| Chapter 262 |
| 2017 -- S 0656 SUBSTITUTE A AS AMENDED Enacted 07/19/2017 |
| A N A C T |
| RELATING TO FOOD AND DRUGS - UNIFORM CONTROLLED SUBSTANCES ACT |
| Introduced By: Senators Conley, Coyne, Raptakis, McCaffrey, and Lombardi |
| Date Introduced: March 29, 2017 |
| It is enacted by the General Assembly as follows: |
| SECTION 1. Sections 21-28-1.2 and 21-28-3.32 of the General Laws in Chapter 21-28 |
| entitled "Uniform Controlled Substances Act" are hereby amended to read as follows: |
| 21-28-1.02. Definitions. |
| Unless the context otherwise requires, the words and phrases as defined in this section are |
| used in this chapter in the sense given them in the following definitions: |
| (1) "Administer" refers to the direct application of controlled substances to the body of a |
| patient or research subject by: |
| (i) A practitioner, or, in his or her presence by his or her authorized agent; or |
| (ii) The patient or research subject at the direction and in the presence of the practitioner |
| whether the application is by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means. |
| (2) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of, or at the direction of, a |
| manufacturer, wholesaler, distributor, or dispenser; except that these terms do not include a |
| common or contract carrier or warehouse operator, when acting in the usual and lawful course of |
| the carrier's or warehouse operator's business. |
| (3) "Apothecary" means a registered pharmacist as defined by the laws of this state and, |
| where the context requires, the owner of a licensed pharmacy or other place of business where |
| controlled substances are compounded or dispensed by a registered pharmacist; and includes |
| registered assistant pharmacists as defined by existing law, but nothing in this chapter shall be |
| construed as conferring on a person who is not registered as a pharmacist any authority, right, or |
| privilege that is not granted to him or her by the pharmacy laws of the state. |
| (4) "Automated data processing system" means a system utilizing computer software and |
| hardware for the purposes of record keeping. |
| (5) "Certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigator" means a certified |
| law enforcement officer assigned by their his or her qualified law enforcement agency to |
| investigate prescription drug diversion. |
| (5)(6) "Computer" means programmable electronic device capable of multi-functions, |
| including, but not limited to,: storage, retrieval, and processing of information. |
| (6)(7) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance or immediate precursor to a |
| schedule under this chapter, whether by transfer from another schedule or otherwise. |
| (7)(8) "Controlled substance" means a drug, substance, immediate precursor, or synthetic |
| drug in schedules I -- V of this chapter. The term shall not include distilled spirits, wine, or malt |
| beverages, as those terms are defined or used in chapter 1 of title 3, nor tobacco. |
| (9)(10) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance which that, or the |
| container or labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other |
| identifying mark, imprint, number, or device, or any likeness of them, of a manufacturer, |
| distributor, or dispenser, other than the person or persons who in fact manufactured, distributed, |
| or dispensed the substance and which that thereby falsely purports or is represented to be the |
| product of, or to have been distributed by, the other manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser, or |
| which substance is falsely purported to be or represented to be one of the controlled substances by |
| a manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser. |
| (10)(9) "CRT" means cathode ray tube used to impose visual information on a screen. |
| (10)(11) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer of a |
| controlled substance or imitation controlled substance, whether or not there exists an agency |
| relationship. |
| (11)(12) "Department" means the department of health of this state. |
| (12)(13) "Depressant or stimulant drug" means: |
| (i) A drug which that contains any quantity of: |
| (A) Barbituric acid or derivatives, compounds, mixtures, or preparations of barbituric |
| acid; and |
| (B) "Barbiturate" or "barbiturates" includes all hypnotic and/or somnifacient drugs, |
| whether or not derivatives of barbituric acid, except that this definition shall not include bromides |
| and narcotics. |
| (ii) A drug which that contains any quantity of: |
| (A) Amphetamine or any of its optical isomers; |
| (B) Any salt of amphetamine and/or desoxyephedrine or any salt of an optical isomer of |
| amphetamine and/or desoxyephedrine, or any compound, mixture, or preparation of them. |
| (iii) A drug which that contains any quantity of coca leaves. "Coca leaves" includes |
| cocaine, or any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of coca leaves, |
| except derivatives of coca leaves, which that do not contain cocaine, ecgonine, or substance from |
| which cocaine or ecgonine may be synthesized or made. |
| (iv) Any other drug or substance which that contains any quantity of a substance which |
| that the attorney general of the United States, or the director of health, after investigation, has |
| found to have, or by regulation designates as having, a potential for abuse because of its |
| depressant or stimulant effect on the central nervous system. |
| (13)(14) "Director" means the director of health. |
| (14)(15) "Dispense" means to deliver, distribute, leave with, give away, or dispose of a |
| controlled substance to the ultimate user or human research subject by or pursuant to the lawful |
| order of a practitioner, including the packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare |
| the substance for that delivery. |
| (15)(16) "Dispenser" is a practitioner who delivers a controlled substance to the ultimate |
| user or human research subject. |
| (16)(17) "Distribute" means to deliver (other than by administering or dispensing) a |
| controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance and includes actual constructive, or |
| attempted transfer. "Distributor" means a person who so delivers a controlled substance or an |
| imitation controlled substance. |
| (17)(18) "Downtime" means that period of time when a computer is not operable. |
| (18)(19) "Drug addicted person" means a person who exhibits a maladaptive pattern of |
| behavior resulting from drug use, including one or more of the following: impaired control over |
| drug use; compulsive use; and/or continued use despite harm, and craving. |
| (19)(20) "Drug Enforcement Administration" means the Drug Enforcement |
| Administration United States Department of Justice or its successor. |
| (20)(21) "Federal law" means the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control |
| Act of 1970, (84 stat. 1236) (see generally 21 U.S.C. § 801 et seq.), and all regulations pertaining |
| to that federal act. |
| (21)(22) "Hardware" means the fixed component parts of a computer. |
| (22)(23) "Hospital" means an institution as defined in chapter 17 of title 23. |
| (23)(24) "Imitation controlled substance" means a substance that is not a controlled |
| substance, which that by dosage unit, appearance (including color, shape, size, and markings), or |
| by representations made, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a |
| controlled substance and, which imitation controlled substances contain substances which if |
| ingested, could be injurious to the health of a person. In those cases when the appearance of the |
| dosage unit is not reasonably sufficient to establish that the substance is an "imitation controlled |
| substance" (for example in the case of powder or liquid), the court or authority concerned should |
| consider, in addition to all other logically relevant factors, the following factors as related to |
| "representations made" in determining whether the substance is an "imitation controlled |
| substance": |
| (i) Statement made by an owner, possessor, transferor, recipient, or by anyone else in |
| control of the substance concerning the nature of the substance, or its use or effect. |
| (ii) Statements made by the owner, possessor, or transferor, to the recipient that the |
| substance may be resold for substantial profit. |
| (iii) Whether the substance is packaged in a manner reasonably similar to packaging of |
| illicit controlled substances. |
| (iv) Whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or |
| demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the |
| consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable value of the non-controlled substance. |
| (24)(25) "Immediate precursor" means a substance: |
| (i) Which That the director of health has found to be and by regulation designated as |
| being the principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a |
| controlled substance; |
| (ii) Which That is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the |
| manufacture of those controlled substances; and |
| (iii) The control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail, or limit the manufacture of that |
| controlled substance. |
| (25)(26) "Laboratory" means a laboratory approved by the department of health as proper |
| to be entrusted with controlled substances and the use of controlled substances for scientific and |
| medical purposes and for the purposes of instruction. |
| (27)(29) "Marijuana" means all parts of the plant cannabis sativa L., whether growing or |
| not; the seeds of the plant; the resin extracted from any part of the plant; and every compound, |
| manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seeds or resin, but shall not |
| include the mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil or cake made from the |
| seeds of the plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of |
| mature stalks, (except the resin extracted from it), fiber, oil or cake, or the sterilized seed from the |
| plant which is incapable of germination. |
| (28)(27) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, cultivation, |
| compounding, or processing of a drug or other substance, including an imitation controlled |
| substance, either directly or indirectly or by extraction from substances of natural origin, or |
| independently by means of chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical |
| synthesis and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling or relabeling of |
| its container in conformity with the general laws of this state except by a practitioner as an |
| incident to his or her administration or dispensing of the drug or substance in the course of his or |
| her professional practice. |
| (29)(28) "Manufacturer" means a person who manufactures but does not include an |
| apothecary who compounds controlled substances to be sold or dispensed on prescriptions. |
| (29)(30) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or |
| indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of |
| chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis: |
| (i) Opium and opiates. |
| (ii) A compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiates. |
| (iii) A substance (and any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, or preparation of it) |
| which that is chemically identical with any of the substances referred to in paragraphs (i) and (ii) |
| of this subdivision. |
| (iv) Any other substance which that the attorney general of the United States, or his or |
| her successor, or the director of health, after investigation, has found to have, and by regulation |
| designates as having, a potential for abuse similar to opium and opiates. |
| (30)(31) "Official written order" means an order written on a form provided for that |
| purpose by the Drug Enforcement Administration under any laws of the United States making |
| provision for an official form, if order forms are authorized and required by federal law, and if no |
| order form is provided then on an official form provided for that purpose by the director of health. |
| (31)(32) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction-forming or addiction- |
| sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having |
| addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability. |
| (32)(33) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species papaver somniferum L., except |
| the seeds of the plant. |
| (33)(34) "Ounce" means an avoirdupois ounce as applied to solids and semi-solids, and a |
| fluid ounce as applied to liquids. |
| (34)(35) "Person" means any corporation, association, partnership, or one or more |
| individuals. |
| (35)(36) "Physical dependence" means a state of adaptation that is manifested by a drug |
| class specific withdrawal syndrome that can be produced by abrupt cessation, rapid dose |
| reduction, decreasing blood level of the drug, and/or administration of an antagonist. |
| (36)(37) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after |
| mowing. |
| (37)(38) "Practitioner" means: |
| (i) A physician, osteopath, dentist, chiropodist, veterinarian, scientific investigator, or |
| other person licensed, registered or permitted to distribute, dispense, conduct research with |
| respect to or to administer a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research |
| in this state. |
| (ii) A pharmacy, hospital, or other institution licensed, registered or permitted to |
| distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, or to administer a controlled substance in |
| the course of professional practice or research in this state. |
| (38)(39) "Printout" means a hard copy produced by computer that is readable without the |
| aid of any special device. |
| (39)(40) "Production" includes the manufacture, planting, cultivation, growing, or |
| harvesting of a controlled substance. |
| (41) "Qualified law enforcement agency" means the U.S. Food and Drug Administration, |
| Drug Enforcement Administration, Federal Bureau of Investigation, Office of Inspector General |
| of the U.S. Department of Health & Human Services, or the Medicaid Fraud and Patient Abuse |
| Unit in the Office of the Attorney General. |
| (40)(42) "Researcher" means a person authorized by the director of health to conduct a |
| laboratory as defined in this chapter. |
| (41)(43) "Sell" includes sale, barter, gift, transfer, or delivery in any manner to another, |
| or to offer or agree to do the same. |
| (42)(44) "Software" means programs, procedures and storage of required information |
| data. |
| (43)(45) "Synthetic drugs" means any synthetic cannabinoids or piperazines or any |
| synthetic cathinones as provided for in schedule I. |
| (44)(46) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance |
| for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household, or for administering to |
| an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household. |
| (45)(47) "Wholesaler" means a person who sells, vends, or distributes at wholesale, or as |
| a jobber, broker agent, or distributor, or for resale in any manner in this state any controlled |
| substance. |
| 21-28-3.32. Electronic prescription database. |
| (a) The information contained in any prescription-drug-monitoring database maintained |
| by the department of health pursuant to § 21-28-3.18 of this chapter shall be disclosed only: |
| (1) To a practitioner who certifies that the requested information is for the purpose of |
| evaluating the need for, or providing medical treatment to, a current patient to whom the |
| practitioner is prescribing or considering prescribing a controlled substance; |
| (2) To a pharmacist who certifies that the requested information is for a current client to |
| whom the pharmacist is dispensing, or considering dispensing, a controlled substance; |
| (3) To an authorized designee of the practitioner and/or pharmacist to consult the |
| prescription-drug-monitoring database on the practitioner's and/or pharmacist's behalf, provided |
| that: |
| (i) The designee so authorized is employed by the same professional practice or |
| pharmacy; |
| (ii) The practitioner or pharmacist takes reasonable steps to ensure that such designee is |
| sufficiently competent in the use of the database; |
| (iii) The practitioner or pharmacist remains responsible for ensuring that access to the |
| database by the designee is limited to authorized purposes as provided for in subsections (a)(1) |
| and (a)(2); |
| (iv) The practitioner or pharmacist remains responsible for ensuring access to the |
| database by the designee occurs in a manner that protects the confidentiality of information |
| obtained from the database and remains responsible for any breach of confidentiality; |
| (v) The practitioner or pharmacist terminates the designee's access to the database at the |
| termination of the designee's employment; and |
| (vi) The ultimate decision as to whether or not to prescribe or dispense a controlled |
| substance remains with the practitioner or pharmacist and is reasonably informed by the relevant, |
| controlled-substance history information obtained from the database.; |
| (4) Pursuant to a valid search warrant based on probable cause to believe a violation of |
| federal or state criminal law has occurred and that specified information contained in the database |
| would assist in the investigation of the crime; |
| (5) By a department employee to a certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion |
| investigator of a qualified law enforcement agency for use in an investigation. |
| (i) A certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigator shall provide to |
| the department the following information in order to receive information from the database: |
| (A) The identification credentials assigned by the department; and |
| (B) The case number of the investigation. |
| (ii) A qualified law enforcement agency shall submit to the department quarterly reports |
| of the data received by all certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigators in |
| the qualified law enforcement agency, including, without limitation: |
| (A) Written verification that the inquiries were part of a lawful prescription drug |
| diversion investigation as provided to the department through the case number of the |
| investigation; and |
| (B) A brief description of each case closed during that quarter for which the qualified law |
| enforcement agency used information from the database; and |
| (C) The disposition of the investigation. |
| (iii) The department shall: |
| (A) Create a verification form for use under subsection (5)(ii)(A) of this section; and |
| (B) Make the verification form available annually to the qualified law enforcement |
| agency. |
| (iv) The verification form under subsection (5)(ii)(A) of this section shall be submitted to |
| the department within thirty (30) days of receipt of the form by the qualified law enforcement |
| agency. |
| (v) Failure to submit a verification form under subsection (5)(iv) of this section shall |
| result in the immediate suspension of disclosure of information from the database by the |
| department to the qualified law enforcement agency and its certified law enforcement prescription |
| drug diversion investigators until a determination is made by the department to allow continued |
| disclosure. |
| (vi) The director shall, beginning January 1, 2018, and annually thereafter, review |
| disclosure of information pursuant to subsection (a)(5) of this section. Thereafter, the disclosure |
| of information pursuant to subsection (a)(5) of this section shall automatically renew for |
| successive one-year terms unless the director provides written notice to: |
| (A) The qualified law enforcement agencies; and |
| (B) The speaker of the house and the president of the senate, at least sixty (60) days in |
| advance of the then-existing term's end, that the department wishes to discontinue providing |
| information from the database pursuant to this subsection, the director may reinstitute disclosure |
| by providing written notice to the same parties. |
| (5)(6) To a patient who requests his or her own prescription information, or the parent or |
| legal guardian of a minor child who requests the minor child's prescription information; |
| (6)(7) To a health professional regulatory board that documents, in writing, that the |
| requested information is necessary for an investigation related to licensure, renewal, or |
| disciplinary action involving the applicant, licensee, or registrant to whom the requested |
| information pertains; |
| (7)(8) To any vendor or contractor with whom the department has contracted, pursuant to |
| state purchasing law and regulations in the contracting of vendors, to establish or maintain the |
| electronic system of the prescription-drug-monitoring database; |
| (8)(9) To public or private entities for statistical, research, or educational purposes, after |
| removing the patient and prescriber information that could be used to identify individual patients. |
| This shall not include entities receiving a waiver from the institutional review board; or |
| (9)(10) To any vendor, agent, contractor, or designee who operates an electronic health |
| record or clinical-management system for the purpose of sharing data with practitioners, |
| pharmacists, or licensed health care facilities or designees. |
| (b) Information stored in the prescription-drug-monitoring database shall include only the |
| following: |
| (1) Patient's first and last name and/or patient identification number; provided, however, |
| the patient's social security number shall not be recorded in whole or in part, patient sex, patient |
| date of birth, and patient address; |
| (2) Prescribing practitioner's name and Drug Enforcement Administration prescriber- |
| information number; |
| (3) Prescribing practitioner's office or hospital contact information; |
| (4) Prescription name, prescription number, prescription species code, national drug code |
| number, prescription dosage, prescription quantity, days' supply, new-refill code, number of |
| refills authorized, date the prescription was written, date the prescription was filled, payment |
| type; provided, however, no credit card number shall be recorded in whole or in part; and |
| (5) The Drug Enforcement Administration pharmacy number of the pharmacy filling the |
| prescription. |
| (c) The department shall disclose any information relating to a patient maintained in the |
| prescription-drug-monitoring database to that patient, at no cost to the patient, within thirty (30) |
| business days after the department receives a written request from the patient for the information. |
| This information shall include the records maintained by the department pursuant to subsection |
| (e). Notwithstanding the above, the department may, at the request of the law-enforcement |
| agency, withhold, for up to sixty (60) days following the conclusion of a law-enforcement |
| investigation that has been confirmed by the department, the disclosure to the patient that |
| information has been obtained pursuant to subdivision subsections (a)(4) and (a)(5) of this |
| section. |
| (d) A patient may request, from the dispensing pharmacy, correction of any inaccurate |
| information contained within the prescription-drug-monitoring database in accordance with the |
| procedure specified by § 5-37.3-5(c). |
| (e) The department shall, for the period of time that prescription information is |
| maintained, maintain records of the information disclosed through the prescription-drug- |
| monitoring database, including, but not limited to: |
| (1) The identity of each person who requests or receives information from the |
| prescription-drug-monitoring database and the organization, if any, the person represents; |
| (2) The information released to each person or organization and the basis for its release |
| under subsection (a); and |
| (3) The dates the information was requested and provided. |
| (f) Prescription information contained within the prescription-drug-monitoring database |
| shall be removed no later than five (5) years from the date the information is entered into the |
| database. Records in existence prior to the enactment of this section shall be removed no later |
| than ten (10) years from the date the information is entered into the database. |
| (g) The department shall promptly notify any affected individual of an improper |
| disclosure of information from the prescription-drug-monitoring database or a breach in the |
| security of the prescription-drug-monitoring database that poses a significant risk of disclosure of |
| patient information to an unauthorized individual. |
| (h) At the time of signing a prescription that is required by the department to be entered |
| into the prescription-drug-monitoring database, the prescribing practitioner shall inform the |
| patient in writing of the existence of the prescription-drug-monitoring database; the patient's right |
| to access his or her own prescription information; and the name and contact information of the |
| agency operating the program. |
| (i) No person shall access information in the prescription-monitoring-database except to |
| the extent and for the purposes authorized by subsection (a). |
| (j) In any civil action allowing a violation of this chapter, the court may award damages, |
| including punitive damages, and reasonable attorneys' fees and costs to a prevailing plaintiff, and |
| injunctive and any other appropriate relief. |
| (k) Any pharmacist who, in his or her professional judgment, refuses to fill a prescription |
| based on information contained within the prescription-drug-monitoring database shall inform the |
| prescribing physician within twenty-four (24) hours. |
| (l) All practitioners shall, as a condition of the initial registration or renewal of the |
| practitioner's authority to prescribe controlled substances, register with the prescription-drug- |
| monitoring database maintained by the department of health. |
| (m) The prescription-monitoring program shall be reviewed prior to starting any opioid. |
| A prescribing practitioner, or designee as authorized by subsection (a)(3) of this section, shall |
| review the prescription-monitoring program prior to refilling or initiating opioid therapy with an |
| intrathecal pump. For patients the prescribing practitioner is maintaining on continuous opioid |
| therapy for pain for three (3) months or longer, the prescribing practitioner shall review |
| information from the prescription-monitoring program at least every three (3) months. |
| Documentation of that review shall be noted in the patient's medical record. |
| (n) The department shall improve the usefulness and value of the prescription-drug- |
| monitoring database program by increasing its analytical functionality, timeliness, and scope, |
| such as by: |
| (1) Utilizing data from additional data sources as permissible under state and federal |
| statutes; |
| (2) Analyzing information submitted to the prescription-drug-monitoring database to |
| ensure that prescription data collected from dispensing pharmacists is readily accessible for a |
| given patient; to identify unusual or aberrant patterns of prescribing, dispensing, or receiving |
| controlled substances; and to generate an automatic alert when such patterns arise to automate |
| standard reports; and to provide ad hoc reports on a real-time basis on this data as well as other |
| data feeds. These reports shall comply with the patient confidentiality requirements of federal and |
| state law; |
| (3) Developing regulations to ensure that prescription-drug-monitoring analyses are |
| updated and disseminated regularly to appropriate officials and that summary reports are provided |
| to the general assembly on or before February 1st of each year. Given the intent to decrease the |
| number of Rhode Island citizens affected by opioid use, the department shall provide an interim |
| report on the status of the directives included herein and any progress made as of October 1, |
| 2016. In the development of said regulations, the department may include any of the following |
| analytical functions, within the boundaries of patient confidentiality rights under state and federal |
| law: |
| (i) Consolidate raw prescription data collected from dispensing pharmacists into a single |
| view of all prescriptions filled for a given patient; |
| (ii) Identify unusual or aberrant patterns of prescribing controlled substances, by relevant |
| prescriber attributes, and generate an automatic alert when such patterns arise; |
| (iii) Identify unusual or aberrant patterns of receiving prescriptions for controlled |
| substances, by relevant patient attributes, and generate an automatic alert when such patterns |
| arise; |
| (iv) Identify unusual or aberrant patterns of dispensing controlled substances, by relevant |
| dispenser attributes, and generate an automatic alert when such patterns arise; |
| (v) Identify and visually display linkages among prescribers, patients, and dispensers that |
| can be used to detect any collusive behaviors; and |
| (vi) The department shall apply for federal funding in support of the goals and objectives |
| contained in this subsection. |
| SECTION 2. This act shall take effect on January 1, 2018 and the amendments hereto |
| shall expire on January 1, 2023. |
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