 29 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate |
| tax assessor’s lot 11, plat 38 consisting of 17 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the |
| town of Foster delineated as Foster tax assessor’s lot 42A, plat 12 consisting of .4 acres, more or |
| less; that certain land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 53, |
| plat 20 consisting of 9 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Scituate |
| delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 30, plat 52 consisting of .2 acres, more or less; that certain |
| land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lot 81, plat 49 consisting |
| of 73 acres, more or less; that certain land situated in the town of Foster delineated as Foster tax |
| assessor’s lot 48A, plat 15 consisting of 15.5 acres, more or less; |
| and that certain land situated in the town of Foster delineated as Foster tax assessor’s lot |
| 48, plat 15 consisting of 28.9 acres, more or less, for the purpose of protecting the public water |
| supply. |
| (2) In addition to the powers previously granted, any authority in existence on July 7, 1989 |
| has the power to acquire by exercise of eminent domain the land, or any interest in it, described as |
| that certain land situated in the town of Scituate delineated as Scituate tax assessor’s lots 45, 48, |
| 49, 60, 61, 62, and 63, plat 51 consisting of 542.11 acres, more or less, and commonly known as |
| the “Joslin Farm” for the purpose of protecting the water supply. |
| (3) Notwithstanding the preceding, in the event that the authority ceases to use any land or |
| development rights acquired by exercise of eminent domain, pursuant to subsections (a) (1) or (a) |
| (2), for the purpose of protecting the public water supply, the authority shall notify by certified mail |
| return receipt requested, the original owner of the parcel or his or her lawful heirs, and the original |
| owner or his or her lawful heirs shall have a right to recover the land or development rights. The |
| land or development rights shall revert to the original owner or his or her heirs upon the payment |
| of an amount equal to the price originally paid to the owner plus simple interest at the rate of six |
| percent (6%) per annum (or any other purchase price that is mutually agreed upon between the |
| parties) of the property or the development rights. Any transfer of the land or development rights |
| to the city whose city council established a need for an authority or any department, commission, |
| board, or agency of the city shall not constitute a cessation of the use of the land or development |
| rights for purposes of protecting the water supply. |
| (4)(i) For the purposes of this section, the term “development rights” means the rights to: |
| (A) Prohibit the ability of the fee owner to act on or with respect to or regarding uses of a |
| land or water area; or |
| (B) Require the performance by the fee owner of acts on or with respect to or regarding |
| uses of a land or water area, which prohibition or requirement retains or maintains the land or water |
| area in its natural condition or any other condition that is consistent with the protection of |
| environmental quality or provides the public with the benefit of the unique features of the land or |
| water area, provided, that development rights will not be construed to deprive the original owner, |
| his or her successors or assigns, of the right to continue to use the land for agricultural purposes so |
| long as that use conforms to acceptable agricultural practices as established by the department of |
| the environment environmental management and/or the United States soil conservation service. |
| (ii) “Development rights” may also have any meaning as may be mutually agreed upon by |
| the fee owner and the authority in any contract, agreement, deed to development rights, or |
| proceeding before the authority. The proceeding shall be initiated by a fee owner’s filing a petition |
| before the authority and/or any lessee or successor agency seeking permission to use the land or |
| water area for development. The authority has sixty (60) days to determine if the activity described |
| in the petition endangers the environmental quality of the land or water area. Upon a finding of no |
| danger to the environmental quality of the land or water area, the authority shall grant the petition; |
| provided, if no finding is made within sixty (60) days the petition is deemed approved. |
| (5) In the event the authority has initiated condemnation proceedings for development |
| rights, the original affected owner may notify the authority and the superior court of his or her |
| request that the authority take a fee simple interest in the land. Upon notification, the authority has |
| the power to acquire the land in fee simple by the exercise of the power of eminent domain and |
| shall exercise power to acquire a fee simple interest in the land. |
| (6)(i) Prior to the authority’s taking the actions described in subsections (b) through (h), |
| for the purposes of this section, fair market value of the property or development rights are |
| determined as follows: |
| (ii) Each party (the authority and the landowner) shall appoint one appraiser (who shall be |
| a qualified member of the American institute of real estate appraisers, the society of real estate |
| appraisers, the American society of farm managers and rural appraisers, the international |
| association of assessing officers, the national society of real estate appraisers, the national society |
| of independent fee appraisers, the American society of appraisers or the international right of way |
| association, or any successor organization). Each appraiser shall, within twenty (20) business days |
| of his or her appointment, arrive at an independent determination of the fair market value of the |
| property. If the difference between the two (2) appraisals as so determined does not exceed ten |
| percent (10%) of the lesser of the two (2) appraisals, then the fair market value is deemed to be an |
| amount equal to fifty percent (50%) of the sum of the two (2) appraisals. If the difference between |
| the appraisals exceeds ten percent (10%) of the lesser appraisal, then the two (2) appraisers have |
| ten (10) calendar days within which to appoint a third appraiser, who shall, within twenty (20) |
| calendar days, make his or her own independent determination of the fair market value of the |
| property. All three (3) appraisals shall then be compared and the appraisal which differs most in |
| dollar amount from the other two (2) appraisals shall be excluded from consideration, and the fair |
| market value of the property shall be deemed to be fifty percent (50%) of the sum of the remaining |
| two (2) appraisals. The authority shall make an offer to purchase the property or rights in property |
| based upon the fair market value, which offer shall remain open for thirty (30) days or until the |
| time the offer is accepted or rejected. If the offer of the authority is rejected, the authority may |
| proceed with condemnation proceedings within ten (10) days. |
| (b) The necessity for acquisition is conclusively presumed upon the adoption by the |
| authority of a resolution declaring that the acquisition of the land, or interest in it, described in the |
| resolution is necessary for the construction or operation of any project. Within six (6) months of |
| the adoption of a resolution, the authority shall cause to be filed, in the land evidence records of the |
| city or town in which the land is located, a copy of the resolution of the authority, together with a |
| plat of the land, or interest in it described, and a statement, signed by the chairperson of the |
| authority, that the land, or interest in it, is taken pursuant to the provisions of this chapter. |
| Thereupon, the authority shall file, in the superior court in and for the county in which the land, or |
| interest in it, lies, a statement of the sum of money estimated by the authority to be just |
| compensation for the land taken. |
| (c) Upon the filing of the copy of the resolution, plat, and statement in the land evidence |
| records of the city or town, the filing, in the superior court, of the statement, and the depositing in |
| the superior court, to the use of the person entitled to it, of a sum that the court determines to be |
| amply sufficient to satisfy the claims of all persons interested in the land (and the court may, in its |
| discretion, take evidence on the questions to determine the sum to be deposited), title to the land, |
| or interest in it, vests in the authority in fee simple absolute, and the authority may take possession |
| of the land, or interest in it. |
| (d) No sum paid into the court shall be charged with clerk’s fees of any nature. After the |
| filing of the copy, plat, and statement, notice of the taking of the land, or interest in it, shall be |
| served upon the owners of, and persons having an estate in and interested in the land, by the sheriff |
| or the sheriff ’s deputies of the county in which the land, or interest in it, lies, leaving a true and |
| attested copy of the description and statement with each of the persons personally, or at their last |
| and usual place of abode in this state with some person living there, and in case any of the persons |
| are absent from this state and have no last and usual place of abode in this state occupied by any |
| person, the copy shall be left with the persons, if any, in charge of or having possession of the land, |
| or interest in it, taken of the absent persons if the persons are known to the officer; and after the |
| filing of the resolution, plat, and statement, the secretary of the authority shall cause a copy of the |
| resolution and statement to be published in some newspaper published or having general circulation |
| in the county where the land, or interest in it, may be located, at least once a week for three (3) |
| successive weeks. If any person agrees with the authority for the price of land, or interest in it taken, |
| the court, upon the application of the parties in interest, may order that the sum agreed upon be paid |
| immediately from the money deposited, as the just compensation to be awarded in the proceeding. |
| (e) Any owner of or person entitled to any estate in or interested in any part of the land, or |
| interest in it, taken, who cannot agree with the authority for the price of the land, or interest in it, |
| taken, in which he or she is interested, may, within three (3) months after personal notice of the |
| taking, or, if he or she has no personal notice, within one year from the first publication of the copy |
| of the resolution and statement, apply, by petition, to the superior court in and for the county in |
| which the land, or interest in it, lies, setting forth the taking of his or her land or interest in it, and |
| praying for an assessment of damages by a jury. Upon filing of the petition, the court shall cause |
| twenty (20) days’ notice of the pendency of the petition to be given to the authority with a certified |
| copy, and may proceed after the notice to the trial; and the trial shall determine all questions of fact |
| relating to the value of the land, or interest in it, and the amount, and judgment shall be entered |
| upon the verdict of the jury, and execution shall be issued against the money so deposited in court |
| and in default against any other property of the authority. In case two (2) or more conflicting |
| petitioners make claim to the same land, or to any interests in it, or to different interests in the same |
| parcel of land, the court, upon motion, shall consolidate their several petitions for trial at the same |
| time by the same jury, and may frame all necessary issues for the trial; and all proceedings taken |
| pursuant to the provisions of this chapter shall take precedence over all other civil matters then |
| pending before the court, or if the superior court, in and for the county in which the land, or interest |
| in it, lies, is not in session in that county, then the proceedings may be heard in the superior court |
| for the counties of Providence and Bristol. |
| (f) If any lands, or interests in them, in which any minor, or other person not capable in law |
| to act in his or her own behalf, is interested are taken by the authority under the provisions of this |
| chapter, the superior court, upon the filing in the court of any petition by or in behalf of the minor |
| or other person, may appoint a guardian ad litem for the minor or other person, and the guardian |
| may appear and be heard in behalf of the minor or other person; and the guardian may also, with |
| the advice and consent of the superior court and upon any terms that the superior court may |
| prescribe, release to the authority all claims for damages for the lands of the minor or other person |
| or for any interest in them. Any lawfully appointed, qualified, and acting guardian or other fiduciary |
| of the estate of any minor or other person, with the approval of the court of probate within this state |
| having jurisdiction to authorize the sale of lands and properties within this state of any minor or |
| other person, may, before the filing of any petition, agree with the authority upon the amount of |
| damages suffered by the minor or other person by any taking of his or her lands or of his or her |
| interests in any lands, and may, upon receiving that amount, release to the authority all claims of |
| damages of the minor or other person for the taking. |
| (g) Whenever, from time to time, the authority has satisfied the court that the amount |
| deposited with the court is greater than is amply sufficient to satisfy the claims of all persons |
| interested in the land, the court may order that the amount of any excess including any interest or |
| increment on any sums so deposited be repaid to the authority. Whenever the authority has satisfied |
| the court that the claims of all persons interested in the land taken have been satisfied, the |
| unexpended balance, including any interest or increment on any sums deposited, shall be paid |
| immediately to the authority. |
| (h) In any proceedings for the assessment of compensation and damages for land or interest |
| in it taken, or to be taken by eminent domain by the authority, the following provisions are |
| applicable: |
| (1) At any time during the pendency of any action or proceeding, the authority or an owner |
| may apply to the court for an order directing an owner or the authority, as the case may be, to show |
| cause why further proceedings should not be expedited, and the court may, upon that application, |
| make an order requiring that the hearings proceed and that any other steps be taken with all possible |
| expedition. |
| (2) If any of the land, or interest in it, is devoted to a public use, it may nevertheless be |
| acquired, and the taking shall be effective, provided, that no land, or interest in it, belonging to a |
| public utilities administrator or other officer or tribunal having regulatory power over such a |
| corporation is taken. Any land, or interest in it, already acquired by the authority may, nevertheless, |
| be included within the taking for the purpose of acquiring any outstanding interests in the land. |
| SECTION 11. Section 45-51-2 of the General Laws in Chapter 45-51 entitled |
| "Environmental Advocacy Act" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 45-51-2. Conservation commission — Appointment. |
| The mayor or town administrator of any city or town may designate the municipal |
| conservation commission as defined in § 45-31-1 45-35-1 to serve as an environmental advocate, |
| subject to approval by the city or town council, which shall perform the duties as established in this |
| chapter. |
| SECTION 12. Section 45-52-10 of the General Laws in Chapter 45-52 entitled "The |
| Quonochontaug East Beach Water District" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 45-52-10. District council. |
| (a) The moderator, the treasurer, the district clerk, the chairperson of the finance committee |
| and the chairperson of the public works committee, constitute a district council. It is the duty of the |
| district council to: |
| (1) Supervise and coordinate the activities of all of the officers, commissions, and |
| committees of the district; |
| (2) Fill vacancies in offices as provided in § 45-52-6(b) 45-52-6(c); |
| (3) Prepare, or have prepared, ordinances relative to the district and its activities, and |
| present the ordinances to either the annual or special meeting of the district for action; and |
| (4) Develop for, and present to, the annual or a special meeting called for the purpose, plans |
| for the improvement and development of the district. |
| (b) The council also has the care, management, and control of all property and equipment |
| owned by the district, subject to any ordinances, bylaws, and regulations which the district may |
| make with respect to them. Three (3) members of the council constitute a quorum. Notice of the |
| time and place of the meeting shall be given by the member calling the meeting by mailing written |
| notice of the meeting at least five (5) days prior to the meeting to each of the members of the |
| council. |
| (c) The district council shall, at least twenty (20) days before each and every annual |
| meeting, sit in open meeting to receive requests for funds to defray the cost of the activities of the |
| district, and to receive suggestions for expenditures to improve the property of the district, extend |
| the usefulness of the district to residents, and for all other purposes, and shall report thereon to the |
| annual meeting with its recommendations. |
| SECTION 13. Section 45-59-18 of the General Laws in Chapter 45-59 entitled "District |
| Management Authorities" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 45-59-18. Petition for relief from assessment. |
| (a) Any person aggrieved on any ground whatsoever by any assessment against him or her |
| by a district management authority in any municipality may within three (3) months after the last |
| day appointed for the payment without penalty of the assessment, or the first installment of the |
| payment, if the assessment is payable in installments, file a notice of appeal with the district |
| management authority, and within thirty (30) days thereafter, file a petition in the superior court |
| for the county within which the municipality is located for relief from the assessment, to which |
| petition the district management authority will be made a party respondent, and the clerk of the |
| superior court will thereupon issue a citation substantially in the following form: |
| THE STATE OF RHODE ISLAND |
| To the sheriff of the several counties, or to the deputies, Greetings: |
| We command you to summon the treasurer of (the district management authority): to wit, |
| ....................................... of ....................................... (if to be found in your precinct) to answer the |
| complaint of ....................................... of ....................................... on the return day hereof (said |
| return day being the ........... day of ....................., A.D. 20...........) in the superior court to be holden |
| at the county's courthouse in as by petition filed in court is fully set forth; and to show cause why |
| said petition should not be granted. |
| Hereof fail not, and make true return of this writ with your doings thereon. |
| Witness, the seal of our superior court, at ....................................... this day of ..................... |
| in the year, A.D. 20............ |
| _______________________________________, Clerk |
| (b) The petition will be subject to the provisions of §§ 44-5-26 — 44-5-30, 44-5-31 |
| [Repealed] insofar as those sections may be applicable. |
| ARTICLE II -- STATUTORY CONSTRUCTION |
| SECTION 1. Sections 5-48.2-3 and 5-48.2-9 of the General Laws in Chapter 5-48.2 entitled |
| "Professional Licensing and Regulation of Speech-Language Pathologists and Audiologists" are |
| hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 5-48.2-3. Definitions. |
| As used in this chapter, the following words and terms shall have the following meanings, |
| except where the context clearly indicates otherwise: |
| (1) “Accredited/approved” means that an institution/program holds regional accreditation |
| from one of six (6) regional accrediting bodies: Middle States Association of Colleges and Schools, |
| New England Association of Schools and Colleges, North Central Association of Colleges and |
| Schools, Northwest Association of Schools and Colleges, Southern Association of Colleges and |
| Schools, and Western Association of Schools and Colleges. |
| (2) “Act” means chapter 48 of this title entitled, “speech-language pathology and |
| audiology,” as well as the provisions of this chapter, where the context so indicates. |
| (3) “Audiologist” means an individual who is licensed by the board to practice audiology |
| either in person or via telepractice. |
| (4) “Audiology” means the audiologist applies the principles, methods, and procedures |
| related to hearing and the disorders of the hearing and balance systems, to related language and |
| speech disorders, and to aberrant behavior related to hearing loss. A hearing disorder is defined as |
| altered sensitivity, acuity, function, processing, and/or damage to the integrity of the physiological |
| auditory/vestibular systems, in individuals or groups of individuals who have or are suspected of |
| having such disorders. |
| (5) “Audiology support personnel” shall operate under the title “audiometric aide” or |
| “audiology assistant” and means an individual who meets minimum qualifications established by |
| the board, which are less than those established by the act as necessary for licensing as an |
| audiologist; does not act independently; is limited to hearing screening with pass/fail criteria; and |
| works under the direction and supervision of an audiologist licensed under the act who has been |
| actively working in the field for twenty-four (24) months after completion of the postgraduate |
| professional experience and who accepts the responsibility for the acts and performances of the |
| audiometric aide or audiology assistant while working under the act. |
| (6) “Board” means the state board of examiners of speech-language pathology and |
| audiology established pursuant to § 5-48-2. |
| (7) “Clinical fellow” means the person who is practicing speech-language pathology under |
| the supervision of a licensed speech-language pathologist while completing the postgraduate |
| professional experience as required by the act and who holds a current provisional license in |
| accordance with the requirements described in this chapter. |
| (8) “Clinical fellowship or traineeship” means the direct clinical work, consultation, or |
| other duties relevant to clinical speech-language pathology work with individuals presenting |
| disorders in communication, for a cumulative or equivalent total of nine (9) months of full-time |
| employment following completion of professional speech-language pathology education under |
| supervision pursuant to § 5-48-7 and the provisions of this chapter. |
| (9) “Department” means the Rhode Island department of health. |
| (10) “Director” means the director of the Rhode Island department of health. |
| (11) “Graduate program” means a post-baccalaureate accredited program leading to a |
| master’s or doctoral degree, including a professional doctoral degree, whether offered through an |
| accredited graduate or professional school. |
| (12) “Newborn hearing screener” means an audiometric aide or audiology assistant |
| working in a hospital-based newborn hearing screening program under the direction of the |
| department of health newborn hearing screening program, or its appointee. |
| (13) “Person” means an individual, partnership organization, or corporation, except that |
| only individuals can be licensed under this chapter. |
| (14) “The practice of audiology” means an audiologist rendering or offering to render any |
| service in audiology either in person or via telepractice as defined in § 5-48-1 and in this section. |
| (15) “The practice of speech-language pathology” means rendering or offering to render |
| any service in speech-language pathology either in person or via telepractice as defined in this |
| section. |
| (16) “Regionally accredited” means the official guarantee that a college or university or |
| other educational institution is in conformity with the standards of education prescribed by a |
| regional accrediting commission recognized by the United States Secretary of Education. |
| (17) “School hearing screener” means an audiometric aide or audiology assistant working |
| in a school-based hearing screening program under the direction of the Rhode Island department |
| of elementary and secondary education or its appointee. |
| (18) “Speech-language pathologist (SLP)” means an individual who is licensed by the |
| board to practice speech-language pathology either in person or via telepractice. |
| (19) “Speech-language pathology” means the activities defined in § 5-48-1 and in this |
| section. |
| (20) “Speech-language pathology assistant (SLPA) support personnel” means an |
| individual who meets minimum qualifications established by the board, which are less than those |
| established by the act as necessary for licensing as a speech-language pathologist; does not act |
| independently; and works under the direction and supervision of a speech-language pathologist |
| licensed under the act who has been actively working in the field for twenty-four (24) months after |
| completion of the postgraduate professional experience and who accepts the responsibility for the |
| acts and performances of the speech-language pathology assistant while working under this chapter. |
| (21) “Telepractice” means the use of telecommunication technology to deliver speech- |
| language pathology and audiology services remotely. Other terms such as teleaudiology, |
| telespeech, and speech teletherapy are also used in addition to telepractice. Use of telepractice |
| should be of equal quality to services provided in person and consistent with adherence to the |
| American Speech-Language-Hearing Association (ASHA)’s Code of Ethics (ASHA, 2016a), |
| Scope of Practice in Audiology (ASHA, 2018), Scope of Practice in Speech-Language Pathology |
| (ASHA, 2016b), and Assistants Code of Conduct (ASHA, 2020). |
| 5-48.2-9. Supervision and responsibility. |
| (a)(1) A supervising professional must be a speech-language pathologist or audiologist who |
| is licensed under this chapter; and who has been actively working in the field for twenty-four (24) |
| months after completion of the postgraduate professional experience; and must be responsible for |
| the acts and performances, patient screening, and specific tasks assigned by the licensee to the |
| speech-language pathology assistant (SLPA)/audiometric aide or audiology assistant. |
| (2) A licensee who supervises support personnel must: |
| (i) Utilize the services of only those who meet the minimum requirements enumerated |
| under this chapter; |
| (ii) Ensure that the support personnel are assigned only those duties and responsibilities for |
| which the person has been specifically trained and which the assistant is qualified to perform; |
| (iii) Ensure that persons who will be receiving services from support personnel, or the |
| person’s legal representative, are informed that services are being rendered by support personnel; |
| (iv) Provide supervision of the support personnel (other than newborn hearing screeners |
| and school hearing screeners); and |
| (v) Complete a minimum of two (2) hours of professional development in clinical |
| instruction/supervision. |
| (b) A speech-language pathologist supervisor may only supervise one full-time equivalent |
| speech-language pathology assistant (SLPA) support personnel and not more than two (2) SLPAs |
| at any time and an audiologist supervisor may only supervise three (3) full-time equivalent |
| audiometric aides or audiology assistants unless otherwise approved by the board. At no time |
| should support personnel perform tasks when a supervising SLPA SLP cannot be reached by |
| personal contact, phone, pager, or other immediate means. When multiple supervisors are used, the |
| supervisors are encouraged to coordinate and communicate with each other. |
| (c) Observations of support audiometric aides must be completed and documented as to |
| date, amount of time, and accuracy and efficacy of service according to the following: Direct on- |
| site observations of the first ten (10) hours of direct client contact; and five percent (5%) of all |
| clinical sessions after the first ten (10) hours for every forty (40) consecutive hours worked; and |
| indirect supervision (e.g., home, interactive television, audio/video review, or patient record |
| review) of five percent (5%) of each forty (40) consecutive hours worked. |
| (d) Observations of a speech-language pathology assistant (SLPA) pathology support |
| personnel shall be completed and documented as to date, amount of time, and accuracy and efficacy |
| of service according to the following: |
| (1) Direct supervision means in-view observation and guidance while the SLPA is |
| performing a clinical activity. Direct supervision does not include reviewing an audio or video |
| recorded session later. |
| (2) A minimum of twenty percent (20%) direct supervision and ten percent (10%) indirect |
| supervision is required of all the time that assistant is providing services during the first ninety (90) |
| days of employment. After the first ninety (90) days, the supervising SLPA may adjust their amount |
| of supervision if they determine that the SLPA meets appropriate competencies. A minimum of ten |
| percent (10%) direct and ten percent (10%) indirect supervision is required every one hundred |
| eighty (180) days regardless of employment status. |
| (e) Before any SLPA begins to provide support independently, the supervising SLP must |
| have first contact with all individuals on the caseload. For purposes of this section, first contact |
| includes establishing rapport, gathering baseline data, and securing other necessary documentation |
| to begin (or continue) the plan of care for the student, patient, or client. |
| (f) Supervisors shall maintain records which document the frequency and type of |
| supervision of support personnel, such records to be available for audit upon request by the board. |
| SECTION 2. Section 5-64-5 of the General Laws in Chapter 5-64 entitled |
| "Dietitian/Nutritionist Act" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 5-64-5. Rhode Island state board of dietetics practice. |
| (a) Within the division of professional regulation in the Rhode Island department of health |
| there is a board of dietetics practice. |
| (1) The board shall consist of nine (9) members appointed for terms of three (3) years each |
| with and no member shall be appointed for more than two (2) consecutive terms. Upon expiration |
| of the term of office, a member shall continue to serve until a successor is appointed and qualified. |
| One shall be the director of the department of health or designee. Five (5) shall be licensed |
| dietitians/nutritionists appointed by the director of the department of health, with the approval of |
| the governor, except that the appointments made initially need not be licensed under this chapter. |
| (In the director’s initial appointment, the director shall designate the licensed dietitian/nutritionist |
| members of the board as follows: one member to serve for a term of one year; two (2) members to |
| serve for a term of two (2) years; and two (2) members to serve for a term of three (3) years). One |
| member shall be a physician licensed to practice medicine in this state appointed by the governor. |
| Two (2) shall be consumers appointed by the governor. A majority of seats filled shall constitute a |
| quorum. |
| (2) The director of the department of health may remove any member of the board for |
| cause. |
| (3) Vacancies shall be filled for the unexpired portion of any term in the same manner as |
| the original appointment. |
| (b) The duties of the board shall be to: |
| (1) Recommend to the director rules and regulations necessary to implement this chapter; |
| (2) Determine the qualification and fitness of applicants and to issue and/or reinstate |
| licenses; and |
| (3) Recommend to the director revocation, suspension, and/or denial of a license. |
| SECTION 3. Section 5-64.2-3 of the General Laws in Chapter 5-64.2 entitled "Dietitian |
| Licensure Compact" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 5-64.2-3. Definitions. |
| For purposes of this section chapter, the following terms shall have the following |
| meanings: |
| (1) “ACEND” means the Accreditation Council for Education in Nutrition and Dietetics or |
| its successor organization. |
| (2) “Active military member” means any individual with full-time duty status in the active |
| armed forces of the United States, including members of the National Guard and Reserve. |
| (3) “Adverse action” means any administrative, civil, equitable, or criminal action |
| permitted by a state’s laws which is imposed by a licensing authority or other authority against a |
| licensee, including actions against an individual’s license or compact privilege such as revocation, |
| suspension, probation, monitoring of the licensee, limitation on the licensee’s practice, or any other |
| encumbrance on licensure affecting a licensee’s authorization to practice, including issuance of a |
| cease and desist action. |
| (4) “Alternative program” means a non-disciplinary monitoring or practice remediation |
| process approved by a licensing authority. |
| (5) “CDR” means the Commission on Dietetic Registration or its successor organization. |
| (6) “Charter member state” means any member state which enacted the compact by law |
| before the effective date pursuant to § 5-64.2-13. |
| (7) “Compact commission” means the government agency whose membership consists of |
| all states that have enacted the compact, which is known as the dietitian licensure compact |
| commission, pursuant to § 5-64.2-9, and which shall operate as an instrumentality of the member |
| states. |
| (8) “Compact privilege” means a legal authorization, which is equivalent to a license, |
| permitting the practice of dietetics in a remote state. |
| (9) “Continuing education” means a requirement, as a condition of license renewal, to |
| provide evidence of participation in, and completion of, educational and professional activities |
| relevant to practice or area of work. |
| (10) “Current significant investigative information” means: |
| (i) Investigative information that a licensing authority, after a preliminary inquiry that |
| includes notification and an opportunity for the subject licensee to respond, if required by state law, |
| has reason to believe is not groundless and, if proved true, would indicate more than a minor |
| infraction; or |
| (ii) Investigative information that indicates that the subject licensee represents an |
| immediate threat to public health and safety regardless of whether the subject licensee has been |
| notified and had an opportunity to respond. |
| (11) “Data system” means a repository of information about licensees, including, but not |
| limited to, continuing education, examination, licensure, investigative, compact privilege and |
| adverse action information. |
| (12) “Encumbered license” means a license in which an adverse action restricts a licensee’s |
| ability to practice dietetics. |
| (13) “Encumbrance” means a revocation or suspension of, or any limitation on a licensee’s |
| full and unrestricted practice of dietetics by a licensing authority. |
| (14) “Executive committee” means a group of delegates elected or appointed to act on |
| behalf of, and within the powers granted to them by, the compact, and the compact commission. |
| (15) “Home state” means the member state that is the licensee’s primary state of residence |
| or that has been designated pursuant to § 5-64.2-7. |
| (16) “Investigative information” means information, records, and documents received or |
| generated by a licensing authority pursuant to an investigation. |
| (17) “Jurisprudence requirement” means an assessment of an individual’s knowledge of |
| the state laws and regulations governing the practice of dietetics in such state. |
| (18) “License” means an authorization from a member state to either: |
| (i) Engage in the practice of dietetics (including medical nutrition therapy); or |
| (ii) Use the title “dietitian,” “licensed dietitian,” “licensed dietitian nutritionist,” “certified |
| dietitian,” or other title describing a substantially similar practitioner as the compact commission |
| may further define by rule. |
| (19) “Licensee” or “licensed dietitian” means an individual who currently holds a license |
| and who meets all of the requirements set forth in § 5-64.2-5. |
| (20) “Licensing authority” means the board or agency of a state, or equivalent, that is |
| responsible for the licensing and regulation of the practice of dietetics. |
| (21) “Member state” means a state that has enacted the compact. |
| (22) “Practice of dietetics” means the synthesis and application of dietetics, primarily for |
| the provision of nutrition care services, including medical nutrition therapy, in person or via |
| telehealth, to prevent, manage, or treat diseases or medical conditions and promote wellness. |
| (23) “Registered dietitian” means a person who: |
| (i) Has completed applicable education, experience, examination, and recertification |
| requirements approved by CDR; |
| (ii) Is credentialed by CDR as a registered dietitian or a registered dietitian nutritionist; and |
| (iii) Is legally authorized to use the title registered dietitian or registered dietitian |
| nutritionist and the corresponding abbreviations “RD” or “RDN.” |
| (24) “Remote state” means a member state other than the home state, where a licensee is |
| exercising or seeking to exercise a compact privilege. |
| (25) “Rule” means a regulation promulgated by the compact commission that has the force |
| of law. |
| (26) “Single state license” means a license issued by a member state within the issuing |
| state and does not include a compact privilege in any other member state. |
| (27) “State” means any state, commonwealth, district, or territory of the United States of |
| America. |
| (28) “Unencumbered license” means a license that authorizes a licensee to engage in the |
| full and unrestricted practice of dietetics. |
| SECTION 4. Section 5-65.4-1 of the General Laws in Chapter 5-65.4 entitled "Residential |
| Contractor Licensing" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 5-65.4-1. Short title and purpose. |
| This chapter shall be known and may be cited as the “Rhode Island residential contractor |
| licensing law” to safeguard the public health, the. The purpose of this chapter is to establish |
| safeguard the public health by establishing a licensing program and minimum standards for |
| contractors supervising or performing structural work in residences of one to four (4) family |
| dwelling units. |
| SECTION 5. Section 6-13.1-1 of the General Laws in Chapter 6-13.1 entitled "Deceptive |
| Trade Practices" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 6-13.1-1. Definitions. [Effective March 31, 2026.] |
| As used in this chapter: |
| (1) “Documentary material” means the original or a copy of any book, record, report, |
| memorandum, paper, communication, tabulation, map, chart, photograph, mechanical |
| transcription, or other tangible document or recording wherever situated. |
| (2) “Examination” of documentary material includes the inspection, study, or copying of |
| any documentary material, and the taking of testimony under oath or acknowledgment in respect |
| of any documentary material or copy of any documentary material. |
| (3) “Person” means natural persons, corporations, trusts, partnerships, incorporated or |
| unincorporated associations, and any other legal entity. |
| (4) “Rebate” means the return of a payment or a partial payment that serves as a discount |
| or reduction in price. |
| (5) “Trade” and “commerce” mean the advertising, offering for sale, sale, or distribution |
| of any services and any property, tangible or intangible, real, personal, or mixed, and any other |
| article, commodity, or thing of value wherever situate, and include any trade or commerce directly |
| or indirectly affecting the people of this state. |
| (6) “Unfair methods of competition and unfair or deceptive acts or practices” means any |
| one or more of the following: |
| (i) Passing off goods or services as those of another; |
| (ii) Causing likelihood of confusion or of misunderstanding as to the source, sponsorship, |
| approval, or certification of goods or services; |
| (iii) Causing likelihood of confusion or of misunderstanding as to affiliation, connection, |
| or association with, or certification by, another; |
| (iv) Using deceptive representations or designations of geographic origin in connection |
| with goods or services; |
| (v) Representing that goods or services have sponsorship, approval, characteristics, |
| ingredients, uses, benefits, or quantities that they do not have or that a person has a sponsorship, |
| approval, status, affiliation, or connection that the person does not have; |
| (vi) Representing that goods are original or new if they are deteriorated, altered, |
| reconditioned, reclaimed, used, or secondhand; and if household goods have been repaired or |
| reconditioned, without conspicuously noting the defect that necessitated the repair on the tag that |
| contains the cost to the consumer of the goods; |
| (vii) Representing that goods or services are of a particular standard, quality, or grade, or |
| that goods are of a particular style or model, if they are of another; |
| (viii) Disparaging the goods, services, or business of another by false or misleading |
| representation of fact; |
| (ix) Advertising goods or services with intent not to sell them as advertised; |
| (x) Advertising goods or services with intent not to supply reasonably expectable public |
| demand, unless the advertisement discloses a limitation of quantity; |
| (xi) Making false or misleading statements of fact concerning the reasons for, existence of, |
| or amounts of price reductions; |
| (xii) Engaging in any other conduct that similarly creates a likelihood of confusion or of |
| misunderstanding; |
| (xiii) Engaging in any act or practice that is unfair or deceptive to the consumer; |
| (xiv) Using any other methods, acts, or practices that mislead or deceive members of the |
| public in a material respect; |
| (xv) Advertising any brand name goods for sale and then selling substituted brand names |
| in their place; |
| (xvi) Failure to include the brand name and/or manufacturer of goods in any advertisement |
| of the goods for sale, and, if the goods are used or secondhand, failure to include the information |
| in the advertisement; |
| (xvii) Advertising claims concerning safety, performance, and comparative price unless |
| the advertiser, upon request by any person, the consumer council, or the attorney general, makes |
| available documentation substantiating the validity of the claim; |
| (xviii) Representing that work has been performed on or parts replaced in goods when the |
| work was not in fact performed or the parts not in fact replaced; |
| (xix) Failing to separately state the amount charged for labor and the amount charged for |
| services when requested by the purchaser as provided for in § 44-18-12(b)(3) 44-18-12(b)(ii); |
| (xx) Advertising for sale at a retail establishment the availability of a manufacturer’s rebate |
| by displaying the net price of the advertised item (the price of the item after the rebate has been |
| deducted from the item’s price) in the advertisement, unless the amount of the manufacturer’s |
| rebate is provided to the consumer by the retailer at the time of the purchase of the advertised item. |
| It shall be the retailer’s burden to redeem the rebate offered to the consumer by the manufacturer; |
| (xxi) Advertising, displaying, or offering a price for live-event tickets or short-term lodging |
| in violation of 16 C.F.R. Part 464; or |
| (xxii) Engaging in any act or practice that is unfair or deceptive by a person advising or |
| assisting any veteran filing a claim for disability benefits with the Department of Veterans Affairs. |
| SECTION 6. Sections 6-61-1 and 6-61-5 of the General Laws in Chapter 6-61 entitled |
| "Right to Consumer Access to Powered Wheelchair Repairs" are hereby amended to read as |
| follows: |
| 6-61-1. Definitions. |
| For purposes of this chapter, unless the context otherwise requires: |
| (1) “Authorized repair supplier” means an individual or business who or that is unaffiliated |
| with an original equipment manufacturer and who or that has an arrangement with the original |
| equipment manufacturer, for a definite or indefinite period, under which the original equipment |
| manufacturer grants to the individual or business a license to use a trade name, service mark, or |
| other proprietary identifier for the purposes of offering the services of inspection, diagnosis, |
| maintenance, or repair of powered wheelchairs under the name of the original equipment |
| manufacturer, or other arrangement with the original equipment manufacturer to offer those |
| services on behalf of the original equipment manufacturer. An original equipment manufacturer |
| who or that offers the services of inspection, diagnosis, maintenance, or repair of its own powered |
| wheelchairs, and who or that does not have an arrangement with an unaffiliated individual or |
| business, shall be considered an authorized repair supplier with respect to that equipment. |
| (2) “Commissioner” means the health insurance commissioner. |
| (3) “Complex manual wheelchair” means a manually driven complex wheelchair that can |
| accommodate rehabilitative accessories and features. |
| (4) “Complex power wheelchair” means a power-driven complex wheelchair, as defined |
| by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (“CMS”) that is classified as a Group 2 power |
| wheelchair with power options that can accommodate rehabilitative features to include, but not |
| limited to, tilt in space; or a Group 3, Group 4, or Group 5 power wheelchair. |
| (5) “Complex rehabilitation technology (CRT)” or “complex wheelchair” means items that |
| are individually configured for individuals to meet their specific and unique medical, physical, and |
| functional needs and capacities for basic activities of daily living and instrumental activities of |
| daily living identified as medically necessary, and shall include options and accessories related to |
| any of such items. Current healthcare common procedure coding system (“HCPCS”) shall fall |
| under the definition of complex rehabilitation technology, and any amendments to HCPCS |
| subsequently added or created by the federal government shall be included within the definition of |
| complex rehabilitation technology and shall be added to the covered HCPC list. |
| (6) “Complex rehabilitation wheelchair manufacturer” or “manufacturer” means a person |
| or company who or that designs, develops, tests, and produces finished systems or components of |
| those systems and sells all products or components to: |
| (i) Authorized providers for distribution; or |
| (ii) To other manufacturers for the production of more complex wheelchair systems. |
| Manufacturers are also responsible for maintaining compliance with relevant production |
| regulations and standards and reporting as designated by federal and state authorities. |
| (7) “Consumer” means a member of a health carrier who or that uses a complex rehab |
| technology with which the CRT supplier has a contractual relationship. |
| (8) “Consumer-owned backup complex power wheelchair” means a retired power |
| wheelchair that can be safely used by the consumer when a manual backup or suitable loaner |
| wheelchair cannot be supplied to meet the consumer’s medical needs. |
| (9) “Covered person” means a policyholder, subscriber, or other person participating in a |
| policy, contract, or plan that provides for third-party payment or prepayment of health or medical |
| expenses. |
| (10) “Defect” means an abnormality that impairs the quality, function, or utility of a |
| wheelchair from its intended design and purpose. |
| (11) “Department” means the department of business regulation established pursuant to the |
| provisions of chapter 14 of title 42. |
| (12) “Embedded software” means any programmable instructions provided on firmware |
| delivered with an electronic component of equipment, or with a part for that equipment, for |
| purposes of equipment operation, including all relevant patches and fixes made by the manufacturer |
| of the equipment or part for these purposes. |
| (13) “Evaluation/diagnostic time” means time and labor during which a qualified |
| technician troubleshoots and diagnoses any wheelchair adjustments or repair needs. |
| (14) “Executive office” means the executive office of health and human services, the |
| agency designated by state law and the Medicaid state plan as the Medicaid single state agency. |
| (15) “Fair and reasonable terms and costs,” with respect to obtaining manufacturer |
| documentation, parts, embedded software, firmware, or tools from a manufacturer to provide |
| services, means terms that are equivalent to the most favorable terms that the manufacturer offers |
| to an authorized repair supplier and costs to the buyer that are no greater than the manufacturer’s |
| suggested retail price: |
| (i) For documentation, including any relevant updates, “fair and reasonable terms and |
| costs” also means at no charge, except that, when the documentation is requested in physical printed |
| form, a charge may be included for the reasonable actual costs of preparing and sending the copy; |
| (ii) For software tools, “fair and reasonable terms and costs” also means all of the |
| following: |
| (A) Provided at no charge and without requiring authorization or internet access; |
| (B) Without imposing impediments to access or use, in the course of effecting the |
| diagnosis, maintenance, or repair and without impairing the efficient and cost-effective |
| performance of the diagnosis, maintenance, or repair; |
| (C) Enables full functionality; |
| (iii) If an original equipment manufacturer does not utilize an authorized repair supplier, |
| “fair and reasonable terms and costs” means an equitable price charged to the buyer in consideration |
| of the actual cost to the original equipment manufacturer to prepare and distribute the part, tool, |
| service access method, or documentation, exclusive of any research and development costs |
| incurred. |
| (16) “Firmware” means a software program or set of instructions programmed on |
| equipment, or on a part for that equipment, to allow the equipment or part to communicate within |
| itself or with other computer hardware. |
| (17) “Healthcare professional” means an individual who is licensed, registered, or certified |
| under federal or state law or regulation to provide healthcare services. |
| (18) “Health plan” or “payer” means an entity subject to the insurance laws of this state, or |
| subject to the jurisdiction of the commissioner, that contracts or offers to contract to provide health |
| insurance coverage including, but not limited to, an insurance company, a health maintenance |
| organization and a nonprofit hospital and medical service corporation. |
| (19) “Independent repair provider” means an individual or business, other than the |
| manufacturer, that is engaged in the services of inspection, diagnosis, maintenance, or repair of |
| equipment for the purposes of returning it to the safety and performance specifications established |
| by the manufacturer and to meet its original intended use. |
| (20) “Inoperable” means when a wheelchair becomes unusable due to a mechanical or |
| electronic breakdown or failure. |
| (21) “Loaner” means a properly working wheelchair that performs the essential functions |
| of the original wheelchair and that is provided to the consumer on a temporary basis while the |
| consumer’s wheelchair is being repaired/replaced. A “loaner” wheelchair is further defined to be |
| in good working order, does not create any threat to the consumer’s health or safety, and need not |
| be new or identical to or have the same functional capabilities as those of the original wheelchair. |
| (22) “Manufacturer documentation” means any manual, diagram, reporting output, service |
| code description, schematic, or other guidance or information used in effecting the services of |
| inspection, diagnosis, maintenance, or repair of powered wheelchairs. |
| (23) “Medical documentation” means any chart notes, letters of medical necessity, |
| prescriptions, or other clinical documentation demonstrating the initial or continued medical |
| necessity of qualifying complex rehabilitation technology. |
| (24) “Non-conformity” means a condition or defect that significantly impairs the use, |
| value, function, or safety of an assistive device or any of its components, but does not include a |
| condition or defect of the device that is the result of: |
| (i) Abuse, misuse, or neglect by a consumer; |
| (ii) Modifications or alterations not authorized by the manufacturer; |
| (iii) Normal wear; |
| (iv) Normal use which may be resolved through a fitting adjustment, routine maintenance, |
| preventative maintenance, or proper care; or |
| (v) A consumer’s failure to follow any manufacturer’s written service and maintenance |
| guidelines furnished to the customer at the time of purchase. |
| (25) “Prior authorization” means any requirement held by the payer that the covered person |
| or the qualified complex rehabilitation technology supplier obtain written or verbal approval from |
| the payer [or other insurer] before completing needed services or providing equipment to a covered |
| person. |
| (26) “Qualified complex rehabilitation technology professional” means an individual who |
| is certified as an assistive technology professional (ATP) by a professional organization providing |
| certification of assistive technology professions. |
| (27) “Qualified complex rehabilitation technology supplier” or “supplier” means a |
| company or entity that meets all of the following criteria: |
| (i) Is accredited by a recognized accrediting organization as a supplier of complex |
| rehabilitation technology; |
| (ii) Is an employer of at least one qualified complex rehabilitation technology professional |
| to analyze the needs and capacities of the complex needs consumer in consultation with qualified |
| healthcare professionals, to participate in the selection of appropriate complex rehabilitation |
| technology for those needs and capacities of the complex needs consumer, and to provide training |
| in the proper use of the complex rehabilitation technology; |
| (iii) Requires a qualified complex rehabilitation technology professional to be physically |
| present for the evaluation and determination of appropriate complex rehabilitation technology for |
| a complex needs consumer; |
| (iv) Has the capability to provide service and repair by trained technicians for all complex |
| rehabilitation technology it sells; and |
| (v) Provides written information at the time of delivery of the complex rehabilitation |
| technology to the complex needs consumer stating how the complex needs consumer may receive |
| service and repair for the complex rehabilitation technology. |
| (28) “Recipient” means a person receiving benefits under the state Medicaid program, |
| including a person whose Medicaid eligibility is being redetermined. |
| (29) “Third-party payer” means an entity other than the consumer of or healthcare supplier, |
| that reimburses and manages healthcare expenses, such as insurance companies and government |
| payers. |
| (30) “Tools” means any software program, hardware, or other apparatus used in inspection, |
| diagnosis, maintenance, or repair of powered wheelchairs, including software or other mechanisms |
| that provision, program, or pair a new part, calibrate functionality, or perform any other function |
| required to bring the product back to fully functional condition. |
| (31) “Trade secret” shall have the same meaning as set forth in § 6-41-1. |
| (32) “Trip/travel allowance” means compensation for travel to the recipient’s home or |
| location for the purpose of facilitating a repair to a complex wheelchair. |
| (33) “Warranty” means a guarantee made by a manufacturer regarding the integrity or |
| condition of the product and the terms and conditions under which repairs, refunds, or exchanges |
| shall be made if the product does not function as originally described or intended within a specified |
| period. |
| 6-61-5. Rules and regulations. |
| The department of business regulation may promulgate rules and regulations to implement |
| and enforce the provisions of §§ 6-61-2, 6-61-3 and 6-61-2 6-61-4. |
| SECTION 7. Section 6-62-5 of the General Laws in Chapter 6-62 entitled "Veterans’ |
| Protection [Effective March 31, 2026.]" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 6-62-5. Penalty. [Effective March 31, 2026.] |
| A violation of the provisions of this chapter shall be an unfair or deceptive act or practice |
| as defined in § 6-13.1-1, and the violator shall be subject to the civil penalties provided pursuant |
| to the provisions of § 6-13.1-8. |
| SECTION 8. Section 11-49-4 of the General Laws in Chapter 11-49 entitled "Credit Card |
| Crime Act" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 11-49-4. Fraudulent use of credit or debit cards. |
| A person who, with intent to defraud the issuer or a person or organization providing |
| money, goods, services, or anything else of value or any other person, uses, for the purpose of |
| obtaining money, goods, services, or anything else of value, a credit card or debit card obtained or |
| retained in violation of this law or a credit card or debit card which they know is forged, expired, |
| or revoked, or who obtains money, goods, services, or anything else of value by representing, |
| without the consent of the cardholder, that they are the holder of a specified card or by representing |
| that they are the holder of a card and the card has not in fact been issued, violates this section and |
| is subject to the penalties set forth in § 11-49-10(a), if the value of all moneys, goods, services, and |
| other things of value obtained in violation of this subsection section does not exceed one hundred |
| dollars ($100) in any six-month (6) period. The violator is subject to the penalties set forth in § 11- |
| 49-10(b) if the value does exceed one hundred dollars ($100) in any six-month (6) period. |
| Knowledge of revocation shall be presumed to have been received by a cardholder four (4) days |
| after it has been mailed to them at the address set forth on the credit card or debit card or at their |
| last known address by registered or certified mail, return receipt requested, and, if the address is |
| more than five hundred (500) miles from the place of mailing, by air mail. If the address is located |
| outside the United States, Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands, the Canal Zone, or Canada, notice shall |
| be presumed to have been received ten (10) days after mailing by registered or certified mail. |
| SECTION 9. Section 16-21-43 of the General Laws in Chapter 16-21 entitled "Health and |
| Safety of Pupils" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 16-21-43. Policy on use of personal electronic devices in schools. [Effective August 1, |
| 2026.] |
| (a)(1) Each public school shall have a policy regarding the use of personal electronic |
| devices on school grounds and during school-sponsored activities to reduce distractions, maintain |
| environments focused on learning, and protect the privacy and safety of students and staff. Each |
| public school shall notify the parents or guardians of all students attending the school of the policy. |
| The policy shall include, but not be limited to, a prohibition on physical access to a personal |
| electronic device by students during the school day as defined by the department of education and |
| the commission commissioner of elementary and secondary education pursuant to §§ 16-2-2 and |
| 16-2-9 and any regulations promulgated thereunder including, but not limited to, 200-RICR-20-05- |
| 1. |
| (2) The district shall make exceptions for student personal device use that provide access |
| to assistive technology necessary to comply with individualized student 504 plans, individualized |
| education plans (IEP), medical needs such as glucose monitoring, and/or a plan to support emergent |
| multilingual learners (MLL) students with appropriate language access programs and services to |
| ensure the provision of appropriate, meaningful public education. The allowable exceptions shall |
| be written into the student’s identified plan and approved by the appropriate team or coordinator. |
| (3) Students provided an exception to this policy shall not be segregated from students |
| without such exception. Exceptions shall also be made in the event of an emergency. |
| (b) For the purposes of this section, a “personal electronic device” means a smartphone, |
| mobile phone, tablet, computer, smartwatch, or other electronic device not owned or provided to a |
| student by a public school that is capable of communication through the internet or a wireless |
| network. |
| (c) The policy and any standards and rules enforcing the policy shall be prescribed by the |
| school committee in conjunction with the superintendent or the board of trustees of a charter school |
| and in consultation with any collective bargaining agents that represent school staff. The policy |
| shall be enforced consistently by school administration, be systematic in nature, and should |
| minimize the potential for conflict between students, parents, educators, and staff. |
| (d) No school official, employee, or agent of the school shall search the contents of any |
| personal electronic device covered by this chapter section that is retained by the school during |
| school hours and not in the student’s possession in a locked pouch or container. |
| (e) The department of elementary and secondary education shall, in consultation with the |
| attorney general’s office and the department of health, provide guidance and recommendations to |
| assist schools with developing and implementing effective policies regarding the use of personal |
| electronic devices on school grounds and during school-sponsored activities consistent with this |
| section and shall make such guidance and recommendations publicly available on the department’s |
| website. Guidance and recommendations shall be reviewed annually and regularly updated to |
| reflect applicable research and best practices. |
| (f) Each school district and charter school shall file its school personal electronic device |
| use policy with the department of elementary and secondary education in a manner and form |
| prescribed by the department. |
| SECTION 10. Section 16-45-6.1 of the General Laws in Chapter 16-45 entitled "Regional |
| Vocational Schools [See Title 16 Chapter 97 — The Rhode Island Board of Education Act]" is |
| hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 16-45-6.1. Career and technical education. |
| (a) The general assembly finds that career and technical education (“CTE”) programs that |
| meet the CTE board of trustees’ industry developed standards prepare Rhode Island’s students to |
| succeed in a wide variety of employment settings and are a critical component of the state’s public |
| education system and a necessary element of the state’s economic development. CTE programs |
| that meet the CTE board of trustees’ standards are located in the regional career and technical |
| education centers and comprehensive high schools and are helping students graduate high school |
| with the skills to secure a job with a family-sustaining wage. |
| (b) The general assembly further finds that the proportion of students now enrolled in such |
| programs is inadequate to meet the needs of Rhode Island’s growing economy. Rhode Island’s |
| employers are best positioned to assist in establishing a high-quality system of secondary and |
| postsecondary career and technical education. To assist in the development of a high-quality system |
| of CTE, the CTE board of trustees shall review and annually provide recommendations to the board |
| of education regarding issues impacting secondary and postsecondary career and technical |
| education, including, but not limited to, program quality, industry alignment, the effective use of |
| state and federal CTE funding, the allocation of CTE funding, and expenditures of CTE funding, |
| program outcomes, work-based learning, transportation, and graduation requirements. The report |
| and recommendations shall be provided to the board of education no later than October 15 of each |
| year. |
| (c) [Deleted by P.L. 2021, ch. 278, § 1 and P.L. 2021, ch. 279, § 1.] |
| (d)(1) To sustain and advance the economic development of our communities, all students |
| retain the right to enroll in a state approved career and technical education program approved by |
| the CTE board of trustees in communities outside their community of residence. This right does |
| not apply to locally developed CTE programs, locally approved CTE programs, pathway programs, |
| or other programs that are not approved by the CTE board of trustees. Students shall have a right |
| to request enrollment and to enroll in a CTE board of trustees’ approved program outside of their |
| community of residence when a substantially similar or same (“substantially similar”) CTE board |
| of trustees approved program is not offered within their community of residence. |
| (2) In determining whether two programs are substantially similar, the CTE board of |
| trustees shall consider the following factors: |
| (i) Program type; |
| (ii) Information on the occupation that the student will be prepared for; |
| (iii) The credentials the student will earn; |
| (iv) The type of work-based learning that the student will be provided access to; |
| (v) The ability to access advanced course experiences; and |
| (vi) Such additional factors as the CTE board of trustees deem to be relevant, including |
| postsecondary attainment, industry partnerships and advisory boards, and program quality. |
| (3) Effective January 15, 2022, and every year thereafter, the CTE board of trustees and |
| the department of elementary and secondary education shall publish a detailed list of substantially |
| similar CTE programs for the upcoming school year. The list will be used to support students and |
| their families in accessing CTE board of trustees approved career and technical education |
| programs. There will be a thirty-day (30) period for schools and districts to appeal the substantially |
| similar designation to the board of education. |
| (4) Students enrolled in, accepted to, or attending a state CTE board-approved program |
| (the “program of choice”) prior to January 1, 2022, which program is outside of their home district |
| but is considered to be substantially similar to a program in their home district, shall be allowed to |
| remain enrolled in that program of choice as set forth in subsection (j) of this section. |
| (e) Students may request access to state CTE board-approved career preparation programs |
| outside their school district if their home district does not provide a substantially similar state- |
| approved CTE program. If a discrepancy exists as to whether two (2) state-approved programs are |
| substantially similar, the state CTE board shall use state CTE board program quality criteria set |
| forth in subsection (d) of this section to determine if the two (2) state CTE board-approved |
| programs are substantially similar programs. The decision of the CTE board shall be final. |
| (f)(1) A student’s request to enroll in an out of district state CTE board-approved career |
| and technical program shall not be denied, provided that: |
| (i) A substantially similar program is not available in the student’s home district; |
| (ii) The student meets any other criteria required of all students for admission to the out of |
| district program and the center; and |
| (iii) When there is more than one recognized CTE program in a transportation region, the |
| student is applying to the center that is geographically the closest program to the student’s |
| residence. |
| (g)(1) Students requesting access to state CTE board-approved career preparation programs |
| outside their established school transportation region may enroll in such programs that are not |
| substantially similar to a program in their home district. In such event, with respect to transportation |
| costs, the resident’s local education agency shall only be responsible for paying the resident |
| district’s average per pupil expenditure for student transportation for all students in the district. The |
| receiving district shall pay any remaining balance due for transportation costs associated with the |
| particular student. |
| (2) The sending district shall pay the average of the per-pupil expenditure of the receiving |
| district and sending district when paying out-of-district tuitions for students in CTE programs. |
| (3) When two or more substantially similar programs are available within a student’s |
| transportation district, that student may enroll in the program that is not geographically closest only |
| if the receiving district agrees to pay all the transportation costs to and from the receiving district. |
| (h) All eligible CTE programs shall align to CTE board of trustees’ program standards. |
| Programs that do not meet this standard shall not be eligible to enroll out-of-district students and |
| receive state or federal CTE funding. |
| (i) All state CTE board-approved programs shall align to industry standards or be |
| associated with a nationally recognized CTE board-approved program. |
| (j) Students enrolled in, accepted to, or attending a state CTE board-approved program of |
| choice outside of the students’ home district as of January 1, 2022, shall be exempt from the |
| substantially similar provisions of this section and may continue to matriculate in grades nine (9) |
| through twelve (12) in their program of choice so that students and parents who made educational |
| decisions prior to January 1, 2022, shall retain the rights that were in place when they made those |
| decisions. If a substantially similar state-approved program is established in a student’s home |
| district after the student has enrolled in a program of choice, the student may continue to matriculate |
| in grades nine (9) through twelve (12) in the student’s program of choice provided the student |
| remains enrolled in the program. The sending district may request, and shall be provided by the |
| district with the chosen CTE program, information on the students’ progress in programs, including |
| attendance and grades. The provisions of this subsection shall also apply and extend to other |
| siblings in the family who apply to attend the same program of choice. |
| (k) Career and technical funds allocated under § 16-7.2-6 shall be used solely for the |
| purpose of funding improvements to state CTE board-approved career and technical education |
| programs and facilities or for funding related to the establishment of new career and technical |
| programs in our state. |
| (l) The limitations related to enrollment in CTE programs contained within this chapter |
| shall not apply to the Metropolitan Regional Career and Technical Center or the William M. Davies, |
| Jr. Career and Technical High School. All eligible students, from any and all Rhode Island cities |
| and towns, have the right to pursue enrollment and enroll in, subject to applicable enrollment |
| procedures, the Metropolitan Regional Career and Technical Center or the William M. Davies, Jr. |
| Career and Technical High School’s programs. |
| (m) Provided, effective July 1, 2025, any data collection and reporting for individual |
| students, that is required as part of the basic education program regulations data collection |
| including, but not limited to, data required pursuant to the provisions of chapters 7 and 7.2 of this |
| title, shall be the responsibility of the school district, wherein the student is attending and enrolled |
| in a career and technical education program, sometimes colloquially referred to as the “receiving |
| district,” and not the responsibility of what is sometimes known as the student’s “sending district.” |
| SECTION 11. Section 19-14-35 of the General Laws in Chapter 19-14 entitled "Licensed |
| Activities" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 19-14-35. Information security program. |
| (a) Each licensee shall develop, implement, and maintain a comprehensive information |
| security program that is written in one or more readily accessible parts and contains administrative, |
| technical, and physical safeguards that are appropriate to the licensee’s size and complexity, the |
| nature and scope of activities, including its use of third-party service providers, and the sensitivity |
| of any customer information used by the licensee or is in the licensee’s possession. |
| (b) As used in this chapter, the following terms shall have the following meanings: |
| (1) “Customer” means a consumer who has a customer relationship with a licensee. |
| (2) “Customer information” means any record containing nonpublic personal information |
| about a consumer that a licensee has a relationship with, whether in paper, electronic, or other form, |
| that is handled or maintained by or on behalf of a licensee or its affiliates. |
| (3) “Encryption” means the transformation of data into a form that results in a low |
| probability of assigning meaning without the use of a protective process or key, consistent with |
| current cryptographic standards and accompanied by appropriate safeguards for cryptographic key |
| material. |
| (4) “Information security program” means the administrative, technical, or physical |
| safeguards used to access, collect, distribute, process, protect, store, use, transmit, dispose of, or |
| otherwise handle customer information. |
| (5) “Information system” means a discrete set of electronic information resources |
| organized for the collection, processing, maintenance, use, sharing, dissemination, or disposition |
| of electronic information, as well as any specialized system such as industrial or process controls |
| systems, telephone switching and private branch exchange systems, and environmental controls |
| systems that contains customer information or that is connected to a system that contains customer |
| information. |
| (6) “Notification event” means acquisition of unencrypted customer information without |
| the authorization of the individual to which the information pertains. Customer information is |
| considered unencrypted for this purpose if the encryption key was accessed by an unauthorized |
| person. Unauthorized acquisition will be presumed to include unauthorized access to unencrypted |
| customer information unless reliable evidence exists that proves there has not been, or could not |
| reasonably have been, unauthorized acquisition of such information. |
| (7) “Security event” means an event resulting in unauthorized access to, or disruption or |
| misuse of, an information system or information stored on such information system, or customer |
| information held in physical form, commonly known as a “cybersecurity event”. |
| (c) In order to develop, implement, and maintain the information security program, the |
| licensee shall: |
| (1) Designate a qualified individual responsible for overseeing, implementing, and |
| enforcing the information security program. The qualified individual may be employed by the |
| licensee, an affiliate, or a service provider. To the extent the requirement in subsection (a) of this |
| section is met using a service provider or an affiliate, the licensee shall: |
| (i) Retain responsibility for compliance with this section; |
| (ii) Designate a senior member of the licensee responsible for direction and oversight of |
| the qualified individual; and |
| (iii) Require the service provider or affiliate to maintain an information security program |
| that protects the licensee in accordance with the requirements of this section. |
| (2) Perform a risk assessment that identifies reasonably foreseeable internal and external |
| risks to the security, confidentiality, and integrity of customer information that could result in the |
| unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, destruction, or other compromise of such information, |
| and assesses the sufficiency of any safeguards in place to control these risks. |
| (i) The risk assessment shall be written and shall include: |
| (A) Criteria for the evaluation and categorization of identified security risks or threats; |
| (B) Criteria for the assessment of the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of |
| information systems and customer information, including the adequacy of the existing controls in |
| the context of identified risks or threats; and |
| (C) Requirements describing how identified risks will be mitigated or accepted based on |
| the risk assessment and how the information security program will address the risks. |
| (ii) A licensee shall periodically perform additional risk assessments that reexamine the |
| reasonably foreseeable internal and external risks to the security, confidentiality, and integrity of |
| customer information that could result in the unauthorized disclosure, misuse, alteration, |
| destruction, or other compromise of such information, and reassess the sufficiency of any |
| safeguards in place to control these risks. |
| (3) Design and implement safeguards to control the risks identified through risk assessment |
| by: |
| (i) Implementing and periodically reviewing access controls, including technical and as |
| appropriate, physical controls to: |
| (A) Authenticate and permit access only to authorized users to protect against the |
| unauthorized acquisition of customer information; and |
| (B) Limit authorized users’ access only to customer information that they need to perform |
| their duties and functions, or in the case of customers, to access their own information; |
| (ii) Identify Identifying and manage managing the data, personnel, devices, systems, and |
| facilities that enable the licensee to achieve business purposes in accordance with relative |
| importance to business objectives and the licensee’s risk strategy; |
| (iii) Protect Protecting by encryption all customer information held or transmitted both in |
| transit over external networks and at rest. To the extent it is determined that encryption of customer |
| information, either in transit over external networks or at rest, is infeasible, the licensee may instead |
| secure such customer information using effective alternative compensating controls reviewed and |
| approved by the qualified individual; |
| (iv) Adopt Adopting secure development practices for in-house developed applications |
| utilized by the licensee for transmitting, accessing, or storing customer information and procedures |
| for evaluating, assessing, or testing the security of externally developed applications utilized to |
| transmit, access, or store customer information; |
| (v) Implement Implementing multi-factor authentication for any individual accessing any |
| information system, unless the qualified individual has approved in writing the use of reasonably |
| equivalent or more secure access controls; |
| (vi) Record retention: |
| (A) Develop, implement, and maintain procedures for the secure disposal of customer |
| information in any format no later than two (2) years after the last date the information is used in |
| connection with the provision of a product or service to the customer which relates, unless such |
| information is necessary for business operations or for other legitimate business purposes, is |
| otherwise required to be retained by law or regulation, or where targeted disposal is not reasonably |
| feasible due to the manner in which the information is maintained; and |
| (B) Periodically review data retention policies to minimize the unnecessary retention of |
| data; |
| (vii) Adopt Adopting procedures for change management; and |
| (viii) Implement Implementing policies, procedures, and controls designed to monitor |
| and log the activity of authorized users and detect unauthorized access or use of, or tampering with, |
| customer information by such users. |
| (4) Based on its risk assessment, the licensee shall perform ongoing testing by: |
| (i) Regularly testing or otherwise monitoring the effectiveness of the safeguards’ key |
| controls, systems, and procedures, including those to detect actual and attempted attacks on, or |
| intrusions into, information systems; |
| (ii) For information systems, the monitoring and testing shall include continuous |
| monitoring or periodic penetration testing and vulnerability assessments. Absent effective |
| continuous monitoring or other systems to detect, on an ongoing basis, changes in information |
| systems that may create vulnerabilities, the licensee shall conduct: |
| (A) Annual penetration testing of its information systems determined each given year based |
| on relevant identified risks in accordance with the risk assessment; and |
| (B) Vulnerability assessments, including any systemic scans or reviews of information |
| systems reasonably designed to identify publicly known security vulnerabilities in the licensee’s |
| information systems based on the risk assessment, at least every six (6) months; and whenever there |
| are material changes to operations or business arrangements; and whenever there are circumstances |
| that the licensee knows or has reason to know may have a material impact on the information |
| security program. |
| (5) Implement policies and procedures to ensure that personnel have the ability to enact the |
| information security program by: |
| (i) Providing personnel with security awareness training that is updated as necessary to |
| reflect risks identified by the risk assessment; |
| (ii) Utilizing qualified information security personnel employed by the licensee or an |
| affiliate or service provider sufficient to manage information security risks and to perform or |
| oversee the information security program; |
| (iii) Providing information security personnel with security updates and training sufficient |
| to address relevant security risks; and |
| (iv) Verifying that key information security personnel take steps to maintain current |
| knowledge of changing information security threats and countermeasures. |
| (6) Monitor service providers by: |
| (i) Taking reasonable steps to select and retain service providers that are capable of |
| maintaining appropriate safeguards for the customer information at issue; |
| (ii) Requiring service providers by contract to implement and maintain such safeguards; |
| and |
| (iii) Periodically assessing service providers based on the risk they present and the |
| continued adequacy of their safeguards. |
| (7) Evaluate and adjust the information security program considering the results of the |
| testing and monitoring required by subsection (c)(4) of this section; any material changes to the |
| licensee’s operations or business arrangements; the results of risk assessments performed under |
| subsection (c)(2)(ii) of this section; or any other circumstances that the licensee knows or has reason |
| to know may have a material impact on the information security program. |
| (8) Establish a written incident response plan designed to promptly respond to, and recover |
| from, any security event materially affecting the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of |
| customer information in your control. Such incident response plan shall address the following |
| areas: |
| (i) The goals of the incident response plan; |
| (ii) The internal processes for responding to a security event; |
| (iii) The definition of clear roles, responsibilities, and levels of decision-making authority; |
| (iv) External and internal communications and information sharing; |
| (v) Identification of requirements for the remediation of any identified weaknesses in |
| information systems and associated controls; |
| (vi) Documentation and reporting regarding security events and related incident response |
| activities; and |
| (vii) The evaluation and revision as necessary of the incident response plan following a |
| security event. |
| (9) Require the qualified individual to report in writing, at least annually, to the board of |
| directors or equivalent governing body. If no such board of directors or equivalent governing body |
| exists, such report shall be timely presented to a senior officer responsible for the information |
| security program. The report shall include the following information: |
| (i) The overall status of the information security program and compliance with this chapter |
| and associated rules; and |
| (ii) Material matters related to the information security program, addressing issues such as |
| risk assessment, risk management and control decisions, service provider arrangements, results of |
| testing, security events or violations and management’s responses thereto, and recommendations |
| for changes in the information security program. |
| (10) Establish a written plan addressing business continuity and disaster recovery. |
| (d) The provisions of this section shall not apply to any regulated institution as defined in |
| § 19-1-1, or subsidiary of such regulated institution, or any bank holding company or subsidiary of |
| a bank holding company subject to federal bank holding company laws and regulations. |
| SECTION 12. Section 19-14.3-3.10 of the General Laws in Chapter 19-14.3 entitled |
| "Currency Transmissions" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 19-14.3-3.10. Disclosures. |
| A virtual currency kiosk operator shall disclose in a clear, conspicuous, and easily readable |
| manner in a chosen language made available to and preferred by the customer, all relevant terms |
| and conditions generally associated with the products, services, and activities of the virtual currency |
| kiosk operator and virtual currency. |
| (1) The virtual currency kiosk operator shall provide an acknowledgement of receipt of all |
| disclosures required under this section to be acknowledged by the customer as confirmation of |
| consent. |
| (2) The disclosures under this subsection section shall include, at a minimum, the |
| following provisions: |
| (i) A warning, written prominently and in bold type, and provided separately from the |
| disclosures below, stating: “WARNING: LOSSES DUE TO FRAUDULENT OR ACCIDENTAL |
| TRANSACTIONS ARE NOT RECOVERABLE AND TRANSACTIONS IN VIRTUAL |
| CURRENCY ARE IRREVERSIBLE. VIRTUAL CURRENCY TRANSACTIONS MAY BE |
| USED TO STEAL YOUR MONEY BY CRIMINALS IMPERSONATING THE |
| GOVERNMENT, ORGANIZATIONS, OR YOUR LOVED ONES. WRONGDOERS OFTEN |
| THREATEN JAIL TIME, SAY YOUR IDENTITY HAS BEEN STOLEN, ALLEGE YOUR |
| COMPUTER HAS BEEN HACKED, INSIST YOU WITHDRAW MONEY FROM YOUR |
| BANK ACCOUNT TO PURCHASE VIRTUAL CURRENCY, OR UTILIZE A NUMBER OF |
| OTHER ILLEGAL MEANS TO SCAM YOU. IF YOU BELIEVE YOU ARE BEING |
| SCAMMED, CALL YOUR LOCAL LAW ENFORCEMENT.”; |
| (ii) A written statement disclosing the material risks associated with virtual currency and |
| virtual currency transactions, including: |
| (A) A warning that once completed, the transaction may not be reversed; |
| (B) A disclosure relating to the virtual currency kiosk operator’s liability for unauthorized |
| virtual currency transactions; |
| (C) A disclosure relating to the virtual currency kiosk customer’s liability for unauthorized |
| currency transactions; |
| (D) A statement that virtual currency is not legal tender, backed or insured by the |
| government, and accounts and value balances are not subject to Federal Deposit Insurance |
| Corporation, National Credit Union Administration, or Securities Investor Protection Corporation |
| protections; |
| (E) A statement that some virtual currency transactions are deemed to be made when |
| recorded on a public ledger which may not be the date or time when the person initiates the |
| transaction; |
| (F) A statement that virtual currency value may be derived from market participants’ |
| continued willingness to exchange fiat currency for virtual currency, which may result in the |
| permanent and total loss of a particular virtual currency’s value if the market for virtual currency |
| disappears; |
| (G) A statement that a person who accepts virtual currency as payment today is not required |
| to accept and might not accept virtual currency in the future; |
| (H) A statement that the volatility and unpredictability of the price of virtual currency |
| relative to fiat currency may result in a significant loss over a short period of time; |
| (I) A statement that the nature of virtual currency means that any technological difficulties |
| experienced by virtual currency kiosk operators may prevent access to or use of a person’s virtual |
| currency; and |
| (J) A disclosure that any bond maintained by the virtual currency kiosk operator for the |
| benefit of a person may not cover all losses a person incurs; |
| (iii) A statement disclosing the amount of the transaction denominated in U.S. Dollars as |
| well as the applicable virtual currency; |
| (iv) A disclosure of any fees or expenses charged by the virtual currency kiosk operator; |
| (v) A disclosure of any applicable exchange rates; |
| (vi) Notice of a change in the virtual currency kiosk operator’s rules or policies; |
| (vii) The name, address, and telephone number of the owner of the kiosk and the days, |
| times and means by which a consumer can contact the owner for consumer assistance shall be |
| displayed on or at the location of the kiosk, or on the first screen of such kiosk; |
| (viii) A disclosure of the circumstances under which the virtual currency kiosk operator, |
| without a court or government order, discloses a person’s account information to third parties; and |
| (ix) Other disclosures that are customarily given in connection with a virtual currency |
| transaction. |
| (3) Transaction receipt. Effective November 1, 2025, upon each transaction’s completion, |
| the virtual currency kiosk operator shall provide a person with a physical receipt in a chosen |
| language made available to and preferred by the customer which shall contain the following |
| information: |
| (i) The virtual currency kiosk operator’s name and contact information, including a |
| telephone number to answer questions and register complaints; |
| (ii) The type, value, date, and precise time of the transaction, transaction hash, and each |
| applicable virtual currency address; |
| (iii) The name and contact information of the sender; |
| (iv) The name and contact information of the designated recipient; |
| (v) All fees charged; |
| (vi) The exchange rate of the virtual currency to U.S. Dollars; |
| (vii) A statement of the virtual currency kiosk operator’s liability for non-delivery or |
| delayed delivery; |
| (viii) A statement of the virtual currency kiosk operator’s refund policy; and |
| (ix) Any additional information or formatting the department of business regulation may |
| require. |
| SECTION 13. Section 21-28.12-3 of the General Laws in Chapter 21-28.12 entitled "The |
| Rhode Island Kratom Act [Effective April 1, 2026.]" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 21-28.12-3. Kratom and kratom product limitations. [Effective April 1, 2026.] |
| (a) A person shall not prepare, distribute, sell, possess, or advertise any of the following: |
| (1) A kratom product that is a conventional food or beverage or labeled as a conventional |
| food or beverage product. |
| (2) A kratom product that contains any substance that is poisonous, harmful, or injurious |
| to health. |
| (3) A kratom product that contains a substance other than a non-psychoactive substance |
| necessary for the preparation, processing, or manufacturing of said product. |
| (4) A kratom extract that contains levels of residual solvents higher than is allowed in the |
| U.S. Pharmacopeia 467. |
| (5) A kratom product containing any synthetic alkaloids including synthetic mitragynine, |
| synthetic 7-hydroxymitragynine, or any other synthetically derived compounds of the kratom plant. |
| (6) A kratom product that contains a heavy metal that exceeds any of the following limits |
| in parts per million: |
| (i) Arsenic <2 |
| (ii) Cadmium <0.82 |
| (iii) Lead <1.2 |
| (iv) Mercury <0.4 |
| (7) A kratom product in any form that is combustible or intended to be used for |
| vaporization, aerosolization, or injection. |
| (8) A kratom product in any form that mimics a candy product or is manufactured, |
| packaged, or advertised in a way that can be reasonably considered to appeal to individuals under |
| twenty-one (21) years. |
| (9) A kratom product not contained in child-resistant packaging that meets the standards |
| set forth in 16 C.F.R 1700.15(b) when tested in accordance with 16 C.F.R 1700.20. All persons |
| holding valid licenses pursuant to § 21-28.12 21-28.12-6 shall ensure that kratom and/or any kratom |
| product sold by the licensee and intended for human consumption shall meet requirements related |
| to child-resistant packaging. |
| (10) A kratom product that contains a concentration ratio that is: |
| (i) Greater than 150 mg of mitragynine per serving; |
| (ii) Greater than 0.5 mg 7-hydroxymitragynine per gram; or |
| (iii) Greater than 1 mg 7-hydroxymitragynine per serving. |
| (11) A kratom product that contains more than one percent of 7-hydroxymitragynine by |
| percentage of total kratom alkaloids. |
| (12) Kratom or a kratom product that does not provide clearly visible labeling including, |
| but not limited to: |
| (i) A recommendation to consult a healthcare professional prior to use; |
| (ii) A statement that kratom may be habit forming; |
| (iii) A statement that kratom is not safe for use while pregnant or breastfeeding; |
| (iv) A warning that the product may result in dangerous medication interactions. |
| (v) The following statement: “These statements have not been evaluated by the United |
| States Food and Drug Administration. This product is not intended to diagnose, treat, cure, or |
| prevent any disease.”; |
| (vi) The net quantity of contents declared in numerical count (e.g., thirty (30) capsules), or |
| in volume or weight in United States Customary System terms; |
| (A) The amount of mitragynine and/or 7-hydroxymitragynine contained in a serving in said |
| kratom product; |
| (B) A recommended amount of the kratom product per serving; and |
| (C) A recommended number of servings that can be safely consumed in a twenty-four-hour |
| (24) period. |
| (vii) The total amount of mitragynine and 7-hydroxymitragynine contained in the kratom |
| product; |
| (viii) A statement that this product should be stored safely and out of the reach of children; |
| (ix) The name, physical non-post office box address of the manufacturer. |
| (b) Kratom and kratom products sold at retail must be sold by a licensed retailer and must |
| be obtained from a licensed manufacturer, importer, or distributor. |
| (c) All kratom and kratom products that do not comply with subsection (a) of this section |
| shall be deemed contraband. |
| SECTION 14. Section 23-14.1-9 of the General Laws in Chapter 23-14.1 entitled "Health |
| Professional Loan Repayment Program" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 23-14.1-9. Penalty for failure to complete contract. |
| (a) If the eligible health professional fails to begin or fails to complete service, they will |
| incur a debt to the state in an amount not less than the damages that would be owed under the |
| National Health Service Corps Loan Repayment Program default provisions pursuant to 42 U.S.C. |
| 6(A), Subchapter II, Part D, Subpart iii, § 254o. Upon determination by the director, if that the |
| eligible health professional has failed to fulfill the terms and conditions of the contract, and no |
| exception has been determined under subsection (c), the eligible health professional shall pay an |
| amount equal to the sum of the following: |
| (1) The total of the amounts paid by the director on behalf of the eligible health professional |
| for any period of obligated service not served; |
| (2) An amount equal to the number of months of obligated service not served, multiplied |
| by seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500); and |
| (3) Interest on the above amounts at the maximum legal prevailing rate, as determined by |
| the Treasurer of the United States, from the date of breach; except that the amount to recover will |
| not be less than thirty one thousand dollars ($31,000). |
| (b) All payments pursuant to subsections (a)(1), (a)(2), and (a)(3) of this section shall be |
| made to the state of Rhode Island, for the benefit of the Rhode Island health professional loan |
| repayment program, within one year after being notified by the director in writing that the eligible |
| health professional has failed to abide by the terms and conditions of their contract. The director is |
| authorized to recover payments and/or penalties and return the funds to the Rhode Island health |
| professional loan repayment program to avoid having the amounts deducted from the department’s |
| federal grant by the federal grant funding authority. Eligible health professionals are considered to |
| be in default or breach if they do not complete the period of obligated service at an eligible site in |
| accordance with their contract, or otherwise fail to comply with the terms of their contract, even if |
| no monies have yet been disbursed to or on behalf of the participant. |
| (c) Where the director, subject to the approval of the board and/or as defined in regulation, |
| determines that there exists justifiable cause for the failure of a recipient to practice pursuant to the |
| terms and conditions of the contract, the director may relieve the recipient of the obligation to fulfill |
| any or all of the terms of the contract. |
| SECTION 15. Section 23-17.5-34 of the General Laws in Chapter 23-17.5 entitled "Rights |
| of Nursing Home Patients" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 23-17.5-34. Nursing staff posting requirements. |
| (a) Each nursing facility shall post its daily direct care nurse staff levels by shift in a public |
| place within the nursing facility that is readily accessible to and visible by residents, employees, |
| and visitors. The posting shall be accurate to the actual number of direct care nursing staff on duty |
| for each shift per day. The posting shall be in a format prescribed by the director, to include: |
| (1) The number of registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, certified nursing assistants, |
| medication technicians, licensed physical therapists, licensed occupational therapists, licensed |
| speech-language pathologists, mental health workers who are also certified nurse assistants, |
| physical therapist assistants, social workers, or any nurse aide with a valid license, even if it is |
| probationary; |
| (2) The number of temporary, outside agency nursing staff; |
| (3) The resident census as of twelve o’clock (12:00) a.m.; and |
| (4) Documentation of the use of unpaid eating assistants (if utilized by the nursing facility |
| on that date). |
| (b) The posting information shall be maintained on file by the nursing facility for no less |
| than three (3) years and shall be made available to the public upon request. |
| (c) Each nursing facility shall report the information compiled pursuant to section (a) of |
| this section and in accordance with department of health regulations to the department of health on |
| a quarterly basis in an electronic format prescribed by the director. The director shall make this |
| information available to the public on a quarterly basis on the department of health website, |
| accompanied by a written explanation to assist members of the public in interpreting the |
| information reported pursuant to this section. |
| (d) In addition to the daily direct nurse staffing level reports, each nursing facility shall |
| post the following information in a legible format and in a conspicuous place readily accessible to |
| and visible by residents, employees, and visitors of the nursing facility: |
| (1) The minimum number of nursing facility direct care staff per shift that is required to |
| comply with the minimum staffing level requirements in § 23-17.5-32; and |
| (2) The telephone number or internet website that a resident, employee, or visitor of the |
| nursing facility may use to report a suspected violation by the nursing facility of a regulatory |
| requirement concerning staffing levels and direct patient care. |
| (e) No nursing facility shall discharge or in any manner discriminate or retaliate against |
| any resident of any nursing facility, or any relative, guardian, conservator, or sponsoring agency |
| thereof or against any employee of any nursing facility or against any other person because the |
| resident, relative, guardian, conservator, sponsoring agency, employee, or other person has filed |
| any complaint or instituted or caused to be instituted any proceeding under this chapter, or has |
| testified or is about to testify in any such proceeding or because of the exercise by the resident, |
| relative, guardian, conservator, sponsoring agency, employee, or other person on behalf of |
| themself, or others of any right afforded by §§ 23-17.5-32, 23-17.5-33, and 23-17.5-34. |
| Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, any nursing facility that violates any |
| provision of this section shall: |
| (1) Be liable to the injured party for treble damages; and |
| (2)(i) Reinstate the employee, if the employee was terminated from employment in |
| violation of any provision of this section; or |
| (ii) Restore the resident to the resident’s living situation prior to such discrimination or |
| retaliation, including the resident’s housing arrangement or other living conditions within the |
| nursing facility, as appropriate, if the resident’s living situation was changed in violation of any |
| provision of this section. For purposes of this section, “discriminate or retaliate” includes, but is |
| not limited to, the discharge, demotion, suspension, or any other detrimental change in terms or |
| conditions of employment or residency, or the threat of any such action. |
| (f)(1) The nursing facility shall prepare an annual report showing the average daily direct |
| care nurse staffing level for the nursing facility by shift and by category of nurse to include: |
| (i) Registered nurses; |
| (ii) Licensed practical nurses; |
| (iii) Certified nursing assistants; |
| (iv) Medication technicians; |
| (v) Licensed physical therapists; |
| (vi) Licensed occupational therapists; |
| (vii) Licensed speech-language pathologists; |
| (viii) Mental health workers who are also certified nurse assistants; |
| (ix) Physical therapist assistants; |
| (x) Social workers; or |
| (xi) Any nurse aide with a valid license, even if it is probationary.; |
| (xii) The use of registered and licensed practical nurses and certified nursing assistant staff |
| from temporary placement agencies; and |
| (xiii) The nurse and certified nurse assistant turnover rates. |
| (2) The annual report shall be submitted with the nursing facility’s renewal application and |
| provide data for the previous twelve (12) months and ending on or after September 30, for the year |
| preceding the license renewal year. Annual reports shall be submitted in a format prescribed by the |
| director. |
| (g) The information on nurse staffing shall be reviewed as part of the nursing facility’s |
| annual licensing survey and shall be available to the public, both in printed form and on the |
| department’s website, by nursing facility. |
| (h) The director of nurses may act as a charge nurse only when the nursing facility is |
| licensed for thirty (30) beds or less. |
| (i) Whenever the licensing agency determines, in the course of inspecting a nursing facility, |
| that additional staffing is necessary on any residential area to provide adequate nursing care and |
| treatment or to ensure the safety of residents, the licensing agency may require the nursing facility |
| to provide such additional staffing and any or all of the following actions shall be taken to enforce |
| compliance with the determination of the licensing agency: |
| (1) The nursing facility shall be cited for a deficiency and shall be required to augment its |
| staff within ten (10) days in accordance with the determination of the licensing agency; |
| (2) If failure to augment staffing is cited, the nursing facility shall be required to curtail |
| admission to the nursing facility; |
| (3) If a continued failure to augment staffing is cited, the nursing facility shall be subjected |
| to an immediate compliance order to increase the staffing, in accordance with § 23-1-21; or |
| (4) The sequence and inclusion or non-inclusion of the specific sanctions may be modified |
| in accordance with the severity of the deficiency in terms of its impact on the quality of resident |
| care. |
| (j) No nursing staff of any nursing facility shall be regularly scheduled for double shifts. |
| (k) A nursing facility that fails to comply with the provisions of this chapter, or any rules |
| or regulations adopted pursuant thereto, shall be subject to a penalty as determined by the |
| department. |
| SECTION 16. Sections 23-27.3-100.1.5 and 23-27.3-107.0 of the General Laws in Chapter |
| 23-27.3 entitled "State Building Code" are hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 23-27.3-100.1.5. Building code — Adoption and promulgation by committee. |
| (a) The state building code standards committee has the authority to adopt, promulgate, |
| and administer a state building code, which shall include: |
| (1) Provisions and amendments as necessary to resolve conflicts between fire safety codes |
| and building codes, as provided for in § 23-28.01-6; and |
| (2) A rehabilitation building and fire code for existing buildings and structures. |
| (b) The building code may be promulgated in several sections, with a section applicable |
| to: (1) One-, two (2)-, three (3)-, and four (4)-family dwellings using the International Residential |
| Code from the International Code Council (“ICC”) and any amendments thereto adopted by the |
| state building code standards committee; (2) To multiple Multiple dwellings with more than four |
| (4) residential units, and hotels and motels and other commercial structures using the Commercial |
| International Building Code from the ICC and any amendments thereto adopted by the state |
| building code standards committee; and (3) To general General building construction; to |
| plumbing; and to electrical. |
| (c) The building code shall incorporate minimum standards for the location, design, |
| construction, and installation of wells that are appurtenances to a building in applicable sections. |
| For purposes of this chapter, “appurtenance” includes the installation, alteration, or repair of wells |
| connected to a structure consistent with chapter 13.2 of title 46. |
| (d) The building code and the sections thereof shall be reasonably consistent with |
| recognized and accepted standards adopted by national model code organizations and recognized |
| authorities. To the extent that any state or local building codes, statutes, or ordinances are |
| inconsistent with the Americans with Disabilities Act, Title III, Public Accommodations and |
| Services Operated by Private Entities, 42 U.S.C. § 12181 et seq., and its regulations and standards, |
| they are hereby repealed. The state building code standards committee is hereby directed to adopt |
| rules and regulations consistent with the Americans with Disabilities Act, Titles II and III (28 |
| C.F.R. Part 35 and 28 C.F.R. Part 36, as amended), as soon as possible, but no later than February |
| 15, 2012, to take effect on or before March 15, 2012. The state building code standards committee |
| is hereby authorized and directed to update those rules and regulations consistent with the future |
| revisions of the Americans with Disabilities Act Accessibility Standards. |
| (e) All electrical work done in the state shall be in accordance with the latest edition of the |
| National Electrical Code (NEC). The state building code standards committee shall adopt the latest |
| edition of the NEC, including any amendments to the NEC by the committee. The adoption of the |
| NEC by the commission shall be completed so that it will take effect on the first day of July of the |
| year the edition is dated. |
| 23-27.3-107.0. State building code office. |
| There exists a state building code office within the office of the state fire marshal, who is |
| the head of the department of business regulation’s division of building, design and fire |
| professionals pursuant to § 23-28.2-1. The office is comprised of the state building code |
| commissioner, the commissioner’s staff, the contractors’ registration and licensing board, the |
| building code standards committee, the design professionals professionals' registration boards for |
| engineers, land surveyors, architects and landscape architects and all other applicable |
| subcommittees. |
| SECTION 17. Sections 23-99-3 and 23-99-4 of the General Laws in Chapter 23-99 entitled |
| "The Rhode Island Life Science Hub Act" are hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 23-99-3. Definitions. |
| As used in this chapter, the following words shall have the following meanings: |
| (1) “Affiliate” means any person or company who or that directly or indirectly controls or |
| is controlled by or is under direct or indirect common control of another company or person |
| including, but not limited to, any company that is merged or consolidated, or that purchases all or |
| substantially all of the assets of another company. |
| (2) “Board” means the board of directors of the hub. |
| (3) “Certification proposal” means a written proposal submitted by a life science company |
| for approval as a certified life sciences company. |
| (4) “Certified life sciences company” means a life science company that has been certified |
| by the board as being eligible to receive grants and incentives from the investment fund. |
| (5) “Commerce corporation” means the Rhode Island commerce corporation, established |
| pursuant to § 42-64-1 et seq. |
| (6) “Company” means a business corporation, partnership, firm, unincorporated |
| association, or other entity engaged or proposing to engage in economic activity within the state, |
| and any affiliate thereof. |
| (7) “Hub” means the Rhode Island life science hub established by § 23-99-4. |
| (8) “Investment fund” means the hub investment fund established by § 23-99-6. |
| (9) “Life science” means and shall include, but not be limited to, the science of: medical |
| devices, biomedical technology, biomedical engineering, biopharmaceuticals, genomics, |
| biomanufacturing, cell and gene therapies, health software and artificial intelligence, genomics, |
| diagnostics, digital health, marine science, agricultural science, veterinary science and the broader |
| life sciences to foster the development of cutting-edge medical breakthroughs. |
| (10) “Life science company” means a company engaged in life science research, |
| development, manufacturing, incubation, or commercialization in Rhode Island, and any affiliate |
| thereof. |
| (11) “Person” means a natural person, company, or other legal entity. |
| (12) “Revenue” means receipts, fees, rentals, or other payments or income received or to |
| be received by the hub in the exercise of its corporate powers under this chapter including, but not |
| limited to, income on account of the leasing, mortgaging, sale, or other disposition of property or |
| proceeds of a loan made by the hub, and amounts in reserves or held in other funds or accounts |
| established in connection with the issuance of bonds or notes and the proceeds of any investments |
| thereof, proceeds of foreclosure and other fees, charges, or other income received or receivable by |
| the hub. |
| (13) “State” means the state of Rhode Island. |
| (14) “State public body” means the state, or any city or town or any other subdivision or |
| public body of the state or of any city or town. |
| (15) “Venture” means, without limitation, any contractual arrangement with any person |
| whereby the corporation obtains rights from or in an invention or product or proceeds therefrom, |
| or rights to obtain from any person any and all forms of equity instruments including, but not limited |
| to, common and preferred stock, warrants, options, convertible debentures, and similar types of |
| instruments exercisable or convertible into capital stock, in exchange for the granting of financial |
| aid to such person. |
| 23-99-4. Rhode Island life science hub established. |
| (a) There is hereby constituted as an independent public a public corporation for the |
| purposes set forth in this chapter with a separate legal existence from the state to be known as the |
| Rhode Island life science hub hereinafter to be referred to as the “hub”. The exercise by the hub of |
| the powers conferred by this chapter shall be considered to be the performance of an essential |
| governmental function and the hub shall be considered a “constituted authority” and an |
| “instrumentality” of the state acting on behalf of the state for federal tax purposes. |
| (b) The hub shall be governed and its corporate powers exercised by a board of directors |
| consisting of sixteen (16) directors: fifteen (15) of whom shall be appointed by the governor, and |
| one of whom shall be the person the board hires from time to time as president and chief executive |
| officer of the hub. The president and chief executive officer of the hub shall serve ex officio and, |
| except as otherwise provided in subsection (k) of this section, shall not be a voting member of the |
| board of directors. The fifteen (15) directors appointed by the governor shall consist of seven (7) |
| public directors and eight (8) institutional directors. The seven (7) public directors shall have the |
| following qualifications: one shall be a senior executive with extensive background in the banking, |
| grant making, or fundraising fields, or their designee; one shall be a member of a life science trade |
| association, or their designee; one shall be the president or a senior executive of a Rhode Island |
| based life science company, or their designee; two (2) shall be senior executives of Rhode Island |
| based life science companies specializing in biomanufacturing, or their designees; one shall be a |
| representative of organized labor, or their designee; and one shall be a member of the public who |
| shall be a certified public accountant and a member of the Rhode Island society of certified public |
| accountants, or their designee. The eight (8) institutional directors shall have the following |
| qualifications: one shall be the secretary of commerce, ex officio; three (3) shall be the president |
| of Rhode Island college, ex officio, or their designee, the president of the university of Rhode |
| Island, ex officio, or their designee, and the president of Brown university, ex officio, or their |
| designee; one shall be the dean of the Warren Alpert Medical School of Brown university, ex |
| officio, or their designee; one shall be the president and chief executive officer of Brown university |
| health, ex officio, or their designee; one shall be the president and chief executive officer of Care |
| New England Health System, ex officio, or their designee; and one shall be the director of economic |
| development for the city of Providence, ex officio, or their designee. To the extent that an institution |
| takes on a new legal name, the institutional director shall continue to serve as an institutional |
| director without the need for reappointment. To the extent that an institution merges, converts, |
| consolidates with, or sells or transfers all or substantially all of its assets to another company and |
| such company retains its primary operations in the state, the chief executive officer of such |
| company shall be qualified for appointment as an institutional director in accordance with this |
| section. |
| (c) The chair of the board shall be appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent |
| of the senate, and shall be an individual who served in the capacity as a senior executive with |
| extensive background in the banking, grant making, or fundraising fields. The vice-chair of the |
| board shall be the secretary of commerce. All directors, including ex officio directors, shall be |
| voting members of the board of directors, except for the director serving as president and chief |
| executive officer of the hub, who shall not be a voting member of the board. Eight (8) voting |
| directors shall constitute a quorum, and any action to be taken by the board under the provisions of |
| this chapter may be authorized by resolution approved by a majority of the directors present and |
| entitled to vote at any regular or special meeting at which a quorum is present. No votes on the |
| certification of any life science company nor on the allocation or award of any investment fund |
| resources to any certified life science company shall be taken unless the chair is present and voting. |
| A vacancy in the membership of the board of directors shall not impair the right of a quorum to |
| exercise all of the rights and perform all of the duties of the board. Pursuant to § 42-46-5(b)(6), |
| board directors are authorized to participate remotely using videoconferencing technology in open |
| public meetings of the board; provided, however, that: |
| (1) The remote director(s) and all persons present at the meeting location are clearly audible |
| and visible to each other; |
| (2) A quorum of the body is participating, either in person or by the use of remote |
| videoconferencing technology; |
| (3) A voting director who participates in a meeting of the board remotely shall be |
| considered present for purposes of a quorum and voting; |
| (4) If videoconferencing is used to conduct a meeting, the public notice for the meeting |
| shall inform the public that videoconferencing will be used and include instructions on how the |
| public can access the virtual meeting; and |
| (5) The board shall adopt rules defining the requirements of remote participation including |
| its use for executive session, and the conditions by which a director is authorized to participate |
| remotely. |
| (d) Each public director shall serve an initial term of four (4) years. At the expiration of the |
| initial terms of public directors in January 2028, the governor shall appoint two (2) directors for a |
| term of four (4) years, two (2) directors for a term of three (3) years, two (2) directors for a term of |
| two (2) years, and one director for a term of one year. Thereafter, the governor shall appoint a new |
| public director or directors to succeed the public director or directors whose terms then next expire, |
| to serve a term of four (4) years. The president and chief executive officer shall have a board term |
| coextensive with such person’s employment contract with the hub. In the event that the chair of the |
| board position becomes vacant for any reason, or the chair is not able to perform the duties of that |
| position for any reason, the vice chair shall serve as the interim chair until the chair is able to resume |
| the chair’s duties; provided, however, in the event that the chair is not able to resume the chair’s |
| duties in that position, the governor shall appoint a new chair and, in making this appointment, the |
| governor shall give due consideration to appointing an individual from a list of six (6) candidates, |
| three (3) of whom shall be provided to the governor by the speaker of the house and three (3) of |
| whom shall be provided to the governor by the president of the senate. Any person appointed to fill |
| a vacancy in the office of a public director of the board shall be appointed in a like manner and |
| shall serve for the unexpired term of such public director. Any director shall be eligible for |
| reappointment. |
| (e) The public director who is a certified public accountant and a member of the Rhode |
| Island society of certified public accountants shall serve as treasurer and shall be charged with |
| keeping the funds, books of account, and accounting records of the hub. No grants, loans or other |
| financings, or incentives shall be issued by the hub to any certified life science company without |
| the approval of the board. The board shall annually elect a secretary who shall keep a record of the |
| proceedings of the board and shall be custodian of all books, documents, and papers. |
| (f) Board directors, other than the director who serves as the president and chief executive |
| officer of the hub, shall serve without compensation, but each director shall be entitled to |
| reimbursement for actual, reasonable, and necessary expenses while engaged in the performance |
| of official duties. Board directors, officers, and employees shall not be liable to the state, the hub, |
| or to any other person as a result of their activities except for malfeasance in office or intentional |
| violations of law. |
| (g) The board shall establish an application review committee consisting of not less than |
| three (3) directors of the board, which shall review certification proposals submitted by life sciences |
| companies that shall be supported by independently verifiable information, and the board shall |
| make a record of findings based on the certification proposal, documents submitted therewith, and |
| any additional evidence that the life science company meets all criteria that the hub may prescribe. |
| (h) Certified life science companies shall be eligible to receive funding from the hub, upon |
| a majority vote of the board, for the following benefits which shall be awarded by the board on a |
| competitive basis: |
| (1) Grants, loans, or other investments; |
| (2) Assistance from the hub in obtaining federal, state, and nonprofit monies; or |
| (3) Assistance from the hub in facilitating clinical trials. |
| (i) Notwithstanding any other provisions of law in relation to their tenure of office, the |
| governor may remove any director, including institutional directors, for the neglect of any duty |
| required by law, incompetence, unprofessional conduct, or willful misconduct. If an institutional |
| director is so removed, such institutional director’s designee shall serve on the board in their place |
| for the remainder of their term. |
| (j) Each director shall make full disclosure, in accordance with §§ 36-14-1 — 36-14-7, of |
| any financial interest, if any, in any matter before the board. Such interest must be disclosed in |
| advance to the directors of the board, recorded in the minutes of the board, and the director having |
| such an interest shall recuse themselves and shall not participate in any decision of the board |
| relating to such interest. |
| (k) With the advice and consent of the senate, the board shall have the power to hire a |
| president, who shall also serve as the chief executive officer of the hub and who shall be a non- |
| voting member of the board of directors, but who shall be entitled to vote as a member of any |
| advisory committee to which the president/chief executive officer is appointed. The board also shall |
| have the power to establish compensation and conditions of employment for the president and chief |
| executive officer; provided, further, the board shall have the power to hire other employees and |
| establish compensation and conditions of employment for such employees. |
| (l) The commerce corporation shall provide operating quarters for the hub for, at a |
| minimum, the first year of the hub’s operation. |
| (m) In addition to the application review committee, the board may establish one or more |
| advisory committees, each consisting of not less than three (3) and not more than seven (7) |
| directors, which may also include persons who are not directors, which committees shall support |
| the board on science, technology, and other matters. Such advisory committees shall keep records |
| of their findings and recommendations. |
| (n) The hub shall continue as long as it shall have bonds outstanding and until its existence |
| is terminated by law. Upon the termination of the existence of the hub, all right, title, and interest |
| in and to all of its assets and all of its obligations, duties, covenants, agreements, and obligations |
| shall vest in and be possessed, performed, and assumed by the state and no part of the earnings of |
| the hub shall inure to the benefit of any private person. |
| SECTION 18. Section 28-29-2 of the General Laws in Chapter 28-29 entitled "Workers’ |
| Compensation — General Provisions" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 28-29-2. Definitions. |
| In chapters 29 — 38 of this title, unless the context otherwise requires: |
| (1) “Department” means the department of labor and training. |
| (2) “Director” means the director of labor and training or the director's designee unless |
| specifically stated otherwise. |
| (3)(i) “Earnings capacity” means the weekly straight-time earnings that an employee could |
| receive if the employee accepted an actual offer of suitable alternative employment. Earnings |
| capacity can also be established by the court based on evidence of ability to earn, including, but not |
| limited to, a determination of the degree of functional impairment and/or disability, that an |
| employee is capable of employment. The court may, in its discretion, take into consideration the |
| performance of the employee’s duty to actively seek employment in scheduling the implementation |
| of the reduction. The employer need not identify particular employment before the court can direct |
| an earnings capacity adjustment. In the event that an employee returns to light-duty employment |
| while partially disabled, an earnings capacity shall not be set based upon actual wages earned until |
| the employee has successfully worked at light duty for a period of at least thirteen (13) weeks. |
| (ii) As used under the provisions of this title, “functional impairment” means an anatomical |
| or functional abnormality existing after the date of maximum medical improvement as determined |
| by a medically or scientifically demonstrable finding and based upon the sixth (6th) edition of the |
| American Medical Association’s Guide to the Evaluation of Permanent Impairment or comparable |
| publications of the American Medical Association. |
| (iii) In the event that an employee returns to employment at an average weekly wage equal |
| to the employee’s pre-injury earnings exclusive of overtime, the employee will be presumed to |
| have regained their earning capacity. |
| (4)(i) “Employee” means any person who has entered into the employment of or works |
| under contract of service or apprenticeship with any employer, except that in the case of a city or |
| town other than the city of Providence it shall only mean that class or those classes of employees |
| as may be designated by a city, town, or regional school district in a manner provided in this chapter |
| to receive compensation under chapters 29 — 38 of this title. |
| (ii) Any person employed by the state of Rhode Island, or by the Rhode Island airport |
| corporation, except for sworn employees of the Rhode Island state police, who is otherwise entitled |
| to the benefits of chapter 19 of title 45 shall be subject to the provisions of chapters 29 — 38 of this |
| title for case management procedures and dispute resolution by the workers’ compensation court |
| for all petitions filed on or after July 1, 2025, for the following benefit and disability determinations: |
| (A) The nature and status of disability of the injured employee; |
| (B) The nature and location of injury relative to the work incident; |
| (C) Maximum medical improvement (MMI), as it is defined under § 28-33-2(9) subsection |
| (9) of this section; |
| (D) All issues of legal and/or medical causation; |
| (E) Suitable alternative employment; and |
| (F) The assignment of fees and costs pursuant to the provisions of § 28-35-32. The court |
| may in its discretion appoint an impartial medical examiner in accordance with § 28-33-35. The |
| court shall hereby be empowered to enforce all of its orders, decrees, and consent agreements of |
| the parties. |
| (iii) The term “employee” does not include any individual who is a shareholder or director |
| in a corporation, general or limited partners in a general partnership, a registered limited liability |
| partnership, a limited partnership, or partners in a registered limited liability limited partnership, or |
| any individual who is a member in a limited liability company. These exclusions do not apply to |
| shareholders, directors, and members who have entered into the employment of or who work under |
| a contract of service or apprenticeship within a corporation or a limited liability company. |
| (iv) The term “employee” also does not include a sole proprietor, independent contractor, |
| or a person whose employment is of a casual nature, and who is employed other than for the purpose |
| of the employer’s trade or business, or a person whose services are voluntary or who performs |
| charitable acts, nor shall it include the members of the regularly organized fire and police |
| departments of any town or city except for appeals from an order of the retirement board filed |
| pursuant to the provisions of § 45-21.2-9; provided, however, that it shall include the members of |
| the police and aircraft rescue and firefighting (ARFF) units of the Rhode Island airport corporation. |
| (v) Whenever a contractor has contracted with the state, a city, town, or regional school |
| district, any person employed by that contractor in work under contract shall not be deemed an |
| employee of the state, city, town, or regional school district as the case may be. |
| (vi) Any person who on or after January 1, 1999, was an employee and became a corporate |
| officer shall remain an employee, for purposes of these chapters, unless and until coverage under |
| this act is waived pursuant to § 28-29-8(b) or § 28-29-17. Any person who is appointed a corporate |
| officer between January 1, 1999, and December 31, 2001, and was not previously an employee of |
| the corporation, will not be considered an employee, for purposes of these chapters, unless that |
| corporate officer has filed a notice pursuant to § 28-29-19(c). |
| (vii) In the case of a person whose services are voluntary or who performs charitable acts, |
| any benefit received, in the form of monetary remuneration or otherwise, shall be reportable to the |
| appropriate taxation authority but shall not be deemed to be wages earned under contract of hire |
| for purposes of qualifying for benefits under chapters 29 — 38 of this title. |
| (viii) Any reference to an employee who had been injured shall, where the employee is |
| dead, include a reference to the employee’s dependents as defined in this section, or to the |
| employee’s legal representatives, or, where the employee is a minor or incompetent, to the |
| employee’s conservator or guardian. |
| (ix) A “seasonal occupation” means those occupations in which work is performed on a |
| seasonal basis of not more than sixteen (16) weeks. |
| (5) “Employer” includes any person, partnership, corporation, or voluntary association, and |
| the legal representative of a deceased employer; it includes the state, and the city of Providence. It |
| also includes each city, town, and regional school district in the state that votes or accepts the |
| provisions of chapters 29 — 38 of this title in the manner provided in this chapter or is a party to |
| an appeal from an order of the retirement board filed pursuant to the provisions of § 45-21.2-9. |
| (6) “General or special employer”: |
| (i) “General employer” includes but is not limited to temporary help companies and |
| employee leasing companies and means a person who for consideration and as the regular course |
| of its business supplies an employee with or without vehicle to another person. |
| (ii) “Special employer” means a person who contracts for services with a general employer |
| for the use of an employee, a vehicle, or both. |
| (iii) Whenever there is a general employer and special employer wherein the general |
| employer supplies to the special employer an employee and the general employer pays or is |
| obligated to pay the wages or salaries of the supplied employee, then, notwithstanding the fact that |
| direction and control is in the special employer and not the general employer, the general employer, |
| if it is subject to the provisions of the workers’ compensation act or has accepted that act, shall be |
| deemed to be the employer as set forth in subsection (5) of this section and both the general and |
| special employer shall be the employer for purposes of §§ 28-29-17 and 28-29-18. |
| (iv) Effective January 1, 2003, whenever a general employer enters into a contract or |
| arrangement with a special employer to supply an employee or employees for work, the special |
| employer shall require an insurer generated insurance coverage certification, on a form prescribed |
| by the department, demonstrating Rhode Island workers’ compensation and employer’s liability |
| coverage evidencing that the general employer carries workers’ compensation insurance with that |
| insurer with no indebtedness for its employees for the term of the contract or arrangement. In the |
| event that the special employer fails to obtain and maintain at policy renewal and thereafter this |
| insurer generated insurance coverage certification demonstrating Rhode Island workers’ |
| compensation and employer’s liability coverage from the general employer, the special employer |
| is deemed to be the employer pursuant to the provisions of this section. Upon the cancellation or |
| failure to renew, the insurer having written the workers’ compensation and employer’s liability |
| policy shall notify the certificate holders and the department of the cancellation or failure to renew |
| and upon notice, the certificate holders shall be deemed to be the employer for the term of the |
| contract or arrangement unless or until a new certification is obtained. |
| (7) “Independent contractor” means a person who has filed a notice of designation as |
| independent contractor with the director pursuant to § 28-29-17.1 or as otherwise found by the |
| workers’ compensation court. |
| (8)(i) “Injury” means and refers to personal injury to an employee arising out of and in the |
| course of the employee’s employment, connected and referable to the employment. |
| (ii) An injury to an employee while voluntarily participating in a private, group, or |
| employer-sponsored carpool, vanpool, commuter bus service, or other rideshare program, having |
| as its sole purpose the mass transportation of employees to and from work shall not be deemed to |
| have arisen out of and in the course of employment. Nothing in the foregoing provision shall be |
| held to deny benefits under chapters 29 — 38 and chapter 47 of this title to employees such as |
| drivers, mechanics, and others who receive remuneration for their participation in the rideshare |
| program. Provided, that the foregoing provision shall not bar the right of an employee to recover |
| against an employer and/or driver for tortious misconduct. |
| (9) “Maximum medical improvement” means a point in time when any medically |
| determinable physical or mental impairment as a result of injury has become stable and when no |
| further treatment is reasonably expected to materially improve the condition. Neither the need for |
| future medical maintenance nor the possibility of improvement or deterioration resulting from the |
| passage of time and not from the ordinary course of the disabling condition, nor the continuation |
| of a preexisting condition precludes a finding of maximum medical improvement. A finding of |
| maximum medical improvement by the workers’ compensation court may be reviewed only where |
| it is established that an employee’s condition has substantially deteriorated or improved. |
| (10) “Physician” means medical doctor, surgeon, dentist, licensed psychologist, |
| chiropractor, osteopath, podiatrist, or optometrist, as the case may be. |
| (11) “Suitable alternative employment” means employment or an actual offer of |
| employment that the employee is physically able to perform and will not exacerbate the employee’s |
| health condition and that bears a reasonable relationship to the employee’s qualifications, |
| background, education, and training. The employee’s age alone shall not be considered in |
| determining the suitableness of the alternative employment. |
| SECTION 19. Section 31-51-3 of the General Laws in Chapter 31-51 entitled "School Bus |
| Safety Enforcement" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 31-51-3. Procedure — Notice. |
| (a) Except as expressly provided in this chapter, all prosecutions based on evidence |
| produced by a live digital video school bus violation detection monitoring system shall follow the |
| procedures established in chapter 41.1 of this title, chapter 18 of title 8, and the rules promulgated |
| by the chief magistrate of the traffic tribunal for the hearing of civil traffic violations in the traffic |
| tribunal. Provided, that in an action brought pursuant to the provisions of this chapter, references |
| in chapter 41.1 of this title to an “operator” shall apply to the registered owner of the vehicle. A |
| summons may be issued by an officer solely based on evidence obtained by use of a live digital |
| video school bus violation detection monitoring system. All summonses issued based on evidence |
| obtained from a live digital video school bus violation detection monitoring system shall be issued |
| within ten (10) days of the violation. Notwithstanding any provisions of the general laws to the |
| contrary, jurisdiction to hear and decide any violation under this chapter shall be as follows: |
| (1) By the traffic tribunal over all violations for which the summons is issued by a state |
| agency; |
| (2) By the traffic tribunal over all violations for which the summons is issued by a city or |
| town which has not established a municipal court; and |
| (3) By the municipal court over all violations for which the summons is issued by a city or |
| town which has established a municipal court. |
| (b) It shall be sufficient to commence a prosecution based on evidence obtained from a live |
| digital video school bus violation detection monitoring system. A copy of the summons and |
| supporting documentation shall be mailed to the address of the registered owner kept on file by the |
| registry of motor vehicles. For purposes of this section, the date of issuance shall be the date of |
| mailing. |
| (c) The officer issuing the citation shall certify under penalties of perjury that the evidence |
| obtained from the live digital video school bus violation detection monitoring system was sufficient |
| to demonstrate a violation of the motor vehicle code. Such certification shall be sufficient in all |
| prosecutions pursuant to this chapter to justify the entry of a default judgment upon sufficient proof |
| of actual notice in all cases where the citation is not answered within the time period permitted. |
| (d) The summons shall contain all the information provided for on the uniform summons |
| as referred to in § 31-41.1-1 and the rules of procedure promulgated by the chief magistrate of the |
| traffic tribunal as well as the date, time, and location of the violation. In addition, the following |
| information shall be attached to or accompany the summons: |
| (1) Copies of two (2) or more photographs, or microphotographs, videos, or other recorded |
| images taken as proof of the violation; |
| (2) A signed statement certified under the penalties of perjury by a trained law enforcement |
| officer that, based on inspection of recorded images and video, the motor vehicle was being |
| operated in violation of this chapter; |
| (3) A signed statement that recorded images are evidence of a violation of this chapter; |
| (4) A statement that the person who receives the summons under this chapter may either |
| pay the civil fine in accordance with the provisions of § 31-51-2.2, proceed under § 31-51-5(c)(3) |
| of this section 31-51-5(c)(2), or elect to stand trial for the alleged violation; |
| (5) A signed affidavit by a person who witnessed the motor vehicle being operated in |
| violation of this chapter; and |
| (6) A signed statement certified under the penalties of perjury by a trained law enforcement |
| officer that the summons and attachments required under this subsection were mailed to the address |
| of the registered owner kept on file by the registry of motor vehicles. |
| (e) Any summons issued pursuant to this chapter shall be issued by a law enforcement |
| officer authorized to issue a traffic violation summons pursuant to this title. |
| SECTION 20. Section 35-24-4 of the General Laws in Chapter 35-24 entitled "Rhode |
| Island Baby Bond Trust" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 35-24-4. Investment of funds in the trust. |
| Notwithstanding the provisions of §§ 35-10-12 — 35-10-14, inclusive, the general |
| treasurer shall invest the amounts on deposit in the trust in a manner reasonable and appropriate to |
| achieve the objectives of the trust, exercising the discretion and care of a prudent person in similar |
| circumstances with similar objectives. The general treasurer shall give due consideration to rate of |
| return, risk, term or maturity, diversification of the portfolio within the trust, liquidity, the projected |
| disbursements of the total portfolio within the trust, liquidity, the projected disbursements and |
| expenditures and the expected payments, deposits, contributions, and gifts to be received. The |
| general treasurer shall not require the trust to invest directly in obligations of the state or any |
| political subdivision of the state or in any investment or other fund administered by the general |
| treasurer. The assets of the trust shall be continuously invested and reinvested in a manner |
| consistent with the objectives of the trust until disbursed for eligible expenditures as defined by this |
| chapter or expended on expenses incurred by the operations of the trust. |
| SECTION 21. Section 36-14-8 of the General Laws in Chapter 36-14 entitled "Code of |
| Ethics" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 36-14-8. Rhode Island ethics commission — Establishment — Members — Vacancies |
| — Quorum — Compensation and quarters. |
| (a) There is hereby established an independent and nonpartisan Rhode Island ethics |
| commission composed of nine (9) members appointed by the governor. The president of the senate, |
| the minority leader of the senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, the majority leader of |
| the house of representatives, and the minority leader of the house of representatives shall, within |
| twenty (20) days of July 21, 1992, each submit to the governor a list of names of at least five (5) |
| individuals. The governor shall, within forty (40) days of July 21, 1992, appoint one individual |
| from each of the lists so submitted and four (4) individuals without regard to the lists submitted by |
| the legislative leaders. |
| (b) Members of the commission shall serve for terms of five (5) years, except that, of the |
| members first appointed: |
| (1) The individual appointed from the list submitted by the majority leader of the house of |
| representatives shall serve for one year; |
| (2) The individuals appointed from the lists submitted by the minority leader of the senate |
| and one of the individuals appointed by the governor without regard to the lists submitted by the |
| legislative leaders shall serve for two (2) years; |
| (3) The individual appointed from the list submitted by the minority leader of the house of |
| representatives and one of the individuals appointed by the governor without regard to the lists |
| submitted by the legislative leaders shall serve for three (3) years; |
| (4) The individual appointed from the list submitted by the president of the senate and one |
| of the individuals appointed from the list submitted by the minority leader of the house of |
| representatives shall serve for four (4) years; and |
| (5) The individual appointed from the list submitted by the speaker of the house of |
| representatives and one of the individuals appointed from the list submitted by the minority leader |
| of the senate shall serve for five (5) years. |
| (c) No member shall be appointed for more than one full five (5) year term; provided, |
| however, that each member shall continue to serve until his or her successor is appointed and |
| qualified; and, provided further, that if, at the time of the expiration of any member’s term, that |
| member is actively engaged in the adjudication of a complaint, he or she shall continue to serve in |
| that capacity until the commission has completed its responsibilities with respect to that complaint. |
| (d) The governor shall, at the time of the initial appointments to the commission, designate |
| one member to act as chairperson of the commission for a period of one year and another to act as |
| vice chairperson of the commission for a period of one year. Thereafter, the commission shall elect |
| a chairperson and a vice chairperson. The vice chairperson shall act as chairperson in the absence |
| of the chairperson or in the event of a vacancy in that position. |
| (e) Any vacancy on the commission, occurring for any reason prior to the expiration of the |
| term, shall be filled for the unexpired term by the appointing authority in the same manner as the |
| original appointment within thirty (30) days of the vacancy occurring. |
| (f) No individual, while a member or employee of the commission, including any legal |
| counsel engaged by the commission, shall: |
| (1) Hold or campaign for any other public office; |
| (2) Hold office in any political party or political committee; |
| (3) Participate in or contribute to any political campaign; |
| (4) Directly or indirectly attempt to influence any decision by a governmental body, other |
| than as the duly authorized representative of the commission on a matter within the jurisdiction of |
| the commission; |
| (5) Have held elective public office or have been a candidate for elective public office for |
| a one year period prior to appointment. |
| (6) Have any equity interest or ownership interest in, or be employed by a business entity |
| that derives any of its revenue or income by engaging in lobbying, as defined in chapter 22-10 and |
| chapter 42-139 139.1 of title 42. |
| (g) The governor shall declare vacant the position on the commission of any member who |
| takes part in activities prohibited by subsection (f) of this section. An individual appointed to fill a |
| vacancy occurring other than by the expiration of a term of office shall be appointed for the |
| unexpired term of the member he or she succeeds, and is eligible for appointment to one full five- |
| year term thereafter. Any vacancy occurring on the commission shall be filled within thirty (30) |
| days in the manner in which that position was originally filled. |
| (h) For any action to be taken under the terms of this chapter by the full commission, five |
| (5) members of the commission shall constitute a quorum. |
| (i) Commission members shall not be compensated for attendance at meetings of the |
| commission or of any investigating committee or adjudicative panel of the commission. |
| (j) All departments and agencies of the state or of any city or town or political subdivision |
| within this state shall furnish such advice or information documentary or otherwise, to the |
| commission and its agents as is deemed necessary or desirable by the commission to facilitate the |
| purposes of this chapter. |
| (k) The director of administration is hereby authorized and directed to provide suitable |
| quarters for the commission. |
| (l) When commission members act in good faith within the scope of their authority and in |
| their official capacities they shall be afforded protection against civil liability as provided in § 9-1- |
| 31.1. |
| SECTION 22. Sections 38-3-6 and 38-3-7 of the General Laws in Chapter 38-3 entitled |
| "Public Records Administration" are hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 38-3-6. Public records custody and disposal. |
| (a) Each agency shall prepare and submit to the program, in accordance with the rules and |
| regulations of the program, record control schedules for all public records in the custody of the |
| agency. |
| (b) Proposed schedules shall be sent to the offices of the attorney general and the auditor |
| general. Within one hundred twenty (120) days of receipt, the attorney general and the auditor |
| general may, within their discretion, provide the administrator with comments regarding the |
| proposed schedule. If the proposed schedules are not returned to the administrator within one |
| hundred twenty (120) days of receiving the proposed schedule, the proposed schedule may |
| nonetheless be made final for use in records disposition pursuant to § 38-3-7(4). |
| (c) Those records which are determined by an agency not to be needed in the transaction |
| of current business but which, for legal or fiscal requirements, must be retained for specific time |
| periods beyond administrative needs, may be sent to the records center. The records will be kept in |
| the center until time for disposition as provided in record control schedules. |
| (d) Public records possessing enduring value and that have not yet met minimum retention |
| as determined by the records control schedules may be transferred to the state records center after |
| the twentieth year or when no longer considered active. |
| (e) Public records determined to be of permanent value according to the records retention |
| schedule and by the administrator in consultation with the state archivist, shall be transferred to the |
| state archives following assessment after the twentieth year, if not sooner, if the transfer of custody |
| is in the best interest of the record. |
| (f) Title to any record placed in the records center shall remain with the agency placing the |
| record in the center. |
| (g) Title to any record transferred to the state archives, as authorized in this chapter, shall |
| be vested in the program and shall be made available to the public. |
| (h) Any record placed in keeping of the program under special terms or conditions |
| restricting their use shall be made available only in accordance with the provisions of § 38-2-2. |
| (i) Provide The administrator shall provide a public research room where, upon policies |
| established by the program, the records in the state archives may be studied. |
| (j) No public record shall be destroyed or otherwise disposed of by any agency without |
| prior notice to, and approval by, the program pursuant to subsection (a) of this section. Records |
| without established retention in an approved records retention schedule cannot be destroyed. |
| (k) The program shall adopt reasonable rules and regulations not inconsistent with this |
| chapter relating to the destruction and disposal of records. The rules and regulations shall provide |
| but not be limited to: |
| (1) Procedures for preparing and submitting record control schedules to the program; |
| (2) Procedures for the physical destruction or other disposal of records; and |
| (3) Standards for the reproduction of records for security or with a view to the disposal of |
| the original record. |
| 38-3-7. Duties and responsibilities of agencies. |
| It shall be the duty of each agency to: |
| (1) Cooperate with the program in complying with the provisions of this chapter; |
| (2) Establish and maintain active and continuous procedure for the economical and |
| efficient management of public records, including, but not limited to, working with the |
| administrator to create and update records control schedules and transfer permanent records to the |
| state archives; |
| (3) Transfer records, or any reasonably segregable portion thereof not including personal |
| papers deemed not public pursuant to § 42-8.1-2(11) the definition of records in § 42-8.1-2, |
| created or received by general officers, immediate staff, or a unit or individual of the executive |
| office whose function is to advise and assist general officers, in the course of conducting activities |
| which relate to or have an effect upon the carrying out of the constitutional, statutory, or other |
| official duties carried out on behalf of the state. Such materials shall be transferred at the end of the |
| elected official’s final term within thirty (30) days of leaving such office; |
| (4) Submit a certification of records destruction for approval by the program for each public |
| record the agency seeks to destroy once it has met its approved minimum retention period. The |
| certification of records destruction shall be the permanent replacement for duly approved destroyed |
| public records; and |
| (5) Not later than January 1, 2026, designate a records officer who has responsibility for |
| compliance with this chapter and has been provided orientation and training by the public records |
| administration regarding this chapter. The records officer: |
| (i) Shall establish and operate a records management program for the agency in cooperation |
| with the public records administration and state archives; |
| (ii) May delegate responsibilities to an individual within the agency at the records officer’s |
| discretion; |
| (iii) Annually Shall annually confirm the accuracy of the agency’s records control |
| schedule and request amendments if necessary; |
| (iv) Annually Shall annually submit for approval of destruction of records that have met |
| minimum retention periods based on the records control schedule; and |
| (v) May also serve as the agency forms management representative as required by § 42- |
| 84-5. |
| SECTION 23. Section 42-7.2-5 of the General Laws in Chapter 42-7.2 entitled "Office of |
| Health and Human Services" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 42-7.2-5. Duties of the secretary. |
| The secretary shall be subject to the direction and supervision of the governor for the |
| oversight, coordination, and cohesive direction of state-administered health and human services |
| and in ensuring the laws are faithfully executed, notwithstanding any law to the contrary. In this |
| capacity, the secretary of the executive office of health and human services (EOHHS) shall be |
| authorized to: |
| (1) Coordinate the administration and financing of healthcare benefits, human services, and |
| programs including those authorized by the state’s Medicaid section 1115 demonstration waiver |
| and, as applicable, the Medicaid state plan under Title XIX of the U.S. Social Security Act. |
| However, nothing in this section shall be construed as transferring to the secretary the powers, |
| duties, or functions conferred upon the departments by Rhode Island public and general laws for |
| the administration of federal/state programs financed in whole or in part with Medicaid funds or |
| the administrative responsibility for the preparation and submission of any state plans, state plan |
| amendments, or authorized federal waiver applications, once approved by the secretary. |
| (2) Serve as the governor’s chief advisor and liaison to federal policymakers on Medicaid |
| reform issues as well as the principal point of contact in the state on any such related matters. |
| (3)(i) Review and ensure the coordination of the state’s Medicaid section 1115 |
| demonstration waiver requests and renewals as well as any initiatives and proposals requiring |
| amendments to the Medicaid state plan or formal amendment changes, as described in the special |
| terms and conditions of the state’s Medicaid section 1115 demonstration waiver with the potential |
| to affect the scope, amount, or duration of publicly funded healthcare services, provider payments |
| or reimbursements, or access to or the availability of benefits and services as provided by Rhode |
| Island general and public laws. The secretary shall consider whether any such changes are legally |
| and fiscally sound and consistent with the state’s policy and budget priorities. The secretary shall |
| also assess whether a proposed change is capable of obtaining the necessary approvals from federal |
| officials and achieving the expected positive consumer outcomes. Department directors shall, |
| within the timelines specified, provide any information and resources the secretary deems necessary |
| in order to perform the reviews authorized in this section. |
| (ii) Direct the development and implementation of any Medicaid policies, procedures, or |
| systems that may be required to assure successful operation of the state’s health and human services |
| integrated eligibility system and coordination with HealthSource RI, the state’s health insurance |
| marketplace. |
| (iii) Beginning in 2015, conduct on a biennial basis a comprehensive review of the |
| Medicaid eligibility criteria for one or more of the populations covered under the state plan or a |
| waiver to ensure consistency with federal and state laws and policies, coordinate and align systems, |
| and identify areas for improving quality assurance, fair and equitable access to services, and |
| opportunities for additional financial participation. |
| (iv) Implement service organization and delivery reforms that facilitate service integration, |
| increase value, and improve quality and health outcomes. |
| (4) Beginning in 2020, prepare and submit to the governor, the chairpersons of the house |
| and senate finance committees, the caseload estimating conference, and to the joint legislative |
| committee for health-care oversight, by no later than September 15 of each year, a comprehensive |
| overview of all Medicaid expenditures outcomes, administrative costs, and utilization rates. The |
| overview shall include, but not be limited to, the following information: |
| (i) Expenditures under Titles XIX and XXI of the Social Security Act, as amended; |
| (ii) Expenditures, outcomes, and utilization rates by population and sub-population served |
| (e.g., families with children, persons with disabilities, children in foster care, children receiving |
| adoption assistance, adults ages nineteen (19) to sixty-four (64), and elders); |
| (iii) Expenditures, outcomes, and utilization rates by each state department or other |
| municipal or public entity receiving federal reimbursement under Titles XIX and XXI of the Social |
| Security Act, as amended; |
| (iv) Expenditures, outcomes, and utilization rates by type of service and/or service |
| provider; |
| (v) Expenditures by mandatory population receiving mandatory services and, reported |
| separately, optional services, as well as optional populations receiving mandatory services and, |
| reported separately, optional services for each state agency receiving Title XIX and XXI funds; and |
| (vi) Information submitted to the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services for the |
| mandatory annual state reporting of the Core Set of Children’s Health Care Quality Measures for |
| Medicaid and Children’s Health Insurance Program, behavioral health measures on the Core Set of |
| Adult Health Care Quality Measures for Medicaid and the Core Sets of Health Home Quality |
| Measures for Medicaid to ensure compliance with the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2018, Pub. L. No. |
| 115-123. |
| The directors of the departments, as well as local governments and school departments, |
| shall assist and cooperate with the secretary in fulfilling this responsibility by providing whatever |
| resources, information, and support shall be necessary. |
| (5) Resolve administrative, jurisdictional, operational, program, or policy conflicts among |
| departments and their executive staffs and make necessary recommendations to the governor. |
| (6) Ensure continued progress toward improving the quality, the economy, the |
| accountability, and the efficiency of state-administered health and human services. In this capacity, |
| the secretary shall: |
| (i) Direct implementation of reforms in the human resources practices of the executive |
| office and the departments that streamline and upgrade services, achieve greater economies of scale |
| and establish the coordinated system of the staff education, cross-training, and career development |
| services necessary to recruit and retain a highly-skilled, responsive, and engaged health and human |
| services workforce; |
| (ii) Encourage EOHHS-wide consumer-centered approaches to service design and delivery |
| that expand their capacity to respond efficiently and responsibly to the diverse and changing needs |
| of the people and communities they serve; |
| (iii) Develop all opportunities to maximize resources by leveraging the state’s purchasing |
| power, centralizing fiscal service functions related to budget, finance, and procurement, |
| centralizing communication, policy analysis and planning, and information systems and data |
| management, pursuing alternative funding sources through grants, awards, and partnerships and |
| securing all available federal financial participation for programs and services provided EOHHS- |
| wide; |
| (iv) Improve the coordination and efficiency of health and human services legal functions |
| by centralizing adjudicative and legal services and overseeing their timely and judicious |
| administration; |
| (v) Facilitate the rebalancing of the long-term system by creating an assessment and |
| coordination organization or unit for the expressed purpose of developing and implementing |
| procedures EOHHS-wide that ensure that the appropriate publicly funded health services are |
| provided at the right time and in the most appropriate and least restrictive setting; |
| (vi) Strengthen health and human services program integrity, quality control and |
| collections, and recovery activities by consolidating functions within the office in a single unit that |
| ensures all affected parties pay their fair share of the cost of services and are aware of alternative |
| financing; |
| (vii) Assure protective services are available to vulnerable elders and adults with |
| developmental and other disabilities by reorganizing existing services, establishing new services |
| where gaps exist, and centralizing administrative responsibility for oversight of all related |
| initiatives and programs. |
| (7) Prepare and integrate comprehensive budgets for the health and human services |
| departments and any other functions and duties assigned to the office. The budgets shall be |
| submitted to the state budget office by the secretary, for consideration by the governor, on behalf |
| of the state’s health and human services agencies in accordance with the provisions set forth in § |
| 35-3-4. |
| (8) Utilize objective data to evaluate health and human services policy goals, resource use |
| and outcome evaluation and to perform short and long-term policy planning and development. |
| (9) Establish an integrated approach to interdepartmental information and data |
| management that complements and furthers the goals of the unified health infrastructure project |
| initiative and that will facilitate the transition to a consumer-centered integrated system of state- |
| administered health and human services. |
| (10) At the direction of the governor or the general assembly, conduct independent reviews |
| of state-administered health and human services programs, policies, and related agency actions and |
| activities and assist the department directors in identifying strategies to address any issues or areas |
| of concern that may emerge thereof. The department directors shall provide any information and |
| assistance deemed necessary by the secretary when undertaking such independent reviews. |
| (11) Provide regular and timely reports to the governor and make recommendations with |
| respect to the state’s health and human services agenda. |
| (12) Employ such personnel and contract for such consulting services as may be required |
| to perform the powers and duties lawfully conferred upon the secretary. |
| (13) Assume responsibility for complying with the provisions of any general or public law |
| or regulation related to the disclosure, confidentiality, and privacy of any information or records, |
| in the possession or under the control of the executive office or the departments assigned to the |
| executive office, that may be developed or acquired or transferred at the direction of the governor |
| or the secretary for purposes directly connected with the secretary’s duties set forth herein. |
| (14) Hold the director of each health and human services department accountable for their |
| administrative, fiscal, and program actions in the conduct of the respective powers and duties of |
| their agencies. |
| (15) Identify opportunities for inclusion with the EOHHS’ October 1, 2023, budget |
| submission, to remove fixed eligibility thresholds for programs under its purview by establishing |
| sliding scale decreases in benefits commensurate with income increases up to four hundred fifty |
| percent (450%) of the federal poverty level. These shall include but not be limited to, medical |
| assistance, childcare assistance, and food assistance. |
| (16) Ensure that insurers minimize administrative burdens on providers that may delay |
| medically necessary care, including requiring that insurers do not impose a prior authorization |
| requirement for any admission, item, service, treatment, or procedure ordered by an in-network |
| primary care provider. Provided, the prohibition shall not be construed to prohibit prior |
| authorization requirements for prescription drugs. Provided further, that as used in this subsection |
| (16) of this section, the terms “insurer,” “primary care provider,” and “prior authorization” means |
| the same as those terms are defined in § 27-18.9-2. |
| (17) The secretary shall convene, in consultation with the governor, an advisory working |
| group to assist in the review and analysis of potential impacts of any adopted federal actions related |
| to Medicaid programs. The working group shall develop options for administrative action or |
| general assembly consideration that may be needed to address any federal funding changes that |
| impact Rhode Island’s Medicaid programs. |
| (i) The advisory working group may include, but not be limited to, the secretary of health |
| and human services, director of management and budget, and designees from the following: state |
| agencies, businesses, healthcare, public sector unions, and advocates. |
| (ii) As soon as practicable after the enactment of the federal budget for fiscal year 2026, |
| but no later than October 31, 2025, the advisory working group shall forward a report to the |
| governor, speaker of the house, and president of the senate containing the findings, |
| recommendations and options for consideration to become compliant with federal changes prior to |
| the governor’s budget submission pursuant to § 35-3-7. |
| SECTION 24. Section 42-14.5-3 of the General Laws in Chapter 42-14.5 entitled "The |
| Rhode Island Health Care Reform Act of 2004 — Health Insurance Oversight" is hereby amended |
| to read as follows: |
| 42-14.5-3. Powers and duties. |
| The health insurance commissioner shall have the following powers and duties: |
| (a) To conduct quarterly public meetings throughout the state, separate and distinct from |
| rate hearings pursuant to § 42-62-13, regarding the rates, services, and operations of insurers |
| licensed to provide health insurance in the state; the effects of such rates, services, and operations |
| on consumers, medical care providers, patients, and the market environment in which the insurers |
| operate; and efforts to bring new health insurers into the Rhode Island market. Notice of not less |
| than ten (10) days of the hearing(s) shall go to the general assembly, the governor, the Rhode Island |
| Medical Society, the Hospital Association of Rhode Island, the director of health, the attorney |
| general, and the chambers of commerce. Public notice shall be posted on the department’s website |
| and given in the newspaper of general circulation, and to any entity in writing requesting notice. |
| (b) To make recommendations to the governor and the house of representatives and senate |
| finance committees regarding healthcare insurance and the regulations, rates, services, |
| administrative expenses, reserve requirements, and operations of insurers providing health |
| insurance in the state, and to prepare or comment on, upon the request of the governor or |
| chairpersons of the house or senate finance committees, draft legislation to improve the regulation |
| of health insurance. In making the recommendations, the commissioner shall recognize that it is |
| the intent of the legislature that the maximum disclosure be provided regarding the reasonableness |
| of individual administrative expenditures as well as total administrative costs. The commissioner |
| shall make recommendations on the levels of reserves, including consideration of: targeted reserve |
| levels; trends in the increase or decrease of reserve levels; and insurer plans for distributing excess |
| reserves. |
| (c) To establish a consumer/business/labor/medical advisory council to obtain information |
| and present concerns of consumers, business, and medical providers affected by health insurance |
| decisions. The council shall develop proposals to allow the market for small business health |
| insurance to be affordable and fairer. The council shall be involved in the planning and conduct of |
| the quarterly public meetings in accordance with subsection (a). The advisory council shall develop |
| measures to inform small businesses of an insurance complaint process to ensure that small |
| businesses that experience rate increases in a given year may request and receive a formal review |
| by the department. The advisory council shall assess views of the health provider community |
| relative to insurance rates of reimbursement, billing, and reimbursement procedures, and the |
| insurers’ role in promoting efficient and high-quality health care. The advisory council shall issue |
| an annual report of findings and recommendations to the governor and the general assembly and |
| present its findings at hearings before the house and senate finance committees. The advisory |
| council is to be diverse in interests and shall include representatives of community consumer |
| organizations; small businesses, other than those involved in the sale of insurance products; and |
| hospital, medical, and other health provider organizations. Such representatives shall be nominated |
| by their respective organizations. The advisory council shall be co-chaired by the health insurance |
| commissioner and a community consumer organization or small business member to be elected by |
| the full advisory council. |
| (d) To establish and provide guidance and assistance to a subcommittee (“the professional- |
| provider-health-plan work group”) of the advisory council created pursuant to subsection (c), |
| composed of healthcare providers and Rhode Island licensed health plans. This subcommittee shall |
| include in its annual report and presentation before the house and senate finance committees the |
| following information: |
| (1) A method whereby health plans shall disclose to contracted providers the fee schedules |
| used to provide payment to those providers for services rendered to covered patients; |
| (2) A standardized provider application and credentials verification process, for the |
| purpose of verifying professional qualifications of participating healthcare providers; |
| (3) The uniform health plan claim form utilized by participating providers; |
| (4) Methods for health maintenance organizations, as defined by § 27-41-2, and nonprofit |
| hospital or medical service corporations, as defined by chapters 19 and 20 of title 27, to make |
| facility-specific data and other medical service-specific data available in reasonably consistent |
| formats to patients regarding quality and costs. This information would help consumers make |
| informed choices regarding the facilities and clinicians or physician practices at which to seek care. |
| Among the items considered would be the unique health services and other public goods provided |
| by facilities and clinicians or physician practices in establishing the most appropriate cost |
| comparisons; |
| (5) All activities related to contractual disclosure to participating providers of the |
| mechanisms for resolving health plan/provider disputes; |
| (6) The uniform process being utilized for confirming, in real time, patient insurance |
| enrollment status, benefits coverage, including copays and deductibles; |
| (7) Information related to temporary credentialing of providers seeking to participate in the |
| plan’s network and the impact of the activity on health plan accreditation; |
| (8) The feasibility of regular contract renegotiations between plans and the providers in |
| their networks; and |
| (9) Efforts conducted related to reviewing impact of silent PPOs on physician practices. |
| (e) To enforce the provisions of title 27 and this title as set forth in § 42-14-5(d). |
| (f) To provide analysis of the Rhode Island affordable health plan reinsurance fund. The |
| fund shall be used to effectuate the provisions of §§ 27-18.5-9 and 27-50-17. |
| (g) To analyze the impact of changing the rating guidelines and/or merging the individual |
| health insurance market, as defined in chapter 18.5 of title 27, and the small-employer health |
| insurance market, as defined in chapter 50 of title 27, in accordance with the following: |
| (1) The analysis shall forecast the likely rate increases required to effect the changes |
| recommended pursuant to the preceding subsection (g) in the direct-pay market and small-employer |
| health insurance market over the next five (5) years, based on the current rating structure and |
| current products. |
| (2) The analysis shall include examining the impact of merging the individual and small- |
| employer markets on premiums charged to individuals and small-employer groups. |
| (3) The analysis shall include examining the impact on rates in each of the individual and |
| small-employer health insurance markets and the number of insureds in the context of possible |
| changes to the rating guidelines used for small-employer groups, including: community rating |
| principles; expanding small-employer rate bonds beyond the current range; increasing the employer |
| group size in the small-group market; and/or adding rating factors for broker and/or tobacco use. |
| (4) The analysis shall include examining the adequacy of current statutory and regulatory |
| oversight of the rating process and factors employed by the participants in the proposed, new |
| merged market. |
| (5) The analysis shall include assessment of possible reinsurance mechanisms and/or |
| federal high-risk pool structures and funding to support the health insurance market in Rhode Island |
| by reducing the risk of adverse selection and the incremental insurance premiums charged for this |
| risk, and/or by making health insurance affordable for a selected at-risk population. |
| (6) The health insurance commissioner shall work with an insurance market merger task |
| force to assist with the analysis. The task force shall be chaired by the health insurance |
| commissioner and shall include, but not be limited to, representatives of the general assembly, the |
| business community, small-employer carriers as defined in § 27-50-3, carriers offering coverage in |
| the individual market in Rhode Island, health insurance brokers, and members of the general public. |
| (7) For the purposes of conducting this analysis, the commissioner may contract with an |
| outside organization with expertise in fiscal analysis of the private insurance market. In conducting |
| its study, the organization shall, to the extent possible, obtain and use actual health plan data. Said |
| data shall be subject to state and federal laws and regulations governing confidentiality of health |
| care and proprietary information. |
| (8) The task force shall meet as necessary and include its findings in the annual report, and |
| the commissioner shall include the information in the annual presentation before the house and |
| senate finance committees. |
| (h) To establish and convene a workgroup representing healthcare providers and health |
| insurers for the purpose of coordinating the development of processes, guidelines, and standards to |
| streamline healthcare administration that are to be adopted by payors and providers of healthcare |
| services operating in the state. This workgroup shall include representatives with expertise who |
| would contribute to the streamlining of healthcare administration and who are selected from |
| hospitals, physician practices, community behavioral health organizations, each health insurer, and |
| other affected entities. The workgroup shall also include at least one designee each from the Rhode |
| Island Medical Society, Rhode Island Council of Community Mental Health Organizations, the |
| Rhode Island Health Center Association, and the Hospital Association of Rhode Island. In any year |
| that the workgroup meets and submits recommendations to the office of the health insurance |
| commissioner, the office of the health insurance commissioner shall submit such recommendations |
| to the health and human services committees of the Rhode Island house of representatives and the |
| Rhode Island senate prior to the implementation of any such recommendations and subsequently |
| shall submit a report to the general assembly by June 30, 2024. The report shall include the |
| recommendations the commissioner may implement, with supporting rationale. The workgroup |
| shall consider and make recommendations for: |
| (1) Establishing a consistent standard for electronic eligibility and coverage verification. |
| Such standard shall: |
| (i) Include standards for eligibility inquiry and response and, wherever possible, be |
| consistent with the standards adopted by nationally recognized organizations, such as the Centers |
| for Medicare & Medicaid Services; |
| (ii) Enable providers and payors to exchange eligibility requests and responses on a system- |
| to-system basis or using a payor-supported web browser; |
| (iii) Provide reasonably detailed information on a consumer’s eligibility for healthcare |
| coverage; scope of benefits; limitations and exclusions provided under that coverage; cost-sharing |
| requirements for specific services at the specific time of the inquiry; current deductible amounts; |
| accumulated or limited benefits; out-of-pocket maximums; any maximum policy amounts; and |
| other information required for the provider to collect the patient’s portion of the bill; |
| (iv) Reflect the necessary limitations imposed on payors by the originator of the eligibility |
| and benefits information; |
| (v) Recommend a standard or common process to protect all providers from the costs of |
| services to patients who are ineligible for insurance coverage in circumstances where a payor |
| provides eligibility verification based on best information available to the payor at the date of the |
| request of eligibility. |
| (2) Developing implementation guidelines and promoting adoption of the guidelines for: |
| (i) The use of the National Correct Coding Initiative code-edit policy by payors and |
| providers in the state; |
| (ii) Publishing any variations from codes and mutually exclusive codes by payors in a |
| manner that makes for simple retrieval and implementation by providers; |
| (iii) Use of Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act standard group codes, |
| reason codes, and remark codes by payors in electronic remittances sent to providers; |
| (iv) Uniformity in the processing of claims by payors; and the processing of corrections to |
| claims by providers and payors; |
| (v) A standard payor-denial review process for providers when they request a |
| reconsideration of a denial of a claim that results from differences in clinical edits where no single, |
| common-standards body or process exists and multiple conflicting sources are in use by payors and |
| providers. |
| (vi) Nothing in this section, nor in the guidelines developed, shall inhibit an individual |
| payor’s ability to employ, and not disclose to providers, temporary code edits for the purpose of |
| detecting and deterring fraudulent billing activities. The guidelines shall require that each payor |
| disclose to the provider its adjudication decision on a claim that was denied or adjusted based on |
| the application of such edits and that the provider have access to the payor’s review and appeal |
| process to challenge the payor’s adjudication decision. |
| (vii) Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to modify the rights or obligations of |
| payors or providers with respect to procedures relating to the investigation, reporting, appeal, or |
| prosecution under applicable law of potentially fraudulent billing activities. |
| (3) Developing and promoting widespread adoption by payors and providers of guidelines |
| to: |
| (i) Ensure payors do not automatically deny claims for services when extenuating |
| circumstances make it impossible for the provider to obtain a preauthorization before services are |
| performed or notify a payor within an appropriate standardized timeline of a patient’s admission; |
| (ii) Require payors to use common and consistent processes and time frames when |
| responding to provider requests for medical management approvals. Whenever possible, such time |
| frames shall be consistent with those established by leading national organizations and be based |
| upon the acuity of the patient’s need for care or treatment. For the purposes of this section, medical |
| management includes prior authorization of services, preauthorization of services, precertification |
| of services, post-service review, medical-necessity review, and benefits advisory; |
| (iii) Develop, maintain, and promote widespread adoption of a single, common website |
| where providers can obtain payors’ preauthorization, benefits advisory, and preadmission |
| requirements; |
| (iv) Establish guidelines for payors to develop and maintain a website that providers can |
| use to request a preauthorization, including a prospective clinical necessity review; receive an |
| authorization number; and transmit an admission notification; |
| (v) Develop and implement the use of programs that implement selective prior |
| authorization requirements, based on stratification of healthcare providers’ performance and |
| adherence to evidence-based medicine with the input of contracted healthcare providers and/or |
| provider organizations. Such criteria shall be transparent and easily accessible to contracted |
| providers. Such selective prior authorization programs shall be available when healthcare providers |
| participate directly with the insurer in risk-based payment contracts and may be available to |
| providers who do not participate in risk-based contracts; |
| (vi) Require the review of medical services, including behavioral health services, and |
| prescription drugs, subject to prior authorization on at least an annual basis, with the input of |
| contracted healthcare providers and/or provider organizations. Any changes to the list of medical |
| services, including behavioral health services, and prescription drugs requiring prior authorization, |
| shall be shared via provider-accessible websites; |
| (vii) Improve communication channels between health plans, healthcare providers, and |
| patients by: |
| (A) Requiring transparency and easy accessibility of prior authorization requirements, |
| criteria, rationale, and program changes to contracted healthcare providers and patients/health plan |
| enrollees which may be satisfied by posting to provider-accessible and member-accessible |
| websites; and |
| (B) Supporting: |
| (I) Timely submission by healthcare providers of the complete information necessary to |
| make a prior authorization determination, as early in the process as possible; and |
| (II) Timely notification of prior authorization determinations by health plans to impacted |
| health plan enrollees, and healthcare providers, including, but not limited to, ordering providers, |
| and/or rendering providers, and dispensing pharmacists which may be satisfied by posting to |
| provider-accessible websites or similar electronic portals or services; |
| (viii) Increase and strengthen continuity of patient care by: |
| (A) Defining protections for continuity of care during a transition period for patients |
| undergoing an active course of treatment, when there is a formulary or treatment coverage change |
| or change of health plan that may disrupt their current course of treatment and when the treating |
| physician determines that a transition may place the patient at risk; and for prescription medication |
| by allowing a grace period of coverage to allow consideration of referred health plan options or |
| establishment of medical necessity of the current course of treatment; |
| (B) Requiring continuity of care for medical services, including behavioral health services, |
| and prescription medications for patients on appropriate, chronic, stable therapy through |
| minimizing repetitive prior authorization requirements; and which for prescription medication shall |
| be allowed only on an annual review, with exception for labeled limitation, to establish continued |
| benefit of treatment; and |
| (C) Requiring communication between healthcare providers, health plans, and patients to |
| facilitate continuity of care and minimize disruptions in needed treatment which may be satisfied |
| by posting to provider-accessible websites or similar electronic portals or services; |
| (D) Continuity of care for formulary or drug coverage shall distinguish between FDA |
| designated interchangeable products and proprietary or marketed versions of a medication; |
| (ix) Encourage healthcare providers and/or provider organizations and health plans to |
| accelerate use of electronic prior authorization technology, including adoption of national standards |
| where applicable; and |
| (x) For the purposes of subsections (h)(3)(v) through (h)(3)(x) of this section, the |
| workgroup meeting may be conducted in part or whole through electronic methods. |
| (4) To provide a report to the house and senate, on or before January 1, 2017, with |
| recommendations for establishing guidelines and regulations for systems that give patients |
| electronic access to their claims information, particularly to information regarding their obligations |
| to pay for received medical services, pursuant to 45 C.F.R. § 164.524. |
| (5) No provision of this subsection (h) shall preclude the ongoing work of the office of |
| health insurance commissioner’s administrative simplification task force, which includes meetings |
| with key stakeholders in order to improve, and provide recommendations regarding, the prior |
| authorization process. |
| (i) To issue an anti-cancer medication report. Not later than June 30, 2014, and annually |
| thereafter, the office of the health insurance commissioner (OHIC) shall provide the senate |
| committee on health and human services, and the house committee on corporations, with: (1) |
| Information on the availability in the commercial market of coverage for anti-cancer medication |
| options; (2) For the state employee’s health benefit plan, the costs of various cancer-treatment |
| options; (3) The changes in drug prices over the prior thirty-six (36) months; and (4) Member |
| utilization and cost-sharing expense. |
| (j) To monitor the adequacy of each health plan’s compliance with the provisions of the |
| federal Mental Health Parity Act, including a review of related claims processing and |
| reimbursement procedures. Findings, recommendations, and assessments shall be made available |
| to the public. |
| (k) To monitor the transition from fee-for-service and toward global and other alternative |
| payment methodologies for the payment for healthcare services. Alternative payment |
| methodologies should be assessed for their likelihood to promote access to affordable health |
| insurance, health outcomes, and performance. |
| (l) To report annually, no later than July 1, 2014, then biannually thereafter, on hospital |
| payment variation, including findings and recommendations, subject to available resources. |
| (m) Notwithstanding any provision of the general or public laws or regulation to the |
| contrary, provide a report with findings and recommendations to the president of the senate and the |
| speaker of the house, on or before April 1, 2014, including, but not limited to, the following |
| information: |
| (1) The impact of the current, mandated healthcare benefits as defined in §§ 27-18-48.1, |
| 27-18-60, 27-18-62, 27-18-64, similar provisions in chapters 19, 20, and 41 of title 27, and §§ 27- |
| 18-3(c), 27-38.2-1 et seq., or others as determined by the commissioner, on the cost of health |
| insurance for fully insured employers, subject to available resources; |
| (2) Current provider and insurer mandates that are unnecessary and/or duplicative due to |
| the existing standards of care and/or delivery of services in the healthcare system; |
| (3) A state-by-state comparison of health insurance mandates and the extent to which |
| Rhode Island mandates exceed other states benefits; and |
| (4) Recommendations for amendments to existing mandated benefits based on the findings |
| in subsections (m)(1), (m)(2), and (m)(3) above. |
| (n) On or before July 1, 2014, the office of the health insurance commissioner, in |
| collaboration with the director of health and lieutenant governor’s office, shall submit a report to |
| the general assembly and the governor to inform the design of accountable care organizations |
| (ACOs) in Rhode Island as unique structures for comprehensive healthcare delivery and value- |
| based payment arrangements, that shall include, but not be limited to: |
| (1) Utilization review; |
| (2) Contracting; and |
| (3) Licensing and regulation. |
| (o) On or before February 3, 2015, the office of the health insurance commissioner shall |
| submit a report to the general assembly and the governor that describes, analyzes, and proposes |
| recommendations to improve compliance of insurers with the provisions of § 27-18-76 with regard |
| to patients with mental health and substance use disorders. |
| (p) To work to ensure the health insurance coverage of behavioral health care under the |
| same terms and conditions as other health care, and to integrate behavioral health parity |
| requirements into the office of the health insurance commissioner insurance oversight and |
| healthcare transformation efforts. |
| (q) To work with other state agencies to seek delivery system improvements that enhance |
| access to a continuum of mental health and substance use disorder treatment in the state; and |
| integrate that treatment with primary and other medical care to the fullest extent possible. |
| (r) To direct insurers toward policies and practices that address the behavioral health needs |
| of the public and greater integration of physical and behavioral healthcare delivery. |
| (s) The office of the health insurance commissioner shall conduct an analysis of the impact |
| of the provisions of § 27-38.2-1(i) on health insurance premiums and access in Rhode Island and |
| submit a report of its findings to the general assembly on or before June 1, 2023. |
| (t) To undertake the analyses, reports, and studies contained in this section: |
| (1) The office shall hire the necessary staff and prepare a request for proposal for a qualified |
| and competent firm or firms to undertake the following analyses, reports, and studies: |
| (i) The firm shall undertake a comprehensive review of all social and human service |
| programs having a contract with or licensed by the state or any subdivision of the department of |
| children, youth and families (DCYF), the department of behavioral healthcare, developmental |
| disabilities and hospitals (BHDDH), the department of human services (DHS), the department of |
| health (DOH), and Medicaid for the purposes of: |
| (A) Establishing a baseline of the eligibility factors for receiving services; |
| (B) Establishing a baseline of the service offering through each agency for those |
| determined eligible; |
| (C) Establishing a baseline understanding of reimbursement rates for all social and human |
| service programs including rates currently being paid, the date of the last increase, and a proposed |
| model that the state may use to conduct future studies and analyses; |
| (D) Ensuring accurate and adequate reimbursement to social and human service providers |
| that facilitate the availability of high-quality services to individuals receiving home and |
| community-based long-term services and supports provided by social and human service providers; |
| (E) Ensuring the general assembly is provided accurate financial projections on social and |
| human service program costs, demand for services, and workforce needs to ensure access to entitled |
| beneficiaries and services; |
| (F) Establishing a baseline and determining the relationship between state government and |
| the provider network including functions, responsibilities, and duties; |
| (G) Determining a set of measures and accountability standards to be used by EOHHS and |
| the general assembly to measure the outcomes of the provision of services including budgetary |
| reporting requirements, transparency portals, and other methods; and |
| (H) Reporting the findings of human services analyses and reports to the speaker of the |
| house, senate president, chairs of the house and senate finance committees, chairs of the house and |
| senate health and human services committees, and the governor. |
| (2) The analyses, reports, and studies required pursuant to this section shall be |
| accomplished and published as follows and shall provide: |
| (i) An assessment and detailed reporting on all social and human service program rates to |
| be completed by January 1, 2023, including rates currently being paid and the date of the last |
| increase; |
| (ii) An assessment and detailed reporting on eligibility standards and processes of all |
| mandatory and discretionary social and human service programs to be completed by January 1, |
| 2023; |
| (iii) An assessment and detailed reporting on utilization trends from the period of January |
| 1, 2017, through December 31, 2021, for social and human service programs to be completed by |
| January 1, 2023; |
| (iv) An assessment and detailed reporting on the structure of the state government as it |
| relates to the provision of services by social and human service providers including eligibility and |
| functions of the provider network to be completed by January 1, 2023; |
| (v) An assessment and detailed reporting on accountability standards for services for social |
| and human service programs to be completed by January 1, 2023; |
| (vi) An assessment and detailed reporting by April 1, 2023, on all professional licensed |
| and unlicensed personnel requirements for established rates for social and human service programs |
| pursuant to a contract or established fee schedule; |
| (vii) An assessment and reporting on access to social and human service programs, to |
| include any wait lists and length of time on wait lists, in each service category by April 1, 2023; |
| (viii) An assessment and reporting of national and regional Medicaid rates in comparison |
| to Rhode Island social and human service provider rates by April 1, 2023; |
| (ix) An assessment and reporting on usual and customary rates paid by private insurers and |
| private pay for similar social and human service providers, both nationally and regionally, by April |
| 1, 2023; |
| (x) Completion of the development of an assessment and review process that includes the |
| following components: eligibility; scope of services; relationship of social and human service |
| provider and the state; national and regional rate comparisons and accountability standards that |
| result in recommended rate adjustments; and this process shall be completed by September 1, 2023, |
| and conducted biennially hereafter. The biennial rate setting shall be consistent with payment |
| requirements established in section 1902(a)(30)(A) of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C. § |
| 1396a(a)(30)(A), and all federal and state law, regulations, and quality and safety standards. The |
| results and findings of this process shall be transparent, and public meetings shall be conducted to |
| allow providers, recipients, and other interested parties an opportunity to ask questions and provide |
| comment beginning in September 2023 and biennially thereafter; and |
| (xi) On or before September 1, 2026, the office shall publish and submit to the general |
| assembly and the governor a one-time report making and justifying recommendations for |
| adjustments to primary care services reimbursement and financing. The report shall include |
| consideration of Medicaid, Medicare, commercial, and alternative contracted payments. |
| (3) In fulfillment of the responsibilities defined in subsection (t), the office of the health |
| insurance commissioner shall consult with the Executive Office of Health and Human Services. |
| (u) Annually, each department (namely, EOHHS, DCYF, DOH, DHS, and BHDDH) shall |
| include the corresponding components of the assessment and review (i.e., eligibility; scope of |
| services; relationship of social and human service provider and the state; and national and regional |
| rate comparisons and accountability standards including any changes or substantive issues between |
| biennial reviews) including the recommended rates from the most recent assessment and review |
| with their annual budget submission to the office of management and budget and provide a detailed |
| explanation and impact statement if any rate variances exist between submitted recommended |
| budget and the corresponding recommended rate from the most recent assessment and review |
| process starting October 1, 2023, and biennially thereafter. |
| (v) The general assembly shall appropriate adequate funding as it deems necessary to |
| undertake the analyses, reports, and studies contained in this section relating to the powers and |
| duties of the office of the health insurance commissioner. |
| (w) The office of the health insurance commissioner shall: |
| (1) Ensure that insurers minimize administrative burdens that may delay medically |
| necessary care, by promulgating rules and regulations and taking enforcement actions to implement |
| § 27-18.9-16; and. |
| (2) Convene the payor/provider workgroup described in subsection (h) of this section, or a |
| similar taskforce, comprised of members with relevant experience and expertise, to serve as a |
| standing advisory steering committee (“committee”) to review and make recommendations |
| regarding: |
| (i) The continuous improvement and simplification of the prior authorization processes for |
| medical services and prescription drugs; |
| (ii) The facilitation of communication and collaboration related to volume reduction; |
| (iii) The establishment of a tracking method to improve the collection of baseline data from |
| commercial health insurers that does not create an administrative burden; |
| (iv) The assessment of prior authorizations that have been approved, those that have been |
| approved with modifications, and the utilization of MRI services in the emergency department; and |
| (v) The assessment of improvements to the access of primary care services and other |
| quality care measures related to the elimination of prior authorizations during this program, |
| including increase in staff availability to perform other office functions; increase in patient |
| appointments; and reduction in care delay. |
| (3) Submit such recommendations of the committee with a rationale, to the governor’s |
| office, speaker of the house of representatives, and the president of the senate, prior to the |
| implementation of any such recommendations and subsequently shall submit a full report to the |
| general assembly by July 1 of each year of the pilot program. |
| SECTION 25. Section 42-128-8.1 of the General Laws in Chapter 42-128 entitled "Rhode |
| Island Housing Resources Act of 1998" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 42-128-8.1. Housing production and rehabilitation. |
| (a) Short title. This section shall be known and may be cited as the “Comprehensive |
| Housing Production and Rehabilitation Act of 2004.” |
| (b) Findings. The general assembly finds and declares that: |
| (1) The state must maintain a comprehensive housing strategy applicable to all cities and |
| towns that addresses the housing needs of different populations including, but not limited to, |
| workers and their families who earn less than one hundred twenty percent (120%) of median |
| income, older citizens, students attending institutions of higher education, low- and very-low |
| income individuals and families, and vulnerable populations including, but not limited to, persons |
| with disabilities, homeless individuals and families, and individuals released from correctional |
| institutions. |
| (2) Efforts and programs to increase the production of housing must be sensitive to the |
| distinctive characteristics of cities and towns, neighborhoods, and areas and the need to manage |
| growth and to pace and phase development, especially in high-growth areas. |
| (3) The state in partnership with local communities must remove barriers to housing |
| development and update and maintain zoning and building regulations to facilitate the construction, |
| rehabilitation of properties and retrofitting of buildings for use as safe affordable housing. |
| (4) Creative funding mechanisms are needed at the local and state levels that provide |
| additional resources for housing development, because there is an inadequate amount of federal |
| and state subsidies to support the affordable housing needs of Rhode Island’s current and projected |
| population. |
| (5) Innovative community planning tools, including, but not limited to, density bonuses |
| and permitted accessory dwelling units, are needed to offset escalating land costs and project |
| financing costs that contribute to the overall cost of housing and tend to restrict the development |
| and preservation of housing affordable to very-low income, low-income, and moderate-income |
| persons. |
| (6) The gap between the annual increase in personal income and the annual increase in the |
| median sales price of a single-family home is growing, therefore, the construction, rehabilitation |
| and maintenance of affordable, multi-family housing needs to increase to provide more rental |
| housing options to individuals and families, especially those who are unable to afford |
| homeownership of a single-family home. |
| (7) The state needs to foster the formation of cooperative partnerships between |
| communities and institutions of higher education to significantly increase the amount of residential |
| housing options for students. |
| (8) The production of housing for older citizens as well as urban populations must keep |
| pace with the next twenty-year (20) projected increases in those populations of the state. |
| (9) Efforts must be made to balance the needs of Rhode Island residents with the ability of |
| the residents of surrounding states to enter into Rhode Island’s housing market with much higher |
| annual incomes at their disposal. |
| (c) Strategic plan. The executive office of housing, in conjunction with the statewide |
| planning program, shall develop every five (5) years, a five-year (5) strategic plan for housing, |
| which plan shall be adopted as an element of the state guide plan, and which shall include quantified |
| goals, measurable intermediate steps toward the accomplishment of the goals, implementation |
| activities, and standards for the production and/or rehabilitation of year-round housing to meet the |
| housing needs including, but not limited to, the following: |
| (1) Older Rhode Islanders, including senior citizens, appropriate, affordable housing |
| options; |
| (2) Workers, housing affordable at their income level; |
| (3) Students, dormitory, student housing and other residential options; |
| (4) Low-income and very-low income households, rental housing; |
| (5) Persons with disabilities, appropriate housing; and |
| (6) Vulnerable individuals and families, permanent housing, single-room occupancy units, |
| transitional housing and shelters. |
| (d) As used in this section and for the purposes of the preparation of affordable housing |
| plans as specified in chapter 22.2 of title 45, words and terms shall have the meaning set forth in |
| chapter 22.2 of title 45, chapter 53 of title 45, and/or § 42-11-10, unless this section provides a |
| different meaning or unless the context indicates a different meaning or intent. |
| (1) “Affordable housing” means residential housing that has a sales price or rental amount |
| that is within the means of a household that is of moderate income or less. In the case of dwelling |
| units for sale, housing that is affordable means housing in which principal, interest, taxes, which |
| may be adjusted by state and local programs for property tax relief, and insurance constitute no |
| more than thirty percent (30%) of the gross household income for a household with less than one |
| hundred and twenty percent (120%) of area median income, adjusted for family size. Provided, |
| however, that exclusively for the residents of New Shoreham, their affordable housing eligibility |
| standards shall include households whose adjusted gross income is less than one hundred forty |
| percent (140%) of their residents’ median income, adjusted for family size. In the case of dwelling |
| units for rent, housing that is affordable means housing for which the rent, heat, and utilities other |
| than telephone constitute no more than thirty percent (30%) of the gross annual household income |
| for a household with eighty percent (80%) or less of area median income, adjusted for family size. |
| (i) Affordable housing shall include all types of year-round housing, including, but not |
| limited to: manufactured housing; housing originally constructed for workers and their families; |
| accessory dwelling units; housing utilizing rental vouchers and/or tenant-based certificates under |
| Section 8 of the United States Housing Act of 1937, as amended; and assisted living housing, where |
| the sales or rental amount of such housing, adjusted for any federal, state, or municipal government |
| subsidy, is less than or equal to thirty percent (30%) of the gross household income of the low |
| and/or moderate income occupants of the housing. |
| (ii) Mobile and manufactured homes shall be included as affordable housing if such home |
| constitutes a primary residence of the occupant or occupants; and such home is located within a |
| community owned by the residents or the land containing the home is owned by the occupant or |
| occupants; and such home was constructed after June 15, 1976; and such home complies with the |
| Manufactured Home Construction and Safety Standards of the United States Department of |
| Housing and Urban Development. |
| (iii) In that New Shoreham has reached its ten percent (10%) low- and moderate-income |
| housing goal, and for so long as they maintain at least ten percent (10%) of their year-round housing |
| stock as low- and moderate-income housing as defined in § 45-53-3(5)(ii), and inasmuch as there |
| are provable economic impacts related to the municipalities’ substantial offshore location, |
| residential housing units produced for sale in which principal, interest, taxes, which may be |
| adjusted by state and local programs for property tax relief, and insurance constitute no more than |
| thirty percent (30%) of the gross household income for a household with less than one hundred |
| forty percent (140%) of the area median income, adjusted for family size, shall be counted towards |
| the municipalities’ low-and moderate-income housing inventory as defined in § 45-53-3(9). |
| (2) “Affordable housing plan” means a plan prepared and adopted by a town or city either |
| to meet the requirements of chapter 53 of title 45 or to meet the requirements of § 45-22.2-10(f), |
| which require that comprehensive plans and the elements thereof be revised to conform with |
| amendments to the state guide plan. |
| (3) “Approved affordable housing plan” means an affordable housing plan that has been |
| reviewed and approved in accordance with § 45-22.2-9. |
| (4) “Moderate-income household” means a single person, family, or unrelated persons |
| living together whose adjusted gross income is more than eighty percent (80%) but less than one |
| hundred twenty percent (120%) of the area median income, adjusted for family size. |
| (5) “Seasonal housing” means housing that is intended to be occupied during limited |
| portions of the year. |
| (6) “Year-round housing” means housing that is intended to be occupied by people as their |
| usual residence and/or vacant units that are intended by their owner for occupancy at all times of |
| the year; occupied rooms or suites of rooms in hotels are year-round housing only when occupied |
| by permanent residents as their usual place of residence. |
| (e) The strategic plan shall be updated and/or amended as necessary, but not less than once |
| every five (5) years. |
| (f) Upon the adoption of the strategic plan as an element of the state guide plan, towns and |
| cities shall bring their comprehensive plans into conformity with its requirements, in accordance |
| with the timetable set forth in § 45-22.2-10(f); provided, however, that any town that has adopted |
| an affordable housing plan in order to comply with the provisions of chapter 53 of title 45, which |
| has been approved for consistency pursuant to § 45-22.2-9, shall be deemed to satisfy the |
| requirements of the strategic plan for low- and moderate-income housing until such time as the |
| town must complete its next required comprehensive community plan update. |
| (g) Guidelines. The executive office of housing shall advise the state planning council and |
| the state planning council, with the approval of the secretary of housing, shall promulgate and adopt |
| no less than every five (5) years, guidelines for higher density development, including, but not |
| limited to: (1) Inclusionary zoning provisions for low- and moderate-income housing with |
| appropriate density bonuses and other subsidies that make the development financially feasible; |
| and (2) Mixed-use development that includes residential development, which guidelines shall take |
| into account infrastructure availability; soil type and land capacity; environmental protection; water |
| supply protection; and agricultural, open space, historical preservation, and community |
| development pattern constraints. |
| (h) The statewide planning program shall maintain a geographic information system map |
| that identifies, to the extent feasible, areas throughout the state suitable for higher density |
| residential development consistent with the guidelines adopted pursuant to subsection (g). |
| (i) Notwithstanding subsection (d)(1) of this section, the secretary of housing is authorized |
| to develop a four-year (4) pilot program sunsetting on December 31, 2029, to explore alternative |
| underwriting criteria to aid in the development of affordable dwelling units for sale to moderate- |
| income households. Alternative underwriting criteria shall be limited to no more than thirty-eight |
| percent (38%) of gross household income. For the purpose of this section, moderate-income |
| households are defined as households earning between one hundred percent (100%) and one |
| hundred twenty percent (120%) area median income, adjusted for Metropolitan Statistical Area |
| (MSA) and household size. Any dwelling unit for sale developed under the pilot program and |
| otherwise meeting the requirements of the definition of low- or moderate-income housing in § 45- |
| 53-3 shall be eligible as low- and moderate-income housing. As part of the annual integrated |
| housing report, as defined in § 42-64.34-1(iv) 42-167-4(4), the secretary of housing shall provide |
| updates on the status of the pilot program and any related outcomes. |
| SECTION 26. Section 42-167.1-2 of the General Laws in Chapter 42-167.1 entitled |
| "Interagency Council on Homelessness" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 42-167.1-2. Establishment of council. |
| (a) There is hereby created a permanent council to be called the “Interagency Council on |
| Homelessness” consisting of seventeen (17) members: |
| (1) One of whom shall be the secretary of housing, or the secretary’s designee, who shall |
| chair the council; |
| (2) One of whom shall be the director of the department of human services, or the director’s |
| designee; |
| (3) One of whom shall be the director of the department of health, or the director’s |
| designee; |
| (4) One of whom shall be the director of the department of children, youth and families, or |
| the director’s designee; |
| (5) One of whom shall be the director of the office of healthy aging, or the director’s |
| designee; |
| (6) One of whom shall be the director of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities |
| and hospitals, or the director’s designee; |
| (7) One of whom shall be director of the department of labor and training, or the director’s |
| designee; |
| (8) One of whom shall be the director of the department of corrections, or the director’s |
| designee; |
| (9) One of whom shall be the commissioner of the department of elementary and secondary |
| education, or the commissioner’s designee; |
| (10) One of whom shall be the executive director of the Rhode Island housing and |
| mortgage finance corporation, or the director’s designee; |
| (11) One of whom shall be the director of the emergency management agency, or the |
| director’s designee; |
| (12) One of whom shall be a representative from the office of veterans services, or their |
| designee; |
| (13) One of whom shall be the public defender, or the public defender’s designee; |
| (14) One of whom shall be the Medicaid director within the executive office of health and |
| human services, or the director’s designee; |
| (15) One of whom shall be the secretary of the executive office of health and human |
| services, or the secretary’s designee; |
| (16) One of whom shall be the chair of the continuum of care created pursuant to Part 578 |
| of Subchapter C of Chapter V of Subtitle B of Title 24 of the Code of Federal Regulations, or the |
| chair’s designee; and |
| (17) One of whom shall be the lieutenant governor, or the lieutenant governor’s designee. |
| (b) Forthwith upon the effective date of this chapter [June 29, 2025], the members of the |
| council shall meet at the call of the chair and organize. Vacancies in the council shall be filled in |
| like manner as the original appointment. A majority of seats filled shall constitute a quorum. |
| (c) The executive office of housing is hereby directed to provide administrative support for |
| the council. |
| (d) All departments and agencies of the state shall furnish advice and information, |
| documentary, and otherwise to the council and its agents as is deemed necessary or desirable by |
| the council to facilitate the purposes of this chapter. |
| SECTION 27. Section 42-167.2-1 of the General Laws in Chapter 42-167.2 entitled |
| "Interagency Council on Housing Production and Preservation" is hereby amended to read as |
| follows: |
| 42-167.2-1. Establishment of the interagency council on housing production and |
| preservation. |
| (a) There is hereby created a permanent council to be called the “Interagency Council on |
| Housing Production and Preservation” consisting of twelve (12) members: |
| (1) One of whom shall be the executive director of the Rhode Island housing and mortgage |
| finance corporation, or the director’s designee; |
| (2) One of whom shall be the director of the department of business regulation, or the |
| director’s designee; |
| (3) One of whom shall be the director of the department of environmental management, or |
| the director’s designee; |
| (4) One of whom shall be the secretary of the executive office of commerce, or the |
| secretary’s designee; |
| (5) One of whom shall be the director of the department of labor and training, or the |
| director’s designee; |
| (6) One of whom shall be the director of the department of health, or the director’s |
| designee; |
| (7) One of whom shall be the director of the office of healthy aging; or the director’s |
| designee; |
| (8) One of whom shall be the director of the office of veterans services, or the director’s |
| designee; |
| (9) One of whom shall be the director of the department of behavioral healthcare, |
| developmental disabilities and hospitals, or the director’s designee; |
| (10) One of whom shall be the executive director of the Rhode Island infrastructure bank, |
| or the executive director’s designee; |
| (11) One of whom shall be the director of the department of administration, or the director’s |
| designee; and |
| (12) One of whom shall be the secretary of the executive office of housing, or the |
| secretary’s designee, who shall be the chair of the council. |
| (b) The council may invite additional entities to participate as necessary in meetings in a |
| non-voting capacity, including but not limited to: |
| (1) The public finance management board; |
| (2) The historical preservation and heritage commission; and |
| (3) The office of postsecondary commissioner. |
| (c) The executive office of housing will provide administrative support to the council. |
| SECTION 28. Sections 44-5-16, 44-5-26 and 44-5-30 of the General Laws in Chapter 44- |
| 5 entitled "Levy and Assessment of Local Taxes" are hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 44-5-16. Oath to account brought in — Remedies after failure to bring in account — |
| Effect on proration. |
| (a) Every person bringing in any account shall make oath before some notary public or |
| other person authorized to administer oaths in the place where the oath is administered that the |
| account by that person exhibited contains, to the best of their knowledge and belief, a true and full |
| account and valuation of all the tangible personal property owned or possessed by them; and |
| whoever neglects or refuses to bring in the account, if overtaxed, shall have no remedy therefor, |
| except as provided in §§ 44-4-14, 44-4-15, 44-5-26 — 44-5-30, 44-5-31 [Repealed], and 44-9-19 |
| — 44-9-24. In case a taxpayer is, because of illness or absence from the state, unable to make the |
| required oath to their account within the time prescribed by law, the taxpayer may, in writing, |
| appoint an agent to make oath to their account within the time prescribed by the assessors, and the |
| agent shall at the time of making the oath append their written appointment to the account, and for |
| all purposes in connection with the account the taxpayer is deemed to have personally made the |
| oath. |
| (b) No taxpayer shall be denied a right of review by means of the procedure described in |
| this chapter of any assessment on their tangible personal property by reason of any claimed |
| inadequacies, inaccuracies, or omissions in their listing of tangible personal property. |
| (c) Notwithstanding § 44-4-24, tangible personal property introduced into or removed from |
| any town or city during a calendar year shall be assessed as though the property was situated in the |
| city or town for the entire calendar year unless the taxpayer has filed an account as provided in this |
| section specifying the date on which the property was introduced or removed. |
| (d) Each city or town having a year of taxable ownership that measures length of ownership |
| over the calendar year beginning immediately after the date of assessment shall adjust its year of |
| taxable ownership so that it has a year of taxable ownership that measures length of ownership over |
| the calendar year ending on the date of assessment. |
| 44-5-26. Petition in superior court for relief from assessment. |
| (a) Any person aggrieved on any ground whatsoever by any assessment of taxes against |
| him or her in any city or town, or any tenant or group of tenants, of real estate paying rent therefrom, |
| and under obligation to pay more than one-half (½) of the taxes thereon, may, on or before |
| November 15 of each year, but not less than ninety (90) days after the first tax payment is due, file |
| an appeal in the local office of tax assessment; provided, if the person to whom a tax on real estate |
| is assessed chooses to file an appeal, the appeal filed by a tenant or group of tenants will be void. |
| For the purposes of this section, the tenant(s) has the burden of proving financial responsibility to |
| pay more than one-half (½) of the taxes. The assessor has until December 31 of that year to review |
| appeals, render decisions, and notify taxpayers of the decisions. The taxpayer, if still aggrieved, |
| after the decision by the tax assessor, or in the event that the assessor does not render a decision by |
| December 31, but not less than forty-five (45) days after the appeal was filed, may appeal to the |
| local tax board of review; provided; however, appeals to the local tax board of review are to be |
| filed not more than thirty (30) days after the assessor renders a decision and notifies the taxpayer |
| thereof, or if the assessor does not render a decision by December 31, not later than January 31 of |
| the next year. The local tax board of review shall, within ninety (90) days of the filing of the appeal, |
| hear the appeal and render a decision within forty-five (45) days of the date of the close of the |
| hearing. |
| (b) Appeals to the local office of tax assessment are to be on an application form which has |
| been approved by the department of revenue in consultation with the Rhode Island League of Cities |
| and Towns. In the event of an appeal to the local tax board of review, the taxpayer or the local |
| office of tax assessment at the request by the taxpayer, shall forward the application form to the |
| local tax board of review within the time period set forth in this section. |
| (c) Said application must include: |
| (1) The applicant’s opinion of value, fair market value, class, and assessed value of said |
| property as of December 31 of the year of the last update or revaluation for real estate and as of |
| December 31 of the tax year for tangible personal property; and |
| (2) For income-producing residential real estate of six (6) units or more, and commercial, |
| industrial, or mixed-use real estate, fifty percent (50%) or more of which real estate was leased, or |
| was available to be leased, in an arm’s length transaction during the prior year, a statement of rental |
| income and related expenses, if any, for said real estate. Said statement of income and expenses |
| shall cover the most recent twelve-month (12) period preceding said December 31 date; provided, |
| however, if such a statement of income and expenses is not yet available for said most recent |
| twelve-month (12) period, the statement of income and expenses covering the next most recent |
| twelve-month (12) period preceding said December 1 31 date shall be provided. |
| (d) Said application form shall provide that the applicant may file a single appeal for |
| multiple parcels of real estate if such parcels are contiguous and used as an aggregate site. |
| (e) Said application form shall also notify applicants that any global extension granted |
| pursuant to subsection (h) of this section will be posted on the department of revenue, division of |
| municipal finance website. |
| (f) Failure to provide such statement of income and expenses shall be grounds for denial |
| of the appeal and such taxpayer shall not have the right to petition for relief in the superior court. |
| (g) If a person has not filed a required account for tangible personal property, or filed an |
| appeal first with the local office of tax assessment and then the local tax board of review, that |
| person shall not have the benefit of the remedy provided in this section and/or in §§ 44-5-27 — 44- |
| 5-30, 44-5-31 [Repealed], unless the tax assessed is illegal in whole or in part; and that person’s |
| remedy is limited to a review of the assessment with respect to the illegal tax. |
| (h) The assessor for any city or town may request and receive from the director of the |
| department of revenue one or more ninety-day (90) global extensions of time (i.e., extensions which |
| include all such appeals pending before the local tax board of review) to the December 31 date |
| referenced in subsection (a) of this section. All such extensions shall be in writing and posted on |
| the department of revenue, division of municipal finance website. |
| (i) In the event that the local tax board of review does not hear a matter within ninety (90) |
| days of the filing of the appeal or, after the close of the hearing does not render a written decision |
| within forty-five (45) days of the date of the close of the hearing and there is no global extension |
| in effect, the city or town may request and receive from the director of the department of revenue |
| one or more extensions of time to either hear the matter and/or render a decision. The local board |
| of review shall notify the taxpayer in the event the director of the department of revenue grants a |
| city or town’s request for an extension to hear the taxpayer’s appeal and/or render a decision |
| thereon. Nothing herein shall prevent the local tax board of review and the taxpayer from mutually |
| agreeing to an extension of time for the matter to be heard and/or decision rendered. |
| (j) Any person still aggrieved on any ground whatsoever by an assessment of taxes against |
| him or her in any city or town may file, within thirty (30) days of the tax board of review’s written |
| decision and notice thereof, or in the event that the board has neither held a hearing nor issued a |
| decision within the above referenced time frames and has not sought and received an extension of |
| time from the director of the department of revenue to do so, a petition in a superior court for the |
| county in which the city or town lies for relief from the assessment. The assessor of taxes of the |
| city or town in office at the time the petition is filed shall be named as a respondent in said action. |
| (k) The petition and accompanying summons/citation shall be served upon the assessors in |
| the manner set forth in rule 4 of the Rhode Island superior court rules of civil procedure governing |
| service of process. |
| (l) A plaintiff may amend a petition filed in the superior court seeking relief from a tax |
| assessment so as to include an appeal of the assessment of the same real estate for tax years |
| subsequent to the tax year which is the subject of said petition but prior to the tax year covered by |
| the next revaluation, statistical revaluation or update. Such amendment must be filed on or before |
| November 15 of the tax year for which the relief is being sought. Said taxpayer shall not be required |
| to first file an appeal with either the local tax assessor or local tax board for such tax years prior to |
| amending said petition. |
| (m) A petitioner may file a single petition for multiple parcels of real estate if those parcels |
| are contiguous and used as an aggregate site. |
| 44-5-30. Judgment on petition. |
| (a) On If on the trial of the petition, either with or without a jury, it appears that the |
| taxpayer’s real estate, tangible personal property, or intangible personal property has been assessed |
| in excess of the provisions of § 44-5-12 or if it appears that the tax assessed is illegal in whole or |
| in part, the court shall give judgment that the sum by which the taxpayer has been so overtaxed, or |
| illegally taxed, with their costs, be deducted from their tax; but if the taxpayer’s tax be paid, whether |
| before or after the filing of the petition, then the court shall give judgment for the petitioner for the |
| sum by which the petitioner has been so overtaxed, or illegally taxed, plus the amount of any |
| penalty paid on the tax, with interest from the date on which the tax and penalty were paid and |
| costs, which judgment shall be paid to the petitioner by the city or town treasurer out of the treasury. |
| (b) If, however, on the trial of the petition related to tangible personal property and/or real |
| estate, either with or without a jury, it appears that as it relates to tangible personal property the |
| taxpayer has failed to file a required account or has fraudulently concealed or omitted any |
| information from their account, or if it appears that the assessors have not assessed either the |
| taxpayer’s tangible personal property or real estate at a value in excess of the provisions of § 44-5- |
| 12, and that the taxpayer has not been illegally taxed, the assessors shall have judgment and |
| execution for their costs. |
| SECTION 29. Section 46-23-6 of the General Laws in Chapter 46-23 entitled "Coastal |
| Resources Management Council" is hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 46-23-6. Powers and duties — Rights-of-way. |
| In order to properly manage coastal resources the council has the following powers and |
| duties: |
| (1) Planning and management. |
| (i) The primary responsibility of the council shall be the continuing planning for and |
| management of the resources of the state’s coastal region. The council shall be able to make any |
| studies of conditions, activities, or problems of the state’s coastal region needed to carry out its |
| responsibilities. |
| (ii) The resources management process shall include the following basic phases: |
| (A) Identify all of the state’s coastal resources, water, submerged land, air space, fin fish, |
| shellfish, minerals, physiographic features, and so forth. |
| (B) Evaluate these resources in terms of their quantity, quality, capability for use, and other |
| key characteristics. |
| (C) Determine the current and potential uses of each resource. |
| (D) Determine the current and potential problems of each resource. |
| (E) Formulate plans and programs for the management of each resource, identifying |
| permitted uses, locations, protection measures, and so forth. |
| (F) Carry out these resources management programs through implementing authority and |
| coordination of state, federal, local, and private activities. |
| (G) Formulation of standards where these do not exist, and reevaluation of existing |
| standards. |
| (H) To develop comprehensive programs for dredging in tidal waters and related beneficial |
| use, disposal, monitoring dewatering and transportation of dredge materials. |
| (I) To accept and administer loans and grants from the federal government and from other |
| sources, public or private, for the carrying out of any of its functions, which loans or grants shall |
| not be expended for other than the purposes for which provided. |
| (J) To encourage, participate in, or conduct studies, investigations, research, and |
| demonstrations relating to dredging, disposal of dredge materials and transportation thereof in the |
| tidal waters of the state as the coastal resources management council may deem advisable and |
| necessary for the discharge of its duties under this chapter. |
| (K) To collect and disseminate information relating to dredging, disposal of dredge |
| materials and transportation thereof within the tidal waters of the state. |
| (L) To work with the appropriate federal and state agencies to develop as provided for in |
| this chapter and in chapter 6.1 of this title, a comprehensive plan for dredging in tidal waters and |
| related beneficial use, disposal, monitoring dewatering and transportation of dredge materials. |
| (M) To apply for, accept and expend grants and bequests of funds, for the purpose of |
| carrying out the lawful responsibilities of the coastal resources management council. |
| (iii) An initial series of resources management activities shall be initiated through this basic |
| process, then each phase shall continuously be recycled and used to modify the council’s resources |
| management programs and keep them current. |
| (iv) Planning and management programs shall be formulated in terms of the characteristics |
| and needs of each resource or group of related resources. However, all plans and programs shall be |
| developed around basic standards and criteria, including: |
| (A) The need and demand for various activities and their impact upon ecological systems. |
| (B) The degree of compatibility of various activities. |
| (C) The capability of coastal resources to support various activities. |
| (D) Water quality standards set by the director of the department of environmental |
| management. |
| (E) Consideration of plans, studies, surveys, inventories, and so forth prepared by other |
| public and private sources. |
| (F) Consideration of contiguous land uses and transportation facilities. |
| (G) Whenever possible consistency with the state guide plan. |
| (v) The council shall prepare, adopt, administer, and cause to be implemented, including |
| specifically through its powers of coordination as set forth in subdivision (3) of this section, a |
| marine resources development plan and such special area management plans as the council may |
| determine to be appropriate or desirable as follows: |
| (A) Marine resources development plan. |
| (I) The purpose of the marine resources development plan shall be to provide an integrated |
| strategy for: (a) improving the health and functionality of Rhode Island’s marine ecosystem; (b) |
| providing for appropriate marine-related economic development; and (c) promoting the use and |
| enjoyment of Rhode Island’s marine resources by the people of the state. |
| (II) The marine resources development plan shall include specific goals and objectives |
| necessary to accomplish its purposes, performance measures to determine progress toward |
| achieving such goals and objectives, and an implementation program. |
| (III) The marine resources development plan shall be prepared in cooperation with the |
| department of environmental management, the statewide planning program, and the commerce |
| corporation, with the involvement of such other state agencies as may be appropriate, and with such |
| technical support as may be necessary and appropriate from the Narragansett Bay Estuary Program, |
| the Coastal Institute at the University of Rhode Island, and Rhode Island Sea Grant. |
| (IV) The plan shall be responsive to the requirements and principles of the federal coastal |
| zone management act as amended, including, but not limited to, the expectations of the act for |
| incorporating the federal Clean Water Act into coastal zone management programs. |
| (V) The marine resources development plan shall take into account local land use |
| management responsibilities as provided for under title 45 and harbor management responsibilities, |
| and the preparation of the plan shall include opportunities for involvement and/or comment by |
| cities and towns. |
| (VI) The marine resources development plan shall be adopted by the council in accordance |
| with the provisions of this subsection by July 1, 2005, shall as appropriate incorporate the |
| recommendations of the Governor’s Narragansett Bay and Watershed Planning Commission, and |
| shall be made consistent with systems level plans as appropriate, in order to effectuate the purposes |
| of systems level planning. The council shall update the marine resources development plan at least |
| once every five (5) years. |
| (VII) The council shall administer its programs, regulations, and implementation activities |
| in a manner consistent with the marine resources development plan. |
| (VIII) The marine resources development plan and any updates thereto shall be adopted as |
| appropriate as elements of the state guide plan pursuant to § 42-11-10. |
| (B) Special area management plans. |
| (I) The council shall adopt such special area management plans as deemed necessary and |
| desirable to provide for the integration and coordination of the protection of natural resources, the |
| promotion of reasonable coastal-dependent economic growth, and the improved protection of life |
| and property in the specific areas designated council as requiring such integrated planning and |
| coordination. |
| (II) The integrated planning and coordination herein specified shall include, but not be |
| limited to, federal agencies, state agencies, boards, commissions, and corporations, including |
| specifically the commerce corporation, and cities and towns, shall utilize to the extent appropriate |
| and feasible the capacities of entities of higher education, including Rhode Island Sea Grant, and |
| shall provide for the participation of advocacy groups, community-based organizations, and private |
| persons. |
| (III) The council shall administer its programs, regulations, and implementation activities |
| in a manner consistent with special area management plans. |
| (IV) Special area management plans and any updates thereto shall be adopted as |
| appropriate as elements of the state guide plan pursuant to § 42-11-10. |
| (2) Implementation. |
| (i) The council is authorized to formulate policies and plans and to adopt regulations |
| necessary to implement its various management programs. With respect to such policies and plans |
| which relate to matters where the coastal resources management council and the department of |
| environmental management have concurrent jurisdiction and upon formulation of the plans and |
| regulations, the council shall, prior to adoption, submit the proposed plans or regulations to the |
| director of the department of environmental management for the director’s review. The director |
| shall review and submit comments to the council within thirty (30) days of submission to the |
| director by the council. The comments of the director shall include findings with regard to the |
| consistency of the policies, plans and/or regulations with the requirements of laws administered by |
| the department. The council shall consider the director’s comments prior to adoption of any such |
| policies, plans or regulations and shall respond in writing to findings of the director with regard to |
| the consistency of said policies, plans and/or regulations with the requirements of laws |
| administered by the department. |
| (ii)(A) The council shall have exclusive jurisdiction below mean high water for all |
| development, operations, and dredging, consistent with the requirements of chapter 6.1 of this title |
| and except as necessary for the department of environmental management to exercise its powers |
| and duties and to fulfill its responsibilities pursuant to §§ 42-17.1-2 and 42-17.1-24, and any |
| person, firm, or governmental agency proposing any development or operation within, above, or |
| beneath the tidal water below the mean high water mark, extending out to the extent of the state’s |
| jurisdiction in the territorial sea, shall be required to demonstrate that its proposal would not: |
| (I) Conflict with any resources management plan or program; |
| (II) Make any area unsuitable for any uses or activities to which it is allocated by a |
| resources management plan or program adopted by the council; or |
| (III) Significantly damage the environment of the coastal region. |
| (B) The council shall be authorized to approve, modify, set conditions for, or reject any |
| such proposal. |
| (iii) The authority of the council over land areas (those areas above the mean high water |
| mark) shall be limited to two hundred feet (200′) from the coastal physiographic feature or to that |
| necessary to carry out effective resources management programs. This shall be limited to the |
| authority to approve, modify, set conditions for, or reject the design, location, construction, |
| alteration, and operation of specified activities or land uses when these are related to a water area |
| under the agency’s jurisdiction, regardless of their actual location. The council’s authority over |
| these land uses and activities shall be limited to situations in which there is a reasonable probability |
| of conflict with a plan or program for resources management or damage to the coastal environment. |
| These uses and activities are: |
| (A) Power generating over forty megawatts (40 MW) and desalination plants. |
| (B) Chemical or petroleum processing, transfer, or storage. |
| (C) Minerals extraction. |
| (D) Shoreline protection facilities and physiographical features, and all directly associated |
| contiguous areas which are necessary to preserve the integrity of the facility and/or features. |
| (E) Coastal wetlands and all directly associated contiguous areas which are necessary to |
| preserve the integrity of the wetlands including any freshwater wetlands located in the vicinity of |
| the coast. The actual determination of freshwater wetlands located in coastal vicinities and under |
| the jurisdiction of the coastal resources management council shall be designated on such maps that |
| are agreed to in writing and made available for public use by the coastal resources management |
| council and the director, department of environmental management, within three (3) months of |
| [August 6, 1996]. The CRMC shall have exclusive jurisdiction over the wetlands areas described |
| in this section notwithstanding any provision of chapter 1, title 2 or any other provision, except as |
| provided in subsection (2)(iv) of this section. Within six (6) months of [August 6, 1996] the council |
| in cooperation with the director shall develop rules and regulations for the management and |
| protection of freshwater wetlands, affected by an aquaculture project, outside of those freshwater |
| wetlands located in the vicinity of the coast and under the exclusive jurisdiction of the director of |
| the department of environmental management. For the purpose of this chapter, a “coastal wetland” |
| means any salt marsh bordering on the tidal waters of this state, whether or not the tidal waters |
| reach the littoral areas through natural or artificial watercourses, and those uplands directly |
| associated and contiguous thereto which are necessary to preserve the integrity of that marsh. |
| Marshes shall include those areas upon which grow one or more of the following: smooth cordgrass |
| (spartina alterniflora), salt meadow grass (spartina patens), spike grass (distichlis spicata), black |
| rush (juncus gerardi), saltworts (salicornia spp.), sea lavender (limonium carolinianum), saltmarsh |
| bulrushes (scirpus spp.), hightide bush (iva frutescens), tall reed (phragmites communis), tall |
| cordgrass (spartina pectinata), broadleaf cattail (typha latifolia), narrowleaf cattail (typha |
| angustifolia), spike rush (eleocharis rostellata), chairmaker’s rush (scirpus amercana), creeping |
| bentgrass (agrostis palustris), sweet grass (hierochloe odorata), and wild rye (etlymus virginicus). |
| (F) Sewage treatment and disposal and solid waste disposal facilities. |
| (G) Beneficial use, dewatering, and disposal of dredged material of marine origins, where |
| such activities take place within two hundred feet (200′) of mean high water or a coastal |
| physiographic feature, or where there is a reasonable probability of conflict with a plan or program |
| for resources management or damage to the coastal environment. |
| (iv) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsections (ii) and (iii) (2)(ii) and (2)(iii) above, |
| the department of environmental management shall maintain jurisdiction over the administration |
| of chapter 1, title 2, including permitting of freshwater wetlands alterations and enforcement, with |
| respect to all agricultural activities undertaken by a farmer, as that term is defined in § 2-1-22(j), |
| wherever located; provided, however, that with respect to activities located partially or completely |
| within two hundred feet (200′) of the coastal physiographic feature, the department shall exercise |
| jurisdiction in consultation with the council. |
| (3) Coordination. The council has the following coordinating powers and duties: |
| (i) Functioning as a binding arbitrator in any matter of dispute involving both the resources |
| of the state’s coastal region and the interests of two (2) or more municipalities or state agencies. |
| (ii) Consulting and coordinating actions with local, state, regional, and federal agencies |
| and private interests. |
| (iii) Conducting or sponsoring coastal research. |
| (iv) Advising the governor, the general assembly, and the public on coastal matters. |
| (v) Serving as the lead state agency and initial and primary point of contact for dredging |
| activities in tidal waters and in that capacity, integrating and coordinating the plans and policies of |
| other state agencies as they pertain to dredging in order to develop comprehensive programs for |
| dredging as required by subparagraph (1)(ii)(H) of this section and chapter 6.1 of this title. The |
| Rhode Island resource recovery corporation prior to purchasing cover material for the state landfill |
| shall first contact the CRMC to see if there is a source of suitable dredged material available which |
| shall be used in place of the purchase cover material. Other state agencies engaged in the process |
| of dump closures shall also contact the CRMC to see if there is a source of suitable dredged material |
| available, which shall be used in place of the purchase cover material. In addition, cities and towns |
| may contact the CRMC prior to closing city or town controlled dump sites to see if there is a source |
| of suitable dredge material available, which may be used in place of the purchase cover material. |
| (vi) Acting as the state’s representative to all bodies public and private on all coastal and |
| aquaculture related matters. |
| (4) Operations. The council is authorized to exercise the following operating functions, |
| which are essential to management of coastal resources: |
| (i) Issue, modify, or deny permits for any work in, above, or beneath the areas under its |
| jurisdiction, including conduct of any form of aquaculture. |
| (ii) Issue, modify, or deny permits for dredging, filling, or any other physical alteration of |
| coastal wetlands and all directly related contiguous areas which are necessary to preserve the |
| integrity of the wetlands, including, but not limited to, the transportation and disposal of dredge |
| materials in the tidal waters. |
| (iii) Grant licenses, permits, and easements for the use of coastal resources which are held |
| in trust by the state for all its citizens, and impose fees for private use of these resources. |
| (iv) Determining the need for and establishing pierhead, bulkhead, and harbor lines. |
| (v) Enforcing and implementing riparian rights in the tidal waters after judicial decisions. |
| (vi) The council may require an owner or operator of a commercial wharf or pier of a |
| marine commercial facility, as defined in 300.3 of the Rhode Island coastal resources management |
| program, but not including those facilities defined in 300.4 of the Rhode Island coastal resources |
| management program, and which is capable of offloading cargo, and is or will be subject to a new |
| use or a significant intensification of an existing use, to demonstrate that the commercial wharf or |
| pier is fit for that purpose. For the purposes of this subsection, a “commercial wharf or pier” means |
| a pier, bulkhead, wharf, docking facility, or underwater utilities. The council may order said owner |
| or operator to provide an engineering certification to the council’s satisfaction that the commercial |
| wharf or pier is fit for the new use or intensification of an existing use. If the council determines |
| that the commercial wharf or pier is not fit, it may order the owner or operator to undertake the |
| necessary work to make the commercial wharf or pier safe, within a reasonable time frame. If the |
| council determines that the commercial wharf or pier, because of its condition, is an immediate |
| threat to public health and safety it may order the commercial wharf or pier closed until the |
| necessary work to make the commercial wharf or pier safe has been performed and approved by |
| the council. All work performed must conform to the council’s management program. The council |
| is also given the authority to develop regulations to carry out this provision and to impose |
| administrative penalties of five thousand dollars ($5,000) per day up to a maximum of twenty |
| thousand dollars ($20,000) consistent with § 46-23-7.1 where there has been a violation of the |
| orders under this provision. |
| (5) Rights-of-way. |
| (i) The council is responsible for the designation of all public rights-of-way to the tidal |
| water areas of the state, and shall carry on a continuing discovery of appropriate public rights-of- |
| way to the tidal water areas of the state. |
| (ii) The council shall maintain a complete file of all official documents relating to the legal |
| status of all public rights-of-way to the tidal water areas of the state. |
| (iii)(A) The council has the power to designate for acquisition and development, and |
| posting, and all other functions of any other department for tidal rights-of-way and land for tidal |
| rights-of-way, parking facilities, and other council related purposes. |
| (B) Further, the council has the power to develop and prescribe a standard sign to be used |
| by the cities and towns to mark designated rights-of-way. |
| (iv) In conjunction with this subdivision, every state department controlling state-owned |
| land close to or adjacent to discovered rights-of-way is authorized to set out the land, or so much |
| of the land that may be deemed necessary for public parking. |
| (v) No use of land for public parking shall conflict with existing or intended use of the land, |
| and no improvement shall be undertaken by any state agency until detailed plans have been |
| submitted to and approved by the governing body of the local municipality. |
| (vi) In designating rights-of-way, the council shall consider the following matters in |
| making its designation: |
| (A) Land evidence records; |
| (B) The exercise of domain over the parcel such as maintenance, construction, or upkeep; |
| (C) The payment of taxes; |
| (D) The creation of a dedication; |
| (E) Public use; |
| (F) Any other public record or historical evidence such as maps and street indexes; |
| (G) Other evidence as set out in § 42-35-10. |
| (vii) A determination by the council that a parcel is a right-of-way shall be decided by |
| substantial evidence. A copy of the final council determination, and all official documents related |
| to the council determination, shall be provided to the municipality in which the right-of-way is |
| located. |
| (viii) Municipalities shall be required to identify and maintain a current list of public rights- |
| of-way to the tidal water areas in their municipality that have been designated by the council in |
| accordance with this section. Municipal identification of the council’s designated public rights-of- |
| way shall also be incorporated and displayed on official maps in accordance with § 45-23.1-1. Non- |
| compliance with this municipal responsibility shall have no effect on the council designation |
| process or final determinations by the council that are set forth in this section. |
| (ix) The council shall be notified whenever by the judgment of the governing body of a |
| coastal municipality, a public right-of-way to tidal water areas located in such municipality has |
| ceased to be useful to the public, and such governing body proposes an order of abandonment of |
| such public right-of-way. Said notice shall be given not less than sixty (60) days prior to the date |
| of such abandonment. |
| (6) Preexisting residential boating facilities. |
| (i) The council is hereby authorized and empowered to issue assent for preexisting |
| residential boating facilities constructed prior to January 1, 1985. These assents may be issued for |
| preexisting residential boating facilities, even though such facilities do not meet current standards |
| and policies of the council; provided, however, that the council finds that such facilities do not pose |
| any significant risk to the coastal resources of the state of Rhode Island and do not endanger human |
| safety. |
| (ii) In addition to the above criteria, the applicant shall provide clear and convincing |
| evidence that: |
| (A) The facility existed in substantially the same configuration as it now exists prior to |
| January 1, 1985; |
| (B) The facility is presently intact and functional; and |
| (C) The facility presents no significant threat to the coastal resources of the state of Rhode |
| Island or human safety. |
| (iii) The applicant, to be eligible for this provision, shall apply no later than January 31, |
| 1999. |
| (iv) The council is directed to develop rules and regulations necessary to implement this |
| subdivision. |
| (v) It is the specific intent of this subsection to require that all preexisting residential |
| boating facilities constructed on January 1, 1985, or thereafter conform to this chapter and the plans, |
| rules and regulations of the council. |
| (7) Lease of filled lands which were formerly tidal lands to riparian or littoral owners. |
| (i) Any littoral or riparian owner in this state who desires to obtain a lease from the state |
| of Rhode Island of any filled lands adjacent to his or her upland shall apply to the council, which |
| may make the lease. Any littoral or riparian owner who wishes to obtain a lease of filled lands must |
| obtain pre-approval, in the form of an assent, from the council. Any lease granted by the council |
| shall continue the public’s interest in the filled lands including, but not limited to, the rights of |
| navigation, fishery, and commerce. The public trust in the lands shall continue and run concurrently |
| with the leasing of the lands by the state to private individuals, corporations, or municipalities. |
| Upon the granting of a lease by the council, those rights consistent with the public trust and secured |
| by the lease shall vest in the lessee. The council may approve a lease of filled lands for an initial |
| term of up to fifty (50) years, with, or without, a single option to renew for an additional term of |
| up to fifty (50) years. |
| (ii) The lessor of the lease, at any time, for cause, may by express act cancel and annul any |
| lease previously made to the riparian owner when it determines that the use of the lands is violating |
| the terms of the lease or is inconsistent with the public trust, and upon cancellation the lands, and |
| rights in the land so leased, shall revert to the state. |
| (8) “Marinas” as defined in the coastal resources management program in effect as of June |
| 1, 1997, are deemed to be one of the uses consistent with the public trust. Subdivision (7) is not |
| applicable to: |
| (i) Any riparian owner on tidal waters in this state (and any successor in interest to the |
| owner) which has an assent issued by the council to use any land under water in front of his or her |
| lands as a marina, which assent was in effect on June 1, 1997; |
| (ii) Any alteration, expansion, or other activity at a marina (and any successor in interest) |
| which has an assent issued by the council, which assent was in effect on June 1, 1997; and |
| (iii) Any renewal of assent to a marina (or successor in interest), which assent was issued |
| by the council and in effect on June 1, 1997. |
| (9) “Recreational boating facilities” including marinas, launching ramps, and recreational |
| mooring areas, as defined by and properly permitted by the council, are deemed to be one of the |
| uses consistent with the public trust. Subdivision (7) is not applicable to: |
| (i) Any riparian owner on tidal waters in this state (and any successor in interest to the |
| owner) which has an assent issued by the council to use any land under water in front of his or her |
| lands as a recreational boating facility; any alteration, expansion or other activity at a recreational |
| boating facility (and any successor in interest) which has an assent issued by the council, which |
| assent was in effect as of June 1, 1997; and |
| (ii) Any renewal of assent to a recreational boating facility (or successor in interest), which |
| assent was issued by the council and in effect on June 1, 1997. |
| ARTICLE III -- EFFECTIVE DATE |
| SECTION 1. Article I of this act shall take effect on December 31, 2026, and Article II of |
| this act shall take effect upon passage. |
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| LC006193 |
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