Chapter 262 |
2017 -- S 0656 SUBSTITUTE A AS AMENDED Enacted 07/19/2017 |
A N A C T |
RELATING TO FOOD AND DRUGS - UNIFORM CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES ACT |
Introduced By: Senators Conley, Coyne, Raptakis, McCaffrey, and Lombardi |
Date Introduced: March 29, 2017 |
It is enacted by the General Assembly as follows: |
SECTION 1. Sections 21-28-1.2 and 21-28-3.32 of the General Laws in Chapter 21-28 |
entitled "Uniform Controlled Substances Act" are hereby amended to read as follows: |
21-28-1.02. Definitions. |
Unless the context otherwise requires, the words and phrases as defined in this section are |
used in this chapter in the sense given them in the following definitions: |
(1) "Administer" refers to the direct application of controlled substances to the body of a |
patient or research subject by: |
(i) A practitioner, or, in his or her presence by his or her authorized agent; or |
(ii) The patient or research subject at the direction and in the presence of the practitioner |
whether the application is by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means. |
(2) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of, or at the direction of, a |
manufacturer, wholesaler, distributor, or dispenser; except that these terms do not include a |
common or contract carrier or warehouse operator, when acting in the usual and lawful course of |
the carrier's or warehouse operator's business. |
(3) "Apothecary" means a registered pharmacist as defined by the laws of this state and, |
where the context requires, the owner of a licensed pharmacy or other place of business where |
controlled substances are compounded or dispensed by a registered pharmacist; and includes |
registered assistant pharmacists as defined by existing law, but nothing in this chapter shall be |
construed as conferring on a person who is not registered as a pharmacist any authority, right, or |
privilege that is not granted to him or her by the pharmacy laws of the state. |
(4) "Automated data processing system" means a system utilizing computer software and |
hardware for the purposes of record keeping. |
(5) "Certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigator" means a certified |
law enforcement officer assigned by their his or her qualified law enforcement agency to |
investigate prescription drug diversion. |
(5)(6) "Computer" means programmable electronic device capable of multi-functions, |
including, but not limited to,: storage, retrieval, and processing of information. |
(6)(7) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance or immediate precursor to a |
schedule under this chapter, whether by transfer from another schedule or otherwise. |
(7)(8) "Controlled substance" means a drug, substance, immediate precursor, or synthetic |
drug in schedules I -- V of this chapter. The term shall not include distilled spirits, wine, or malt |
beverages, as those terms are defined or used in chapter 1 of title 3, nor tobacco. |
(9)(10) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance which that, or the |
container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other |
identifying mark, imprint, number, or device, or any likeness of them, of a manufacturer, |
distributor, or dispenser, other than the person or persons who in fact manufactured, distributed, |
or dispensed the substance and which that thereby falsely purports or is represented to be the |
product of, or to have been distributed by, the other manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser, or |
which substance is falsely purported to be or represented to be one of the controlled substances by |
a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser. |
(10)(9) "CRT" means cathode ray tube used to impose visual information on a screen. |
(10)(11) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer of a |
controlled substance or imitation controlled substance, whether or not there exists an agency |
relationship. |
(11)(12) "Department" means the department of health of this state. |
(12)(13) "Depressant or stimulant drug" means: |
(i) A drug which that contains any quantity of: |
(A) Barbituric acid or derivatives, compounds, mixtures, or preparations of barbituric |
acid; and |
(B) "Barbiturate" or "barbiturates" includes all hypnotic and/or somnifacient drugs, |
whether or not derivatives of barbituric acid, except that this definition shall not include bromides |
and narcotics. |
(ii) A drug which that contains any quantity of: |
(A) Amphetamine or any of its optical isomers; |
(B) Any salt of amphetamine and/or desoxyephedrine or any salt of an optical isomer of |
amphetamine and/or desoxyephedrine, or any compound, mixture, or preparation of them. |
(iii) A drug which that contains any quantity of coca leaves. "Coca leaves" includes |
cocaine, or any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of coca leaves, |
except derivatives of coca leaves, which that do not contain cocaine, ecgonine, or substance from |
which cocaine or ecgonine may be synthesized or made. |
(iv) Any other drug or substance which that contains any quantity of a substance which |
that the attorney general of the United States, or the director of health, after investigation, has |
found to have, or by regulation designates as having, a potential for abuse because of its |
depressant or stimulant effect on the central nervous system. |
(13)(14) "Director" means the director of health. |
(14)(15) "Dispense" means to deliver, distribute, leave with, give away, or dispose of a |
controlled substance to the ultimate user or human research subject by or pursuant to the lawful |
order of a practitioner, including the packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare |
the substance for that delivery. |
(15)(16) "Dispenser" is a practitioner who delivers a controlled substance to the ultimate |
user or human research subject. |
(16)(17) "Distribute" means to deliver (other than by administering or dispensing) a |
controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance and includes actual constructive, or |
attempted transfer. "Distributor" means a person who so delivers a controlled substance or an |
imitation controlled substance. |
(17)(18) "Downtime" means that period of time when a computer is not operable. |
(18)(19) "Drug addicted person" means a person who exhibits a maladaptive pattern of |
behavior resulting from drug use, including one or more of the following: impaired control over |
drug use; compulsive use; and/or continued use despite harm, and craving. |
(19)(20) "Drug Enforcement Administration" means the Drug Enforcement |
Administration United States Department of Justice or its successor. |
(20)(21) "Federal law" means the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control |
Act of 1970, (84 stat. 1236) (see generally 21 U.S.C. § 801 et seq.), and all regulations pertaining |
to that federal act. |
(21)(22) "Hardware" means the fixed component parts of a computer. |
(22)(23) "Hospital" means an institution as defined in chapter 17 of title 23. |
(23)(24) "Imitation controlled substance" means a substance that is not a controlled |
substance, which that by dosage unit, appearance (including color, shape, size, and markings), or |
by representations made, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a |
controlled substance and, which imitation controlled substances contain substances which if |
ingested, could be injurious to the health of a person. In those cases when the appearance of the |
dosage unit is not reasonably sufficient to establish that the substance is an "imitation controlled |
substance" (for example in the case of powder or liquid), the court or authority concerned should |
consider, in addition to all other logically relevant factors, the following factors as related to |
"representations made" in determining whether the substance is an "imitation controlled |
substance": |
(i) Statement made by an owner, possessor, transferor, recipient, or by anyone else in |
control of the substance concerning the nature of the substance, or its use or effect. |
(ii) Statements made by the owner, possessor, or transferor, to the recipient that the |
substance may be resold for substantial profit. |
(iii) Whether the substance is packaged in a manner reasonably similar to packaging of |
illicit controlled substances. |
(iv) Whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or |
demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the |
consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable value of the non-controlled substance. |
(24)(25) "Immediate precursor" means a substance: |
(i) Which That the director of health has found to be and by regulation designated as |
being the principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a |
controlled substance; |
(ii) Which That is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the |
manufacture of those controlled substances; and |
(iii) The control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail, or limit the manufacture of that |
controlled substance. |
(25)(26) "Laboratory" means a laboratory approved by the department of health as proper |
to be entrusted with controlled substances and the use of controlled substances for scientific and |
medical purposes and for the purposes of instruction. |
(27)(29) "Marijuana" means all parts of the plant cannabis sativa L., whether growing or |
not; the seeds of the plant; the resin extracted from any part of the plant; and every compound, |
manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seeds or resin, but shall not |
include the mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil or cake made from the |
seeds of the plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of |
mature stalks, (except the resin extracted from it), fiber, oil or cake, or the sterilized seed from the |
plant which is incapable of germination. |
(28)(27) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, cultivation, |
compounding, or processing of a drug or other substance, including an imitation controlled |
substance, either directly or indirectly or by extraction from substances of natural origin, or |
independently by means of chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical |
synthesis and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling or relabeling of |
its container in conformity with the general laws of this state except by a practitioner as an |
incident to his or her administration or dispensing of the drug or substance in the course of his or |
her professional practice. |
(29)(28) "Manufacturer" means a person who manufactures but does not include an |
apothecary who compounds controlled substances to be sold or dispensed on prescriptions. |
(29)(30) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or |
indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of |
chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis: |
(i) Opium and opiates. |
(ii) A compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiates. |
(iii) A substance (and any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, or preparation of it) |
which that is chemically identical with any of the substances referred to in paragraphs (i) and (ii) |
of this subdivision. |
(iv) Any other substance which that the attorney general of the United States, or his or |
her successor, or the director of health, after investigation, has found to have, and by regulation |
designates as having, a potential for abuse similar to opium and opiates. |
(30)(31) "Official written order" means an order written on a form provided for that |
purpose by the Drug Enforcement Administration under any laws of the United States making |
provision for an official form, if order forms are authorized and required by federal law, and if no |
order form is provided then on an official form provided for that purpose by the director of health. |
(31)(32) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction-forming or addiction- |
sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having |
addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability. |
(32)(33) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species papaver somniferum L., except |
the seeds of the plant. |
(33)(34) "Ounce" means an avoirdupois ounce as applied to solids and semi-solids, and a |
fluid ounce as applied to liquids. |
(34)(35) "Person" means any corporation, association, partnership, or one or more |
individuals. |
(35)(36) "Physical dependence" means a state of adaptation that is manifested by a drug |
class specific withdrawal syndrome that can be produced by abrupt cessation, rapid dose |
reduction, decreasing blood level of the drug, and/or administration of an antagonist. |
(36)(37) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after |
mowing. |
(37)(38) "Practitioner" means: |
(i) A physician, osteopath, dentist, chiropodist, veterinarian, scientific investigator, or |
other person licensed, registered or permitted to distribute, dispense, conduct research with |
respect to or to administer a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research |
in this state. |
(ii) A pharmacy, hospital, or other institution licensed, registered or permitted to |
distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, or to administer a controlled substance in |
the course of professional practice or research in this state. |
(38)(39) "Printout" means a hard copy produced by computer that is readable without the |
aid of any special device. |
(39)(40) "Production" includes the manufacture, planting, cultivation, growing, or |
harvesting of a controlled substance. |
(41) "Qualified law enforcement agency" means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, |
Drug Enforcement Administration, Federal Bureau of Investigation, Office of Inspector General |
of the U.S. Department of Health & Human Services, or the Medicaid Fraud and Patient Abuse |
Unit in the Office of the Attorney General. |
(40)(42) "Researcher" means a person authorized by the director of health to conduct a |
laboratory as defined in this chapter. |
(41)(43) "Sell" includes sale, barter, gift, transfer, or delivery in any manner to another, |
or to offer or agree to do the same. |
(42)(44) "Software" means programs, procedures and storage of required information |
data. |
(43)(45) "Synthetic drugs" means any synthetic cannabinoids or piperazines or any |
synthetic cathinones as provided for in schedule I. |
(44)(46) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance |
for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household, or for administering to |
an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household. |
(45)(47) "Wholesaler" means a person who sells, vends, or distributes at wholesale, or as |
a jobber, broker agent, or distributor, or for resale in any manner in this state any controlled |
substance. |
21-28-3.32. Electronic prescription database. |
(a) The information contained in any prescription-drug-monitoring database maintained |
by the department of health pursuant to § 21-28-3.18 of this chapter shall be disclosed only: |
(1) To a practitioner who certifies that the requested information is for the purpose of |
evaluating the need for, or providing medical treatment to, a current patient to whom the |
practitioner is prescribing or considering prescribing a controlled substance; |
(2) To a pharmacist who certifies that the requested information is for a current client to |
whom the pharmacist is dispensing, or considering dispensing, a controlled substance; |
(3) To an authorized designee of the practitioner and/or pharmacist to consult the |
prescription-drug-monitoring database on the practitioner's and/or pharmacist's behalf, provided |
that: |
(i) The designee so authorized is employed by the same professional practice or |
pharmacy; |
(ii) The practitioner or pharmacist takes reasonable steps to ensure that such designee is |
sufficiently competent in the use of the database; |
(iii) The practitioner or pharmacist remains responsible for ensuring that access to the |
database by the designee is limited to authorized purposes as provided for in subsections (a)(1) |
and (a)(2); |
(iv) The practitioner or pharmacist remains responsible for ensuring access to the |
database by the designee occurs in a manner that protects the confidentiality of information |
obtained from the database and remains responsible for any breach of confidentiality; |
(v) The practitioner or pharmacist terminates the designee's access to the database at the |
termination of the designee's employment; and |
(vi) The ultimate decision as to whether or not to prescribe or dispense a controlled |
substance remains with the practitioner or pharmacist and is reasonably informed by the relevant, |
controlled-substance history information obtained from the database.; |
(4) Pursuant to a valid search warrant based on probable cause to believe a violation of |
federal or state criminal law has occurred and that specified information contained in the database |
would assist in the investigation of the crime; |
(5) By a department employee to a certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion |
investigator of a qualified law enforcement agency for use in an investigation. |
(i) A certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigator shall provide to |
the department the following information in order to receive information from the database: |
(A) The identification credentials assigned by the department; and |
(B) The case number of the investigation. |
(ii) A qualified law enforcement agency shall submit to the department quarterly reports |
of the data received by all certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigators in |
the qualified law enforcement agency, including, without limitation: |
(A) Written verification that the inquiries were part of a lawful prescription drug |
diversion investigation as provided to the department through the case number of the |
investigation; and |
(B) A brief description of each case closed during that quarter for which the qualified law |
enforcement agency used information from the database; and |
(C) The disposition of the investigation. |
(iii) The department shall: |
(A) Create a verification form for use under subsection (5)(ii)(A) of this section; and |
(B) Make the verification form available annually to the qualified law enforcement |
agency. |
(iv) The verification form under subsection (5)(ii)(A) of this section shall be submitted to |
the department within thirty (30) days of receipt of the form by the qualified law enforcement |
agency. |
(v) Failure to submit a verification form under subsection (5)(iv) of this section shall |
result in the immediate suspension of disclosure of information from the database by the |
department to the qualified law enforcement agency and its certified law enforcement prescription |
drug diversion investigators until a determination is made by the department to allow continued |
disclosure. |
(vi) The director shall, beginning January 1, 2018, and annually thereafter, review |
disclosure of information pursuant to subsection (a)(5) of this section. Thereafter, the disclosure |
of information pursuant to subsection (a)(5) of this section shall automatically renew for |
successive one-year terms unless the director provides written notice to: |
(A) The qualified law enforcement agencies; and |
(B) The speaker of the house and the president of the senate, at least sixty (60) days in |
advance of the then-existing term's end, that the department wishes to discontinue providing |
information from the database pursuant to this subsection, the director may reinstitute disclosure |
by providing written notice to the same parties. |
(5)(6) To a patient who requests his or her own prescription information, or the parent or |
legal guardian of a minor child who requests the minor child's prescription information; |
(6)(7) To a health professional regulatory board that documents, in writing, that the |
requested information is necessary for an investigation related to licensure, renewal, or |
disciplinary action involving the applicant, licensee, or registrant to whom the requested |
information pertains; |
(7)(8) To any vendor or contractor with whom the department has contracted, pursuant to |
state purchasing law and regulations in the contracting of vendors, to establish or maintain the |
electronic system of the prescription-drug-monitoring database; |
(8)(9) To public or private entities for statistical, research, or educational purposes, after |
removing the patient and prescriber information that could be used to identify individual patients. |
This shall not include entities receiving a waiver from the institutional review board; or |
(9)(10) To any vendor, agent, contractor, or designee who operates an electronic health |
record or clinical-management system for the purpose of sharing data with practitioners, |
pharmacists, or licensed health care facilities or designees. |
(b) Information stored in the prescription-drug-monitoring database shall include only the |
following: |
(1) Patient's first and last name and/or patient identification number; provided, however, |
the patient's social security number shall not be recorded in whole or in part, patient sex, patient |
date of birth, and patient address; |
(2) Prescribing practitioner's name and Drug Enforcement Administration prescriber- |
information number; |
(3) Prescribing practitioner's office or hospital contact information; |
(4) Prescription name, prescription number, prescription species code, national drug code |
number, prescription dosage, prescription quantity, days' supply, new-refill code, number of |
refills authorized, date the prescription was written, date the prescription was filled, payment |
type; provided, however, no credit card number shall be recorded in whole or in part; and |
(5) The Drug Enforcement Administration pharmacy number of the pharmacy filling the |
prescription. |
(c) The department shall disclose any information relating to a patient maintained in the |
prescription-drug-monitoring database to that patient, at no cost to the patient, within thirty (30) |
business days after the department receives a written request from the patient for the information. |
This information shall include the records maintained by the department pursuant to subsection |
(e). Notwithstanding the above, the department may, at the request of the law-enforcement |
agency, withhold, for up to sixty (60) days following the conclusion of a law-enforcement |
investigation that has been confirmed by the department, the disclosure to the patient that |
information has been obtained pursuant to subdivision subsections (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this |
section. |
(d) A patient may request, from the dispensing pharmacy, correction of any inaccurate |
information contained within the prescription-drug-monitoring database in accordance with the |
procedure specified by § 5-37.3-5(c). |
(e) The department shall, for the period of time that prescription information is |
maintained, maintain records of the information disclosed through the prescription-drug- |
monitoring database, including, but not limited to: |
(1) The identity of each person who requests or receives information from the |
prescription-drug-monitoring database and the organization, if any, the person represents; |
(2) The information released to each person or organization and the basis for its release |
under subsection (a); and |
(3) The dates the information was requested and provided. |
(f) Prescription information contained within the prescription-drug-monitoring database |
shall be removed no later than five (5) years from the date the information is entered into the |
database. Records in existence prior to the enactment of this section shall be removed no later |
than ten (10) years from the date the information is entered into the database. |
(g) The department shall promptly notify any affected individual of an improper |
disclosure of information from the prescription-drug-monitoring database or a breach in the |
security of the prescription-drug-monitoring database that poses a significant risk of disclosure of |
patient information to an unauthorized individual. |
(h) At the time of signing a prescription that is required by the department to be entered |
into the prescription-drug-monitoring database, the prescribing practitioner shall inform the |
patient in writing of the existence of the prescription-drug-monitoring database; the patient's right |
to access his or her own prescription information; and the name and contact information of the |
agency operating the program. |
(i) No person shall access information in the prescription-monitoring-database except to |
the extent and for the purposes authorized by subsection (a). |
(j) In any civil action allowing a violation of this chapter, the court may award damages, |
including punitive damages, and reasonable attorneys' fees and costs to a prevailing plaintiff, and |
injunctive and any other appropriate relief. |
(k) Any pharmacist who, in his or her professional judgment, refuses to fill a prescription |
based on information contained within the prescription-drug-monitoring database shall inform the |
prescribing physician within twenty-four (24) hours. |
(l) All practitioners shall, as a condition of the initial registration or renewal of the |
practitioner's authority to prescribe controlled substances, register with the prescription-drug- |
monitoring database maintained by the department of health. |
(m) The prescription-monitoring program shall be reviewed prior to starting any opioid. |
A prescribing practitioner, or designee as authorized by subsection (a)(3) of this section, shall |
review the prescription-monitoring program prior to refilling or initiating opioid therapy with an |
intrathecal pump. For patients the prescribing practitioner is maintaining on continuous opioid |
therapy for pain for three (3) months or longer, the prescribing practitioner shall review |
information from the prescription-monitoring program at least every three (3) months. |
Documentation of that review shall be noted in the patient's medical record. |
(n) The department shall improve the usefulness and value of the prescription-drug- |
monitoring database program by increasing its analytical functionality, timeliness, and scope, |
such as by: |
(1) Utilizing data from additional data sources as permissible under state and federal |
statutes; |
(2) Analyzing information submitted to the prescription-drug-monitoring database to |
ensure that prescription data collected from dispensing pharmacists is readily accessible for a |
given patient; to identify unusual or aberrant patterns of prescribing, dispensing, or receiving |
controlled substances; and to generate an automatic alert when such patterns arise to automate |
standard reports; and to provide ad hoc reports on a real-time basis on this data as well as other |
data feeds. These reports shall comply with the patient confidentiality requirements of federal and |
state law; |
(3) Developing regulations to ensure that prescription-drug-monitoring analyses are |
updated and disseminated regularly to appropriate officials and that summary reports are provided |
to the general assembly on or before February 1st of each year. Given the intent to decrease the |
number of Rhode Island citizens affected by opioid use, the department shall provide an interim |
report on the status of the directives included herein and any progress made as of October 1, |
2016. In the development of said regulations, the department may include any of the following |
analytical functions, within the boundaries of patient confidentiality rights under state and federal |
law: |
(i) Consolidate raw prescription data collected from dispensing pharmacists into a single |
view of all prescriptions filled for a given patient; |
(ii) Identify unusual or aberrant patterns of prescribing controlled substances, by relevant |
prescriber attributes, and generate an automatic alert when such patterns arise; |
(iii) Identify unusual or aberrant patterns of receiving prescriptions for controlled |
substances, by relevant patient attributes, and generate an automatic alert when such patterns |
arise; |
(iv) Identify unusual or aberrant patterns of dispensing controlled substances, by relevant |
dispenser attributes, and generate an automatic alert when such patterns arise; |
(v) Identify and visually display linkages among prescribers, patients, and dispensers that |
can be used to detect any collusive behaviors; and |
(vi) The department shall apply for federal funding in support of the goals and objectives |
contained in this subsection. |
SECTION 2. This act shall take effect on January 1, 2018 and the amendments hereto |
shall expire on January 1, 2023. |
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LC001229/SUB A |
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