2018 Annual Report

 

 

 

1)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

2-6-7

167 and 242

 

 

2-6-7. Duties and authority of the director of the department of environmental

management.

     (a) The duty of enforcing this chapter and carrying out its provisions and requirements is

vested in the director of the department of environmental management. It is the duty of that

officer, who may act through his or her authorized agents:

     (1) To sample, inspect, make analysis of, and test agricultural and vegetable seeds

transported, sold, or offered or exposed for sale within the state for sowing purposes, at any time

and place and to any extent as he or she may deem necessary to determine whether those

agricultural or vegetable seeds are in compliance with the provisions of this chapter; to notify

promptly the person who transported, sold, offered, or exposed the seed for sale, of any violation;

     (2) To prescribe and, after a public hearing following public notice, to adopt rules and

regulations governing the method of sampling, inspecting, analyzing, testing, and examining

agricultural and vegetable seed and the tolerances to be followed in the administration of this

chapter, which shall be in general accord with officially prescribed practice in interstate

commerce and any other rules and regulations that may be necessary to secure efficient

enforcement of this chapter;

     (3) To prescribe and, after a public hearing following public notice, establish, add to, or

subtract from by regulations a prohibited and restricted noxious weed list; and

     (4) To prescribe and, after a public hearing following public notice, to adopt rules and

regulations establishing reasonable standards of germination for vegetable seeds.

     (b) For the purpose of carrying out the provisions of this chapter, the director,

individually or through his or her authorized agents, is authorized:

     (1) To enter upon any public or private premises during regular business hours in order to

have access to seeds and the records connected with the premises subject to this chapter and rules

and regulations under this chapter, and any truck or other conveyor by land, water, or air at any

time when the conveyor is accessible, for the same purpose;

     (2) To issue and enforce a written or printed "stop sale" order to the owner or custodian

of any lot of agricultural or vegetable seed that the director finds is in violation of any of the

provisions of this chapter or rules and regulations promulgated under this chapter. That order

shall prohibit further sale, processing, and movement of the seed, except on approval of the

director, until the director has evidence that the law has been complied with and the director has

issued a release from the "stop sale" order of the seed; provided, that in respect to seed that has

been denied sale, processing, and movement as provided in this paragraph, the owner or

custodian of the seed has the right to appeal from the order to a court of competent jurisdiction in

the locality in which the seeds are found, praying for a judgment as to the justification of the

order and for the discharge of the seeds from the order prohibiting the sale, processing, and

movement in accordance with the findings of the court. The provisions of this paragraph shall not

be construed as limiting the right of the director to proceed as authorized by other sections of this

chapter;

     (3) To establish and maintain or make provisions for seed-testing facilities,; to employ

qualified persons,; and to incur any expenses that may be necessary to comply with these

provisions;

     (4) To make or provide for making purity and germination tests of seed for farmers and

dealers on request; to prescribe rules and regulations governing that testing; and to fix and collect

charges for the tests made. Fees shall be accounted for in any manner that the state legislature

may prescribe; and

     (5) To cooperate with the United States Department of Agriculture and other agencies in

seed law enforcement.

     (c) Jurisdiction in all matters pertaining to the cultivation, harvesting, production,

processing, certification, labeling, inspection, analyzing, testing, sampling, classification,

designation, advertising, marketing, sale, storage, transportation, distribution, possession,

notification of use, planting, and other use of agricultural and vegetable seeds is, by this chapter,

vested exclusively in the director, to the exclusion of all local ordinances or regulations.

     (1) All acts or parts of acts, whether general, special, or local, inconsistent with this

section are expressly repealed, declared to be invalid, and of no effect.


 

2)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

2-6-10

167 and 242

 

 

2-6-10. Violations and prosecutions.

     (a) Every violation of the provisions of this chapter shall be deemed a misdemeanor civil

violation punishable by a fine not exceeding one hundred dollars ($100) for the first offense and

not exceeding two hundred fifty dollars ($250) for each subsequent similar offense.

     (b) When the director finds that any person has violated any of the provisions of this

chapter, the director shall file with the attorney general, with a view of prosecution, any evidence

that may be deemed necessary. No prosecution under this chapter shall be instituted without the

defendant individual first having been given an opportunity to appear before the director or his or

her duly authorized agent, to introduce evidence either in person or by agent or attorney at a

private hearing. If, after the hearing, or without the hearing in case the defendant individual or his

or her agent or attorney fails or refuses to appear, the director is of the opinion that the evidence

warrants prosecution, the director shall proceed as provided in this section.

     (c) It is the duty of the attorney general director to institute proceedings at once against

any person charged with a violation of this chapter, if, in the judgment of the attorney general

director, the information submitted warrants that action.

     (d) After judgment by the court in any case arising under this chapter, the director shall

publish any information pertinent to the issuance of the judgment by the court in any media as the director may designate from time to time.


 

3)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

3-5-18

176 and 289

 

 

3-5-18. Signature on licenses � Posting and exhibition. 

     (a) All retail licenses issued under chapter 7 of this title shall bear the signature written by

hand, or electronic signature, of the clerk of the licensing board, body, or officials issuing them,

and shall not be printed, stamped, typewritten, engraved, photographed, or cut from one

instrument and attached to another and shall be displayed by the licensee, on the premises, and

shall be exhibited on demand to any deputy sheriff, to any city or town sergeant, constable,

officer or member of the city or town police or to any member of the department of state police or

agent of the department.

     (b) All retail licenses shall be displayed within the premises but need not be posted. The

license shall be exhibited to any deputy sheriff of the county, to any city or town sergeant,

constable, officer or member of the city or town police or to any member of the department of

state police or agent of the department who request proof that the establishment is duly licensed. 


 

4)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

3-6-1

176 and 289

 

 

3-6-1. Manufacturer's license. 

     (a) A manufacturer's license authorizes the holder to establish and operate a brewery,

distillery, or winery at the place described in the license for the manufacture of beverages within

this state. The license does not authorize more than one of the activities of operator of a brewery

or distillery or winery and a separate license shall be required for each plant.

     (b) The license also authorizes the sale at wholesale, at the licensed place by the

manufacturer of the product of the licensed plant, to another license holder and the transportation

and delivery from the place of sale to a licensed place or to a common carrier for that delivery.

The license does authorize the sale of beverages for consumption on premises where sold;

provided that the manufacturer does not sell an amount in excess of thirty-six ounces (36 oz.) of

malt beverage or four and one-half ounces (4.5 oz.) of distilled spirits per visitor, per day, or a

combination not greater than three (3) drinks where a drink is defined as twelve ounces (12 oz.)

of beer or one and one-half ounces (1.5 oz.) of spirits, for consumption on the premises. The

license also authorizes the sale of beverages produced on the premises in an amount not in excess

of two hundred eighty-eight ounces (288 oz.) of malt beverages, or seven hundred fifty milliliters

(750 ml) of distilled spirits per visitor, per day, to be sold in containers that may hold no more

than seventy-two ounces (72 oz.) each. These beverages may be sold to the consumers for off-

premises consumption, and shall be sold pursuant to the laws governing retail Class A

establishments. The containers for the sale of beverages for off-premises consumption shall be

sealed. The license does not authorize the sale of beverages in this state for delivery outside this

state in violation of the law of the place of delivery. The license holder may provide to visitors, in

conjunction with a tour and/or tasting, samples, clearly marked as samples, not to exceed three

hundred seventy-five milliliters (375 ml) per visitor for distilled spirits and seventy-two ounces

(72 oz.) per visitor for malt beverages at the licensed plant by the manufacturer of the product of

the licensed plant to visitors for off-premises consumption. The license does not authorize

providing samples to a visitor of any alcoholic beverages for off-premises consumption that are

not manufactured at the licensed plant.

     (c) The annual fee for the license is three thousand dollars ($3,000) for a distillery

producing more than fifty thousand (50,000) gallons per year and five hundred dollars ($500) for

a distillery producing less than or equal to fifty thousand (50,000) gallons per year; five hundred

dollars ($500) for a brewery; and one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500) for a winery

producing more than fifty thousand (50,000) gallons per year and five hundred dollars ($500) per

year for a winery producing less than fifty thousand (50,000) gallons per year. All those fees are

prorated to the year ending December 1 in every calendar year and shall be paid to the division of

taxation and be turned over to the general treasurer for the use of the state.


 

 5)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

3-6-1.2

176 and 289

 

 

3-6-1.2. Brewpub manufacturer's license. 

     (a) A brewpub manufacturer's license shall authorize the holder to establish and operate a

brewpub within this state. The brewpub manufacturer's license shall authorize the retail sale of

the beverages manufactured on the location for consumption on the premises. The license shall

not authorize the retail sale of beverages from any location other than the location set forth in the

license. A brewpub may sell at retail alcoholic beverages produced on the premises by the half-

gallon bottle known as a "growler" to consumers for off the premises consumption to be sold

pursuant to the laws governing retail Class A establishments.

     (b) The license shall also authorize the sale at wholesale at the licensed place by the

manufacturer of the product of his or her licensed plant as well as beverages produced for the

brewpub and sold under the brewpub's name to a holder of a wholesaler's license and the

transportation and delivery from the place of sale to the licensed wholesaler or to a common

carrier for that delivery.

     (c) The brewpub manufacturer's license further authorizes the sale of beverages

manufactured on the premises to any person holding a valid wholesaler's and importer's license

under � 3-6-9 or 3-6-11.

     (d) The annual fee for the license is one thousand dollars ($1,000) for a brewpub

producing more than fifty thousand (50,000) gallons per year and five hundred dollars ($500) per

year for a brewpub producing less than fifty thousand (50,000) gallons per year. The annual fee is

prorated to the year ending December 1 in every calendar year and paid to the division of taxation

and turned over to the general treasurer for the use of the state. 


 

6)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers

 

3-6-3

176 and 289

 

 

3-6-3. Rectifier's license. 

     The department is authorized to issue rectifiers' licenses in accordance with the

provisions of �� 3-6-4 � 3-6-8. The fee provided shall be prorated to the year ending December 1

in every calendar year and be paid to the division of taxation and turned over to the general

treasurer for the use of the state. 


 

7)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

3-6-7

121 and 226

 

 

3-6-7. Annual rectifier's license fee.

     The annual fee for a rectifier's license is three thousand dollars ($3,000) five hundred

dollars ($500). The fee is prorated to the year ending December 1 in each calendar year.


  

8)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

3-6-9

176 and 289

 

 

3-6-9. Wholesaler's license � Class A. 

     A wholesaler's license, Class A, authorizes the holder to keep for sale and to sell malt

beverages and wines at wholesale at the place described to holders of licenses under this title

within this state and to holders of wholesale licenses in other states and the transportation and

delivery from the place of sale to those license holders or to a common carrier for that delivery.

Sales by a wholesaler in this state to a holder of a wholesale license in another state shall be only

to a wholesaler who is a distributor of the same brand of malt beverages or wines subject to

permission by the department. The license shall not authorize the sale of malt beverages or wines

for consumption on the premises where sold nor their sale for their delivery outside this state in

violation of the law of the place of delivery. The annual fee for the license is two thousand dollars

($2,000) prorated to the year ending December 1 in every calendar year, and shall be paid to the

division of taxation and turned over to the general treasurer for the use of the state. Whenever any

malt beverages or wines are sold outside the state pursuant to this section, refunds or credits of

import fees previously paid on those malt beverages or wines shall be made to holders of

wholesaler's licenses under this title in accordance with regulations promulgated by the division

of taxation. 


  

9)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

3-6-10

176 and 289

 

 

3-6-10. Wholesaler's license � Class B. 

     (a) A wholesaler's license, Class B, authorizes the holder to keep for sale and to sell malt

and vinous beverages and distilled spirits at wholesale, at the place described in the license, to

holders of licenses under this title within this state and to holders of wholesale licenses in other

states and authorizes the transportation and delivery from the place of sale to those license

holders or to a common carrier for that delivery. Sales by a wholesaler in this state to a holder of

a wholesale license in another state shall be only to a wholesaler who is a distributor of the same

brand of malt beverages, vinous beverages, and distilled spirits subject to permission by the state

liquor control administrator. The license shall not authorize the sale of beverages for consumption

on the premises where sold nor the sale of beverages for delivery outside this state in violation of

the law of the place of delivery.

     (b) The annual fee for the license is four thousand dollars ($4,000) prorated to the year

ending December 1 in every calendar year, and shall be paid to the division of taxation and turned

over to the general treasurer for the use of the state whenever any malt beverages, vinous

beverages, and distilled spirits are sold outside the state pursuant to this section. Refunds or

credits of import fees previously paid on malt beverages, vinous beverages and distilled spirits

shall be made to holders of wholesaler's licenses under this title in accordance with regulations

promulgated by the division of taxation. 


 

10)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

3-6-11

176 and 289

 

 

3-6-11. Wholesaler's Class C license. 

     A wholesaler's Class C license authorizes the holder to manufacture, transport, import,

export, deliver, and sell alcohol for mechanical, manufacturing, medicinal, or chemical purposes

only, or to any registered pharmacist, licensed pharmacy, drug store, or apothecary shop, or to

any registered physician or dentist, or to any hospital or educational or scientific institution, for

use other than beverage purposes. The annual fee for the license is two hundred dollars ($200)

and shall be paid to the division of taxation and turned over to the general treasurer for the use of

the state. 


 

11)

 

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

 

3-6-12

176 and 289

 

 

 

3-6-12. Agents' licenses. 

     Any person who represents a distillery, winery, or brewery is deemed and taken to be

acting as an agent for and on behalf of that distillery, winery, or brewery, and is required to have

received from the department a license to act as an agent. The annual fee for that license is fifty

dollars ($50.00) paid to the division of taxation general treasurer. The department may, after

notice, suspend or revoke any license for cause. 


 

12)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

3-6-13

176 and 289

 

 

3-6-13 [Repealed]


 

13)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

 

3-7-15

176,289,339, and 341

 

 

3-7-15. Class G license.

     (a) A Class G retailer's license shall be issued only to any dining car company, sleeping

car company, parlor car company, and railroad company operating in this state, or any company

operating passenger-carrying marine vessels in this state, or any airline operating in this state, and

authorizes the holder of the license to keep for sale and to sell in its dining cars, sleeping cars,

buffet cars, club cars, lounge cars and any other cars used for the transportation or

accommodation of passengers, and in or on any passenger-carrying marine vessel, and in any

airplane, beverages for consumption therein or thereon, but only when actually en route.

     (b) In addition, the holder of the Class G license for a passenger-carrying marine vessel

may serve alcoholic beverages at retail aboard the vessel during the period thirty (30) minutes

prior to the scheduled departure and until departure, provided that the local licensing board

annually consents.

     (c) Each company or airline to which the license is issued shall pay to the department an

annual fee of two hundred fifty dollars ($250) for the license, and one dollar ($1.00) for each

duplicate of the license, which fees are paid into the state treasury.

     (d) The license expires one year from its date and is good throughout the state as a state

license, and only one license is required for all cars or airplanes, but a license issued to any

company or person operating passenger-carrying marine vessels in this state shall authorize the

sale of beverages only in the passenger-carrying marine vessel designated and no further license

shall be required or tax levied by any city or town for the privilege of selling beverages for

consumption in those cars or on those vessels or in those airplanes. Each licensed dining car

company, sleeping car company, and railroad car company shall keep a duplicate of the license

posted in each car where beverages are sold. The department shall issue duplicates of the license

from time to time upon the request of any licensed company upon the payment of the fee of one

dollar ($1.00).

     (e) In addition, the holder of the Class G license for a railroad company may serve

alcoholic beverages at retail aboard its trains or in its controlled station premises, to ticket holding

passengers, during the period sixty (60) minutes prior to the train's scheduled departure and until

that departure, provided that the local licensing board annually consents.

3-7-15. Class G license.

     (a) A Class G retailer's license shall be issued only to any dining car company, sleeping

car company, parlor car company, and railroad company operating in this state, or any company

operating passenger carrying marine vessels in this state, or any airline operating in this state,

and authorizes the holder of the license to keep for sale and to sell in its dining cars, sleeping

cars, buffet cars, club cars, lounge cars and any other cars used for the transportation or

accommodation of passengers, and in or on any passenger-carrying marine vessel, and in any

airplane, beverages for consumption therein or thereon, but only when actually en route.

     (b) In addition, the holder of the Class G license for a passenger-carrying marine vessel

may serve alcoholic beverages at retail aboard the vessel during the period thirty (30) minutes

prior to the scheduled departure and until departure, provided that the local licensing board

annually consents.

     (c) Each company or airline to which the license is issued shall pay to the department an

annual fee of two hundred fifty dollars ($250) for the license, and one dollar ($1.00) for each

duplicate of the license, which fees are paid into the state treasury.

     (d) The license expires one year from its date and is good throughout the state as a state

license, and only one license is required for all cars or airplanes, but a license issued to any

company or person operating passenger-carrying marine vessels in this state shall authorize the

sale of beverages only in the passenger-carrying marine vessel designated and no further license

shall be required or tax levied by any city or town for the privilege of selling beverages for

consumption in those cars or on those vessels or in those airplanes. Each licensed dining car

company, sleeping car company, and railroad car company shall keep a duplicate of the license

posted in each car where beverages are sold. The department shall issue duplicates of the license

from time to time upon the request of any licensed company upon the payment of the fee of one

dollar ($1.00).


 

 

 

14)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

3-7-19

66,67,301,303,304,326,327, and 328

 

 

3-7-19. Objection by adjoining property owners -- Proximity to schools and churches.

     (a) Retailers' Class B, C, N and I licenses, and any license provided for in � 3-7-16.8 of

this chapter, shall not be issued to authorize the sale of beverages in any building where the

owner of the greater part of the land within two hundred feet (200') of any point of the building

files with the body or official having jurisdiction to grant licenses his or her objection to the

granting of the license, nor in any building within two hundred feet (200') of the premises of any

public, private, or parochial school or a place of public worship. In the city of East Providence,

retailer's Class A licenses shall not be issued to authorize the sale of beverages in any building

within five hundred feet (500') of the premises of any public, private, or parochial school, or a

place of public worship.

     (b) As used in this section, "private school" means any nonpublic institution of

elementary or secondary (K-12th grade) education, accredited or recognized as a private school

by the department of elementary and secondary education or the school committee of the city or

town having jurisdiction over private schools.

     (c) This section shall not apply to any Class B or C license holder whose license was

issued prior to January 1, 1978, nor shall this section apply to, or constitute the basis of, an

objection to, or disapproval of, the transfer of a Class B or C license where the location of the

licensed establishment predates the location of the public, private, or parochial school, or place of

public worship.

     (d) (1) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer Class B, C, or I license intended to be located within the following

described area(s) in the city of Providence:

     (A) Beginning at a point, that point being the intersection of the southerly line of Smith

Street and the easterly taking line of Interstate Route 95;

     Thence running in a general southwesterly direction along the easterly taking line of

Interstate Route 95 to the center line of Kingsley Avenue;

     Thence turning and running northwesterly in part along the southerly line of Kingsley

Avenue to its intersection with the southerly line of Harris Avenue;

     Thence turning and running westerly along the southerly line of Harris Avenue to its

intersection with the southerly line of Atwells Avenue;

     Thence turning and running easterly along the southerly line of Atwells Avenue to the

easterly taking line of Interstate Route 95;

     Thence turning and running in a general southerly and southeasterly direction along the

easterly taking line of Interstate Route 95 to the center line of Pine Street;

     Thence turning and running northeasterly along the northerly taking line of I-195 to its

intersection with the northerly taking line of I-195;

     Thence turning and running northeasterly along the northerly taking line of I-195 to its

intersection with the westerly shore line of the Providence River;

     Thence turning and running northerly along the westerly shore line of the Providence

River to its intersection with the southerly line of Crawford Street;

     Thence running northwesterly across Dyer Street to the intersection of the westerly line

of Dyer Street to the southerly line of Custom House Street;

     Thence running northerly in part along the southerly line of Dyer Street and in part along

the westerly line of Market Square to its intersection with the westerly line of Canal Street;

     Thence turning and running northerly along the westerly line of Canal Street to its

intersection with the southerly line of Smith Street;

     Thence turning and running westerly along the southerly line of Smith Street to the point

and place of beginning.

     (B) Beginning at a point, that point being the intersection of the westerly line of Brook

Street and the northerly line of Wickenden Street;

     Thence running in a general westerly direction along the northerly line of Wickenden

Street to the intersection of Wickenden Street and Benefit Street;

     Thence running in a general northerly direction along the easterly line of Benefit Street to

the intersection of Benefit Street and Sheldon Street;

     Thence turning and running in an easterly direction along the southerly line of Sheldon

Street to the intersection of Sheldon Street and Brook Street;

     Thence turning and running in a general southerly line to the intersection of Brook Street

and Wickenden Street that being the point of beginning.

     (2) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Newport shall, after application, have authority to exempt from the provisions of this section any

proposed retailer Class B license intended to be located within the following described area in the

city of Newport:

     Beginning at a point, that point being the intersection of the southerly line of Broadway

and the easterly line of Courthouse Square;

     Thence running in a general northeasterly direction along the southerly line of Broadway

a distance of one hundred and two feet (102') to a point at the southeasterly corner of land now or

formerly owned by the Newport Historical Society;

     Thence turning and running in a southeasterly direction ninety-eight and nine-tenths feet

(98.9') along the southwesterly border of land now or formerly owned by the Newport Historical

Society;

     Thence turning and running in a southwesterly direction one hundred and twelve feet

(112') to Courthouse Street; and

     Thence turning and running in a generally northwesterly direction along Courthouse

Street for a distance of ninety feet (90') to the point and place of beginning.

     (3) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

Warren shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailer Class B, C, or I license intended to be located within any zoning district in

the town of Warren which is designated as a limited business district or as a general business

district pursuant to the zoning ordinance of the town of Warren.

     (4) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

Bristol shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailer Class B license intended to be located on lot 34 of tax assessors plat 10 of

the Bristol tax assessors map as of December 31, 1999, including that portion of the public

sidewalk contiguous to said lot.

     (5) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses for the city of

Newport shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

as to places of public worship any proposed sidewalk cafe as defined in the Codified Ordinance

of the city of Newport, provided that the applicant be an existing holder of a Retailers' Class B

license.

     (6) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer Class B license intended to be located on lot 131 of tax assessors

plat 68 of the Providence tax assessors map as of December 31, 1999 and any proposed retailer

Class B license intended to be located on lot 21 of the tax assessors map plat 49 and any proposed

retailer class BV license intended to be located on lots 3 and 5 of tax assessors map plat 35 of the

Providence tax assessors map as of December 31, 2003.

     (7) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Cranston shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailer Class B license intended to be located on either lot 160 of tax assessor's plat

9, and/or on lot 152 of tax assessor's plat 9, of the Cranston tax assessor's map as of December 31,

2002; provided, however, as to the subsequent transfer of said Class B license issued by the city

of Cranston under this exemption, whether said transfer is attributable to the holder's death or

otherwise, any person desiring to become the potential transferee of said Class B license shall

comply with those restrictions as to its use (and shall refrain from those activities which result in

its reversion) set forth in the city of Cranston Memorandum of Understanding dated May 13,

2003 and, in addition, those requirements applicable to anyone who desires to become a

transferee of a validly issued and outstanding Class B license designated for use in any location in

the state of Rhode Island. Neither the exemption granted herein nor any future exemption granted

hereafter shall be effective until the proposed Class B license and the underlying property owner

is certified to be current in the payment of any and all local and state taxes.

     (8) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Pawtucket shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailer Class B, C, or I license intended to be located within the following

described area in the city of Pawtucket:

     Beginning at the point of intersection of Dexter Street and the Central Falls line, then east

along the Central Falls line to the Blackstone River, then north along the city boundary on the

Blackstone River to the Cumberland line, then west along the Pawtucket city boundary line to I-

95, then south along I-95 to Pine Street, then north on Pine Street to AMTRAK Right of Way,

then northwest along the AMTRAK Right of Way to Dexter Street, then north on Dexter Street to

the Central Falls line.

     (9) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section the town council of the town of Little

Compton, after application, is authorized to exempt from the provisions of this section relating to

places of worship any class B license limited to malt and vinous beverages intended to be located

on Plat 30, Lot 33 of the town of Little Compton tax assessment map existing as of December 31,

2004.

     (10) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

Bristol shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailers' Class B license intended to be located on lots 3, 18, and 19 of tax

assessors plat 10 of the Bristol tax assessors map as of December 31, 2007.

     (11) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section the town council of the town of

Smithfield, after application, is authorized to exempt from the provisions of this section, any class

B, C, or I license intended to be located on Plat 45, Lot 042 of the town of Smithfield, tax

assessment map existing as of December 31, 2007; provided, however, said exemption shall

apply only to any renewal of any class B, C, or I license issued for use at the said premises

located on plat 45, lot 042 as of December 31, 2011. In the event said license is not renewed, then

this exemption is hereby repealed in its entirety.

     (12) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer Class B license intended to be located on plat 13, lots 31 and 32 of

the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map.

     (13) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

Tiverton shall, after the application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section a proposed retailer's Class BV license for a restaurant located on tax assessor's plat 181,

lot 1A.

     (14) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on tax assessor's plat 68, lot

732.

     (15) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses in the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on plat 105, lot 489, plat

105, lot 12 and plat 32, lot 232 of the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map.

     (16) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section the city council of the city of Central

Falls, shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section any

proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on plat 5, lot 188 of the applicable city

of Central Falls tax assessment map.

     (17) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

Portsmouth shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on plat 37, lot 69 of the

applicable town of Portsmouth tax assessment map.

     (18) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

North Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on plat 23A, lot 98 of the

applicable town of North Providence tax assessment map.

     (19) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Cranston shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on Plat 11, lot 3558 of the

applicable city of Cranston tax assessment map.

     (20) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the town council of the town of

Smithfield, after application, is authorized to exempt from the provisions of this section, any

Class B or C license intended to be located on Plat 6, Lot 54 of the town of Smithfield tax

assessors map as of December 31, 2012.

     (21) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Cranston shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailers class B license intended to be located on tax assessors plat 1, lot 2170 of

the applicable city of Cranston tax assessment map as of December 31, 2012.

     (22) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses in the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on tax assessor's plat 43, lot

211.

     (23) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

North Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on Plat 22A, Lot 336, of the

applicable town of North Providence tax assessment map.

     (24) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the city council of the city of Central

Falls shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section any

proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on plat 1, lot 164 of the applicable city

of Central Falls tax assessment map.

     (25) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses in the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located at 1948-1950 Westminster

Street on plat 35, lot 359 of the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map.

     (26) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the town council of the town of

Middletown, after application, is authorized to exempt from the provisions of this section, any

proposed retailer's Class BV license intended to be located on Plat 107 NW, Lot 55 of the town of

Middletown's tax assessor's maps as of December 31, 2014.

     (27) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any retailer Class B, C or I license intended to be located on Plat 109, Lot 289, of the

applicable city of Providence tax assessor's map.

     (28) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class BV license intended to be located at 226 and 230 Dean

Street on plat 25, lot 44 of the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map.

     (29) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

East Greenwich shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located at 219 Main Street on

map/lot 085 001 212 0000 of the applicable town of East Greenwich tax assessment map.

     (30) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

East Greenwich shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located at 137 Main Street on

map/lot 085-001-412; 59 Main Street on map/lot 085-001-236; 555 Main Street on map/lot 075-

003-084; 74 Cliff Street on map/lot 075-003-040; 609 Main Street on map/lot 075-003-080; 241

Main Street on map/lot 085-001-208; 155 Main Street on map/lot 085-001-222; 149 Main Street

on map/lot 085-001-223; and 2 Academy Court on map/lot 085-001-211 of the applicable Town

of East Greenwich tax assessment map.

     (31) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the town of

Lincoln shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this section

any proposed retailers' Class B license intended to be located on tax assessor's plat 10, lot 108, of

the Lincoln tax assessor's map as of December 31, 2015.

     (32) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses of the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class C license intended to be located at 215 Dean Street on plat

28, lot 961 of the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map.

     (33) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses in the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located at 100-102 Hope Street on

plat 16, lot 263 of the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map.

     (34) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses in the town of

Cumberland shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located at 88 Broad Street on Lots

32, 51, and 52 of Plat 2 Cumberland tax assessor's map as of December 31, 2016.

     (35) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses in the city of

Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located at 11 Lowell Avenue, 191

Pocasset Avenue and 187 Pocasset Avenue on Lots 22, 23, and 24 of Plat 108 Providence tax

assessor's map as of December 31, 2017.

   (35)(36) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the city council in the city of

Central Falls shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class B license intended to be located on Plat 1, of Lot 171 of the

applicable city of Central Falls tax assessment map.

  (35)(37) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses in the city

of Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailer's Class BV and Class BX license intended to be located at 161

Douglas Avenue on plat 68, lot 201 of the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map.

   (35)(38) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, the board of licenses in the city

of Providence shall, after application, have the authority to exempt from the provisions of this

section any proposed retailers' Class B license intended to be located at 1007 Broad Street, Plat

53, Lot 192 of the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map and 1017 Broad street Street

Plat 53, Lot 582 of the applicable city of Providence tax assessment map.


 

15)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

3-7-23

49 and 51

 

 

3-7-23. Closing hours for Class A licenses.

     The following closing hours shall be observed by all Class A license holders:

     (1) November 1 to May 31. No holder of a Class A license shall sell or deliver beverage

under that license between the hours of ten o'clock (10:00) p.m. and seven o'clock (7:00) a.m.

(local time), except on legal holiday eves at which time the closing hour shall be eleven o'clock

(11:00) p.m. In the city of Providence, no holder of a Class A license shall sell or deliver

beverages under that license between the hours of ten o'clock (10:00) p.m. and nine o'clock (9:00)

a.m. (local time), except on legal holiday eves at which time the closing hour shall be eleven

o'clock (11:00) p.m. In the city of Central Falls, no holder of a Class A license shall sell or deliver

beverages under that license between the hours of ten o'clock (10:00) p.m. and nine o'clock (9:00)

a.m. (local time. When a legal holiday is celebrated on a Monday, the preceding Saturday shall be

considered the holiday eve.

     (2) June 1 to October 31. No holder of a class A license shall sell or deliver beverages

under this license between the hours of eleven o'clock (11:00) p.m. and seven o'clock (7:00) a.m.

(local time). In the city cities of Providence and Central Falls, no holder of a Class A license shall

sell or deliver beverages under that license between the hours of eleven o'clock

(11:00) p.m. and nine o'clock (9:00) a.m. (local time).


 

16)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

3-8-6

35 and 36

 

 

3-8-6. Unlawful drinking and misrepresentation by underage persons � Identification cards

for persons twenty-one and older.

     (a) It is unlawful for:

     (1) A person who has not reached his or her twenty-first (21st) birthday to enter any

premises licensed for the retail sale of alcoholic beverages for the purpose of purchasing or

having served or delivered to him or her alcoholic beverages; or

     (2) A person who has not reached his or her twenty-first (21st) birthday to consume any

alcoholic beverage on premises licensed for the retail sale of alcoholic beverages or to purchase,

attempt to purchase, or have another purchase for him or her any alcoholic beverage; or

     (3) A person to misrepresent or misstate his or her age, or the age of any other persons, or

to misrepresent his or her age through the presentation of any of the following documents:

     (i) An armed service identification card, valid passport, the identification card license, or

any other documentation used for identification purposes that may belong to any other person

who is twenty-one (21) years or older;

     (ii) A motor vehicle operator's license which that bears the date of birth of the licensee,

and which that is issued by this state or any other state;

     (iii) A Rhode Island identification card, as defined in subsection (b), for the purpose of

inducing any licensee, or any employee of any licensee, to sell, serve, or deliver any alcoholic

beverage to a minor.

     (b) (1) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall issue to any person who

has reached his or her twenty-first (21st) birthday a Rhode Island identification card upon

payment of a fee of twenty-five dollars ($25), and, upon presentation of a certified birth or

baptismal certificate, or U.S. or foreign passport, or U.S. naturalization certificate or a valid

immigrant or refugee document issued by the United States immigration and naturalization

service United States Citizenship and Immigration Services including, but not limited to, any

one of the following: Form I-551, Form I-94, Form I-688A, and Form I-688, and a form

evidencing that the applicant is a current or past recipient of a grant of deferred action under the

Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals program, together with a document bearing the

applicant's signature.

     (2) A person who has reached his or her fifty-ninth (59th) birthday is not required to pay

the fee.

     (3) Each registration card shall be subject to renewal every five (5) years upon payment

of a fee of twenty-five dollars ($25).

     (4) No person who holds an operator's license issued by this state or any other state shall

be issued a Rhode Island identification card.

     (5) The identification card shall be signed by the administrator of the division of motor

vehicles and by the applicant and his or her picture shall appear on the card along with the

required information and the card shall be encased in laminated plastic. The card shall be two

inches (2") in height and four inches (4") in length and shall be printed in the following form:

RHODE ISLAND IDENTIFICATION CARD

Date Issued No.

First Name Middle Name Last Name

Address

BIRTH RECORD

Month Day Year

Secure Photo by Pasting here Color of hair Color of eyes Sex Ht. Wt.

���� ���� �� �� ��

Issued by

Administrator of the Division of Motor Vehicles

Administrator

     (6) The identification cards shall be produced at the adult correctional institutions if they

have facilities to do so; if the adult correctional institutions have no facilities to do so, then all

cards shall be manufactured by the lowest responsible bidder following advertisement for the

solicitation of bids.

     (7) The identification cards shall be clearly distinguishable from those issued pursuant to

� 3-8-6.1 and operators' and chauffeurs' licenses issued pursuant to title 31.

     (8) Any person who has been designated as permanently and totally disabled by the social

security administration or who upon certification by an optometrist, ophthalmologist, or physician

that a holder of a valid and current motor vehicle operator's license is no longer able to operate a

motor vehicle, the administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall issue to such person, upon

request, a Rhode Island identification card for the unexpired term of such the person's motor

vehicle operator's license at no additional cost. Thereafter, a renewal of such card shall be subject

to the standard renewal charge of twenty-five dollars ($25) until such the person shall reach his or

her fifty-ninth (59th) birthday.

     (9) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall, upon presentation of a

United States Department of Defense (DD) FORM 214 or other acceptable documentation of

military service and verification of an honorable discharge, issue an identification card to the

presenter which that is clearly marked "veteran", at no additional cost.

     (c) (1) Every retail Class A, B, C, and D licensee shall cause to be kept a book or

photographic reproduction equipment which that provides the same information as required by

the book. That licensee and/or the licensee's employee shall require any person who has shown a

document as set forth in this section substantiating his or her age to sign that book or to permit the

taking of his or her photograph and indicate what document was presented. Use of the

photographic reproduction equipment is voluntary for every Class A, B, C and D licensee.

     (2) The sign-in-as-minor book and photographic reproduction equipment shall be

prescribed, published, and approved at the direction and control of the division. The book shall

contain at least four hundred (400) pages,; shall be uniform throughout the state,; and shall be

distributed at a cost not to exceed seven dollars ($7.00).

     (3) If a person whose age is in question signs the sign-in-as-minor book or has a

photograph taken before he or she is sold any alcoholic beverage and it is later determined that

the person had not reached his or her twenty-first (21st) birthday at the time of sale, it is

considered prima facie evidence that the licensee and/or the licensee's agent or servant acted in

good faith in selling any alcoholic beverage to the person producing the document as set forth in

this section misrepresenting his or her age.

     (4) Proof of good-faith reliance on any misrepresentation is a defense to the prosecution

of the licensee and/or the licensee's agent or servant for an alleged violation of this section.

     (d) (1) Any person who violates this section shall be punished for the first offense by a

mandatory fine of not less than one hundred dollars ($100) nor more than five hundred dollars

($500) and shall be further punished by thirty (30) hours of community service and shall be

further punished by a suspension of his or her motor vehicle operator's license or driving

privileges for a period of thirty (30) days; for the second offense by a mandatory fine of not less

than five hundred dollars ($500) nor more than seven hundred fifty dollars ($750) and shall be

further punished by forty (40) hours of community service and will be further punished by a

suspension of his or her motor vehicle operator's license or driving privileges for a period of three

(3) months; and for the third and subsequent offenses by a mandatory fine for each offense of not

less than seven hundred fifty dollars ($750) nor more than one thousand dollars ($1,000) and shall

be further punished by fifty (50) hours of community service and will be further punished by a

suspension of his or her motor vehicle operator's license or driving privileges for a period of one

year.

     (2) Any suspension of an operator's license or driving privilege pursuant to this section

shall not operate to affect the insurance rating of the offender and any operator's license or

driving privilege suspended pursuant to this section shall be reinstated without further expense

upon application.

     (e) Within thirty (30) days after this incident the police chief of the city or town where

the incident took place is directed to inform, in writing, the department of business regulation

whether or not charges in accordance with this section have been preferred against a person who

has not reached his or her twenty-first (21st) birthday and has violated this section. If no charge is

brought against any person who has not reached his or her twenty-first (21st) birthday and has

violated the provisions of this section, then the police chief of the city or town where the incident

took place will state the reason for his or her failure to charge the person who has not reached his

or her twenty-first (21st) birthday.

     (f) The Rhode Island identification card may be withdrawn at any time for just cause, at

the discretion of the administrator of the division of motor vehicles. The administrator of the

division of motor vehicles shall keep a record of the cards issued and each card shall contain an

identification number specifically assigned to the person to whom the card was issued.

     (g) Issuance of a Rhode Island identification card under this section to a current or past

recipient of a grant of deferred action under the Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals, (DACA)

program shall not confer the right to vote in the state of Rhode Island.


 

17)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers

 

3-8-6.1

35 and 36

 

 

3-8-6.1. Identification cards for persons under the age of 21.

     (a) (1) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall issue to any person upon

request, who is under twenty-one (21) years of age, an identification card upon payment of a fee

of twenty-five dollars ($25.00), and, upon presentation of a certified birth or baptismal certificate,

or U.S. or foreign passport, or U.S. naturalization certificate, or a valid immigrant or refugee

document issued by the United States immigration and naturalization service Citizenship and

Immigration Services including, but not limited to, any one of the following: Form I-551, Form

I-94, Form I-688A, and Form I-688, and a form evidencing that the applicant is a current or past

recipient of a grant of deferred action under the Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals program,

together with a document bearing the applicant's signature. No person who holds an operator's

license, issued by this state or any other state, shall be issued an identification card.

     (2) The identification card shall be subject to renewal every five (5) years upon the

payment of a fee of twenty-five dollars ($25.00).

     (3) The identification card shall be signed by the administrator of the division of motor

vehicles and also by the applicant, and his or her picture shall appear on the card along with the

required information and the card shall be encased in laminated plastic. The card shall be two

inches (2") in height and four inches (4") in length and shall be printed in the following form:

IDENTIFICATION CARD

Date Issued No.

First Name Middle Name Last Name

Address

BIRTH RECORD

Month Day Year

Secure Photo by Pasting here Color of hair Color of eyes Sex Ht. Wt.

���� ���� �� �� ��

Issued by

Administrator of the Division of Motor Vehicles

Administrator

     (4) The identification cards shall be produced at the adult correctional institution if they

have facilities to do so; if the adult correctional institutions have no facilities to do so, then all

cards shall be manufactured by the lowest responsible bidder following advertisement for the

solicitation of bids.

     (5) The identification cards shall be clearly distinguishable from those issued pursuant to

� 3-8-6 and operators' and chauffeurs' licenses issued pursuant to title 31.

     (b) The identification card may be withdrawn at any time for just cause, at the discretion

of the administrator of the division of motor vehicles. The administrator of the division of motor

vehicles shall keep a record of the cards issued and each card shall contain an identification

number specifically assigned to the person to whom the card was issued.

     (c) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall, upon presentation of a

United States Department of Defense (DD) FORM 214 or other acceptable documentation of

military service and verification of an honorable discharge, issue an identification card to the

presenter which that is clearly marked "veteran", at no additional cost.

     (d) Issuance of a Rhode Island identification card under this section to a current or past

recipient of a grant of deferred action under the Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals, (DACA)

program shall not confer the right to vote in the state of Rhode Island.


 

18)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-1-2

177 and 200

 

 

4-1-2. Overwork, mistreatment, or failure to feed animals -- Shelter defined.

     (a) Whoever overdrives, overloads, drives when overloaded, overworks, tortures,

torments, deprives of necessary sustenance, cruelly beats, mutilates, or cruelly kills, or causes or

procures to be so overdriven, overloaded, driven when overloaded, overworked, tortured,

tormented, deprived of necessary sustenance, cruelly beaten, or mutilated, any animal, and

whoever, having the charge or custody of any animal, either as owner or otherwise, inflicts

cruelty upon that animal, or willfully fails to provide that animal with proper food, drink, shelter,

or protection from the weather, shall, for each offense, be imprisoned not exceeding eleven (11)

months, or be fined not less than fifty dollars ($50.00) nor exceeding five hundred dollars ($500),

or both. If the offense described in this section results in the death of the animal, the person shall

be punished in the manner provided in � 4-1-5.

     (b) Any person who has been previously convicted of an offense provided for in chapter

1 of title 4 shall, upon conviction of a second or subsequent violation within a ten-(10) year (10)

period, be imprisoned for a period not exceeding six (6) years, or fined not less than five hundred

dollars ($500) and not exceeding five thousand dollars ($5,000), or both. In addition, every

person convicted under chapter 1 of title 4 of a second or subsequent offense shall be required to

serve one hundred (100) hours of community restitution. The community restitution penalty shall

not be suspended or deferred and is mandatory.

     (b)(c) Every owner, possessor, or person having charge of any animal may, upon

conviction of a violation of this section, be ordered to forfeit all rights to ownership of the animal

to the animal-control officer of the city or town in which the offense occurred or to a humane

society that owns and operates the shelter that provided the subject animal shelter subsequent to

any confiscation of said that animal pursuant to this section.

     (c)(d) Shelter means a structure used to house any animal that will provide sufficient

protection from inclement elements for the health and well being of the animal.


 

 

 

 

 

19)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-13-1.2

118 and 198

 

 

4-13-1.2. Definitions.

     (1) "Adequate shelter" means the provision of and access to shelter that is suitable for the

species, age, condition, size, and type of each dog; provides sufficient space for the dog to

maintain comfortable rest, normal posture, and range of movement; and is safe to protect each

dog from injury, rain, sleet, snow, hail, direct sunlight, the adverse effects of heat or cold,

physical suffering, and impairment of health. Shelters with wire grid or slat floors which that

permit the dog's feet to pass through the openings, sag under the dog's weight, or otherwise do not

protect the dog's feet from injury, are not considered adequate shelter.

     (1)(2) "Board" means the rabies control board.

     (2)(3) "Department" means the department of environmental management or its

successor.

     (3)(4) "Director" means the director of the department of environmental management (or

its successor), or his or her designee.

     (4)(5) "Division" means the division of agriculture.

     (5)(6) "Guardian" means a person(s) having the same rights and responsibilities as an

owner or keeper, and the terms may be used interchangeably. A guardian shall also mean a person

who possesses, has title to or an interest in, harbors or has control, custody, or possession of an

animal and who is responsible for an animal's safety and well-being.

     (6)(7) "Livestock" means domesticated animals which that are commonly held in

moderate contact with humans which include, but are not limited to, cattle, bison, equines, sheep,

goats, llamas, and swine.

     (7)(8) "Owner or keeper" means any person or agency keeping, harboring, or having

charge or control of or responsibility for control of an animal or any person or agency which that

permits any dog, cat, ferret, or domestic animal to habitually be fed within that person's yard or

premises. This term shall not apply to veterinary facilities, any licensed boarding kennel,

municipal pound, pet shop, or animal shelter.

     (8)(9) "Person" means an individual, firm, joint stock company, partnership, association,

private or municipal corporation, trust, estate, state, commission, political subdivision, any

interstate body, the federal government or any agency or subdivision of the federal government,

other government entity, or other legal entity.

     (9)(10) "Pets" means domesticated animals kept in close contact with humans, which

include, but may not be limited to, dogs, cats, ferrets, equines, llamas, goats, sheep, and swine.

     (10)(11) "Quarantine" means the removal, isolation, the close confinement, or related

measures of an animal under conditions and for time periods that are set by regulation of the

board.

     (11)(12) "Tether" means the practice of fastening a dog to a stationary object or stake by

a chain, rope, or other tethering device as a means of keeping the dog under control. A dog being

walked on a leash is not tethered.


 

20)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-13-42

118 and 198

 

 

4-13-42. Care of dogs.

     (a) It shall be a violation of this section for an owner or keeper to:

     (1) Keep any dog on a permanent tether that restricts movement of the tethered dog to an

area less than one hundred thirteen square feet (113 sq. ft.), or less than a six foot (6') radius at

ground level.

     (2) Tether a dog with a choke-type collar, head collar, or prong-type collar. The weight of

any chain or tether shall not exceed one-eighth (1/8) of the dog's total body weight.

     (3) Keep any dog tethered for more than ten (10) hours during a twenty-four- (24) hour

(24) period or keep any dog confined in an area or primary enclosure a pen, cage, or other shelter

for more than fourteen (14) hours during any twenty-four- (24) hour (24) period, and more than

ten (10) hours during a twenty-four- (24) hour (24) period, if the area is not greater than that

which is required under the most recently adopted version of the department of environmental

management's rules and regulations governing animal care facilities.

     (4) Tether a dog anytime from the hours of ten o'clock p.m. (10:00 p.m.) to six o'clock

a.m. (6:00 a.m.), except for a maximum of fifteen (15) minutes.

     (4)(5) Keep any dog outside, either tethered, penned, caged, fenced, or otherwise

confined, without access to an outdoor housing facility when the ambient temperature is beyond

the industry standard for the weather safety scale as set forth in the most recent adopted version

of the Tufts Animal Care and Condition Weather Safety Scale (TACC) if the dog is showing

signs of poor health due to the weather conditions.

     (b) It shall be a violation of this section for an owner or keeper to fail to provide a dog

with adequate feed, adequate water, or adequate veterinary care as those terms are defined in � 4-

19-2; provided however, that adequate veterinary care may be provided by an owner using

acceptable animal husbandry practices.

     (c) Any person in violation of this section shall be given a warning for a first violation.

Second and subsequent violations of this subsection can be considered a violation of � 4-1-2.

Each day of violation shall constitute a separate offense. Exposing any dog to adverse weather

conditions strictly for the purpose of conditioning shall be prohibited.

     (d) The provisions of this section, as they relate to the duration and timeframe of

tethering or confinement, shall not apply:

     (1) If the tethering or confinement is authorized for medical reasons in writing by a

veterinarian licensed in Rhode Island, the authorization is renewed annually, and shelter is

provided;

     (2) If tethering or confinement is authorized in writing by an animal control officer, or

duly sworn police officer assigned to the animal control division, for the purposes, including, but

not limited to, hunting dogs, dogs protecting livestock, and sled dogs. Written authorization must

be renewed annually. Such The written authorization issued by an animal control officer or duly

sworn police officer assigned to the animal control division in the political subdivision of the

state where the dogs are kept shall be considered valid in every other political subdivision of the

state. Such The written authorization issued by an animal control officer or duly sworn police

officer assigned to the animal control division in the political subdivision of the state where the

dogs are kept is revocable by that animal control officer or police officer if there are any

conditions present that warrant revocation. Such The conditions include, but are not limited to,

changes in the number or type of dogs, changes in the facility structure or safety, and changes in

the health of the dog;

     (3) To a training facility, grooming facility, commercial boarding kennel, pet shop

licensed in accordance with chapter 19 of this title, animal shelter, municipal pound, To any

entity licensed by the state pursuant to chapter 19 of title 4, or any veterinary facility; or

     (4) To licensed hunters, field trial participants, or any person raising or training a gun dog

or hunting dog, provided that the licensed hunter or field trial hunt test participant is actively

engaged in hunting, training, or field trial hunt testing or is transporting the dog to or from an

event;

     (5) To livestock farmers who use their dogs to protect their livestock from predators;

     (6) To an exhibitor holding a class C license under the Animal Welfare Act (7 U.S.C. �

2133) that are temporarily in the state, if authorized by the department of environmental

management (DEM)or

     (7) To sled dog owners who are actively training their dogs to pull sleds in winter

conditions.

     (e) Any person in violation of this section shall be imprisoned not exceeding eleven (11)

months, or fined not less than fifty dollars ($50.00) nor exceeding five hundred dollars ($500), or

both. Each day of violation shall constitute a separate offense.

     (f) General agents or special agents of the Rhode Island Society for the Prevention of

Cruelty to Animals (RISPCA) are hereby authorized to enforce the provisions of this chapter in

cooperation with animal control officers and the department of environmental management

(DEM).


 

21)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

4-13-44

161 and 267

 

 

4-13-44. Minimum maturity level for sale of dogs.

     (a) Except as otherwise authorized under any other provision of law, it shall be a crime,

punishable as specified in subsection (c) of this section, for any person to sell or transfer (as

further described within subsection (b) of this section) one or more dogs that are not fully

weaned, unless, prior to any physical transfer of the dog or dogs from the seller/transferor to the

purchaser/transferee, the dog or dogs are approved for sale, as evidenced by written

documentation from a veterinarian licensed to practice in Rhode Island.

     (b) For the purposes of this section, the sale or transfer of a dog or dogs shall not be

considered complete, and thereby subject to the requirements and penalties of this section, unless

and until the seller/transferor physically transfers the dog or dogs to the purchaser/transferee.

     (c) Any person who violates this section shall be subject to imprisonment not to exceed

twelve (12) months or a fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000), or both.

     (d) With respect to the sale of two (2) or more dogs in violation of this section, each dog

unlawfully sold or transferred shall represent a separate offense.

     (e) This section shall not apply in instances where the following types of organizations

place a dog into �foster care� pursuant to their respective current practices of operation:

     (1) An organization, as defined in Section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, or

animal shelter, as defined in � 4-19-2; and

     (2) A pound or dog pound as defined in � 4-19-2.


 

22)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-19-2

81 and 91

 

 

4-19-2. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter, chapter 13 of this title, and the regulations promulgated under

this chapter:

     (1) "Adequate feed" means the provision at suitable intervals, not to exceed twenty-four

(24) hours, of a quantity of wholesome foodstuff suitable for the species and age, sufficient to

maintain a reasonable level of nutrition in each animal. The foodstuff shall be served in a

sanitized receptacle, dish, or container.

     (2) "Adequate veterinary care" means care by a licensed veterinarian sufficient to prevent

the animal from experiencing unnecessary or unjustified physical pain or suffering.

     (3) "Adequate water" means a constant access to a sufficient supply of clean, fresh,

potable water provided in a sanitary manner and provided at suitable intervals for the species to

maintain the health of the animal(s) and not to exceed twenty-four (24) hours at any interval.

     (4) "Adopt" means when an adopting party voluntarily acquires and assumes

responsibility for an animal from a releasing agency that is properly licensed or registered by the

department.

     (5) "Adopting party" means any person who enters into a contract acquiring an animal

from a releasing agency that is properly licensed or registered by the department.

     (6) "Ambient temperature" means the temperature surrounding the animal.

     (7) "Animal" means any dog or cat, rabbit, rodent, nonhuman primate, bird or other

warm-blooded vertebrate, amphibian, fish, or reptile but shall not include horses, cattle, sheep,

goats, swine, and domestic fowl.

     (8) "Animal rescue" or "rescue" means an entity, without a physical brick-and-mortar

facility, that is owned, operated, or maintained by a duly incorporated humane society, animal

welfare society, society for the prevention of cruelty to animals, or other nonprofit organization

devoted to the welfare, protection, and humane treatment of animals intended for adoption.

     (9) "Animal shelter" means a brick-and-mortar facility that is used to house or contain

animals and that is owned, operated, or maintained by a duly incorporated humane society,

animal welfare society, society for the prevention of cruelty to animals, or other nonprofit

organization devoted to the welfare, protection, and humane treatment of animals.

     (10) "Breeder" means a person engaged in the propagation of purebred or crossbred dogs

and/or cats for the purpose of improving and enhancing a breed recognized and registered by the

American Kennel Club, American Field Stud Book, a registered cat breed association, or for sale

at wholesale or retail, unless otherwise exempted as a hobby breeder as defined below.

     (11) "Broker" means any third party who arranges, delivers, or otherwise facilitates

transfer of ownership of animal(s), through adoption or fostering, from one party to another,

whether or not the party receives a fee for providing that service and whether or not the party

takes physical possession of the animal(s) at any point.

     (12) "Dealer" means any person who sells, exchanges, or donates, or offers to sell,

exchange, or donate, animals to another dealer, pet shop, or research facility, or who breeds

animals for the purpose of selling or donating to another dealer or pet shop or research facility.

     (13) "Director" means the director of environmental management of the state of Rhode

Island.

     (14) "Dog officer" or "animal-control officer" means any person employed, contracted, or

appointed by the state, or any political subdivision of the state, for the purpose of aiding in the

enforcement of this chapter or any other law or ordinance relating to the licensing of dogs, cats,

or other animals; the control of dogs, cats or other animals; or the seizure and impoundment of

dogs, cats, or other animals and includes any state or municipal peace officer, animal-control

officer, sheriff, constable, or other employee whose duties, in whole or in part, include

assignments that involve the seizure or taking into custody of any dog, cat, or other animal.

     (15) "Euthanasia" means the humane destruction of an animal accomplished by a method

that involves instantaneous unconsciousness and immediate death or by a method that involves

anesthesia, produced by an agent that causes painless loss of consciousness and death during that

loss of consciousness.

     (16) "Guardian" shall mean a person(s) having the same rights and responsibilities of an

owner, and both terms shall be used interchangeably. A guardian shall also mean a person who

possesses; has title to or an interest in; harbors or has control, custody, or possession of an animal

and who is responsible for an animal's safety and well-being.

     (17) "Hobby breeder" means those persons whose regular occupation is not the breeding

and raising of dogs and cats and whose method of sale is at retail only. A hobby breeder shall not

exceed the limits set forth in � 4-25-1(4). Any person who sells at retail a number in excess of the

limits in the aforementioned section shall be considered a breeder.

     (18) "Housing facility" means any room, building, or area used to contain a primary

enclosure or enclosures.

     (19) "Kennel" means a place or establishment, other than a pound, animal shelter, or

veterinary hospital that is housing animals during their treatment, where animals not owned by

the proprietor are sheltered, fed, and watered in return for a fee. This definition shall not apply to

the sheltering, feeding, and watering, in return for a fee, in a residential setting, of no more than

four (4) animals, not owned by the proprietor, subject to any applicable municipal ordinances,

that may be more restrictive.

     (20) "Licensed releasing agency" means any animal shelter, animal-rescue, pound,

animal-control officer, or broker that is required to be licensed or registered with the director

pursuant to the provisions of this chapter and is so licensed or registered.

     (21) "Neuter" means to surgically render a male dog or cat unable to reproduce.

     (22) "Person" means any individual, partnership, firm, joint stock company, corporation,

association, trust, estate, or other legal entity.

     (23) "Pet shop" means a temporary or permanent establishment where animals are

bought, sold, exchanged, or offered for sale or exchange to the general public at retail. This shall

not include an establishment or person whose total sales are the offspring of canine or feline

females maintained on their premises and sold from those premises and does not exceed the limits

set forth in � 4-25-1(4).

     (24) "Pound" or "dog pound" means a facility operated by a state, or any political

subdivision of a state, for the purpose of impounding or harboring seized, stray, homeless,

abandoned, or unwanted dogs, cats, and other animals or a facility operated for that purpose under

a contract with any municipal corporation or incorporated society for the prevention of cruelty to

animals.

     (25) "Primary enclosure" or "enclosure" means the most proximal barrier to an animal

that will have the intended purpose or effect of containment of that animal or that will effectively

restrict the liberty of the animal.

     (26) "Public auction" means any place or location where dogs or cats are sold at auction

to the highest bidder regardless of whether those dogs or cats are offered as individuals, as a

group, or by weight.

     (27) "Research facility" means any place, laboratory, or institution at which scientific

tests, investigations, or experiments, involving the use of living animals, are carried out,

conducted, or attempted.

     (28) "Sanitize" means to make physically clean and to remove and destroy, to a practical

minimum, agents injurious to health.

     (29) "Sexual maturity" means when a dog or cat reaches six (6) months. In all instances,

the licensed, releasing agency or a licensed veterinarian will determine the age of the dog or cat.

     (30) "Spay" means to surgically render a female dog or cat unable to reproduce.

     (31) "State veterinarian" means a licensed veterinarian from the department of

environmental management.


 

 

23)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

4-19-6

81 and 91

 

 

4-19-6. Public auction and kennel licenses.

     (a) No person shall operate a public auction or a kennel, as defined in this chapter, unless

a license to operate that establishment has been granted by the director. Application for the

license shall be made in the manner provided by the director. The license period is the fiscal year

and the license fee shall be fifty dollars ($50.00) for each license period or part thereof beginning

with the first day of the fiscal year.

     (b) This section shall not be interpreted to interfere in any manner with the issuing of a

public auction or kennel license by any city or town, nor any fee charged by any city or town. No

license shall be issued by the director except for those premises as shall be designated by the

respective city or town council.

     (c) Pursuant to � 4-19-2(19), any person who provides the sheltering, feeding, and

watering in return for a fee in a residential setting, of no more than four (4) animals, not owned

by the proprietor is:

     (1) Exempt under this chapter from licensure as a kennel; and

     (2) Subject to inspection by an authorized agent of the department, upon the department

of environmental management (hereinafter "the department") receiving a written complaint

against the person. Only complaints related to animal care, animal health, and animal welfare

may initiate an inspection. Any inspection that is conducted by the department shall be conducted

during the hours of eight o'clock a.m. (8:00 a.m.) through five o'clock p.m. (5:00 p.m.), unless the

person who is the subject of the complaint agrees to an inspection at another time; and

     (3) Required to be compliant with the department's rules and regulations governing

animal care facilities (RICR 250-RICR-40-05-4) �� 4.7 and 4.8.A.l through 8 (excluding the

sanitation log requirements of 4.8.A.3). Any inspection conducted by an authorized agent of the

department shall be limited to the aforementioned sections and shall be limited to areas where

animals being cared for have access. Any violations of these sections are punishable in

accordance with � 4.12 of the rules and regulations governing animal care facilities and any

appeal for any enforcement action shall be made in accordance with � 4.11.B of those rules and

regulations; and

     (4) Any person who is subject to inspection, pursuant to the conditions set forth in

subsection � 4-19-6(c)(2), but who denies access to authorized inspectors from the department, is

subject to a civil fine of three hundred fifty dollars ($350). Each day that access is denied

constitutes a separate punishable offense.


 

 

24)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

4-27

147 and 283

 

 

CHAPTER 27

RETIREMENT OF RESEARCH DOGS AND CATS


 

 

25)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

4-27-1

147 and 283

 

 

4-27-1. Short title.

     This act shall be known and may be cited as the "Research Animal Retirement Act."


 

26)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

4-27-2

147 and 283

 

 

4-27-2. Research dogs and cats -- Retirement.

     (a) A higher education research facility that receives public money, including tax-exempt

status, or a facility that provides research in collaboration with a higher education facility shall,

after the completion of any testing or research involving a dog or cat, assess the health of the dog

or cat and determine whether it is suitable for adoption. Such The facility shall thereafter make

reasonable efforts to offer for adoption the dog or cat determined to be suitable for adoption,

either through private placement or through an animal rescue and shelter organization,; a duly

incorporated society for the prevention of cruelty to animals,; a duly incorporated humane

society,; or a duly incorporated animal protective association that operates physical animal

sheltering facilities and offers household pets to the public for adoption by way of an established

adoption program. These efforts shall be made prior to euthanizing such the dog or cat. Nothing

in this section shall create a duty upon such an organization, association, or society to accept a

dog or cat offered by a higher education research facility for adoption.

     (b) A facility that is required to offer dogs or cats for adoption under this section may

enter into an agreement with an animal rescue and shelter organization,; a duly incorporated

society for the prevention of cruelty to animals,; a duly incorporated humane society,; or a duly

incorporated animal protective association that operates physical animal sheltering facilities and

offers household pets to the public for adoption by way of an established adoption program.

     (c) The attending or institutional veterinarian at a facility that is required to offer dogs or

cats for adoption under this section shall have the authority to assess the health of an animal and

determine whether an animal is suitable for adoption.


 

 

27)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-8.1-9

11 and 23

 

 

5-8.1-9. Board of registration for professional land surveyors -- Application and

qualification for registration.

     (a) (1) Application for registration as a professional land surveyor or certification as a

surveyor-in-training shall be made, in writing, on a form prescribed and furnished by the board of

land surveyors board of registration for professional land surveyors. The application shall:

     (i) Contain statements made under oath;

     (ii) Show the applicant's education;

     (iii) Contain a detailed summary of the applicant's technical and professional experience;

and

     (iv) Designate references as described in this section.

     (b) The fee established in � 5-8.1-11 must accompany each application. Failure to include

this fee will result in the application being returned to the applicant without consideration by the

board.

     (c) To be eligible for registration as a professional land surveyor, an applicant must be of

good character and reputation. Additionally, the applicant must submit five (5) references with

his or her application, three (3) of which are from registered professional land surveyors having

personal knowledge of his or her land surveying experience. No person seeking his or her initial

registration as a professional land surveyor shall be granted the certificate without first

completing a surveyor-in-training program as prescribed and approved by the board and pass

passing an examination in the fundamentals of land surveying. Upon passing that examination,

the applicant is granted a surveyor-in-training certificate in this state.

     (d) To be eligible for certification as a surveyor-in-training, an applicant must be of good

character and reputation substantiated by an interview with a quorum of the board of registration

board of registration of professional land surveyors and additionally must submit three (3)

character references one of which must be from a professional land surveyor.

     (e) One of the following shall be considered as minimum evidence to the board that the

applicant is qualified for registration as a professional land surveyor or for certification as a land-

surveyor-in training, respectively:

     (i) Graduation from a four-(4) year (4) survey degree program, experience and

examination. A graduate of a four-(4) year (4) survey degree program may be admitted to an

examination in the fundamentals of land surveying. Upon passing that examination the applicant

is granted a surveyor-in-training certificate in this state. After receiving the surveyor-in-training

certificate the applicant will need a specific record of a minimum four (4) years of experience in

land surveying. This verified experience shall be under the direct supervision of a registered

professional land surveyor, satisfactory to the board, and shall be broken down as follows.: At a

minimum, twenty percent (20%) shall be field experience,; twenty percent (20%) shall be

research, deed evidence, reconciliation, etc.; and twenty percent (20%) shall be property line

calculations and determination. Once the experience has been deemed satisfactory to the board,

the applicant may be admitted to an examination in the principles and practice of land surveying

plus an additional Rhode Island legal portion. Upon passing that examination, the applicant is

granted a certificate of registration to practice land surveying in this state, provided the applicant

is qualified.

     (ii) Graduation from a four-(4) year (4) degree program, experience and examination. A

graduate of a four-(4) year (4) degree program applicant who has also fulfilled the four (4) year

core curriculum (see paragraph (iii) below subsection (h) of this sectionmay be admitted to an

examination in the fundamentals of land surveying. Upon passing that examination the applicant

is granted a surveyor-in-training certificate in this state. After receiving the surveyor-in-training

certificate the applicant will need a specific record of a minimum five (5) years of experience in

land surveying. This verified experience shall be under the direct supervision of a registered

professional land surveyor, satisfactory to the board, and shall be broken down as follows: At a

minimum, twenty percent (20%) shall be field experience; twenty percent (20%) shall be

research, deed evidence, reconciliation, etc.; and twenty percent (20%) shall be property line

calculations and determination. Once the experience has been deemed satisfactory to the board,

the applicant may be admitted to an examination in the principles and practice of land surveying

plus an additional Rhode Island legal portion. Upon passing that examination, the applicant is

granted a certificate of registration to practice land surveying in this state, provided the applicant

is qualified.

     (iii) Four (4) year core curriculum. An applicant with a four (4) year degree as described

in paragraph (ii) above may need to take additional courses to fulfill, at a minimum, the following

core curriculum. For the following list of classes any equivalent class may be taken and any

survey related course may be substituted upon approval of the board:

     (A) Surveying I (3 credit hours), Surveying II (3 credit hours).

     (B) GPS & Geodetic control (3 credit hours).

     (C) Photogrammetry and remote sensing (3 credit hours).

     (D) Boundary adjustment computations (3 credit hours).

     (E) Land development/planning (3 credit hours).

     (F) Geographic/land information systems (3 credit hours).

     (G) Physics I with lab (4 credit hours).

     (H) Calculus I (4 credit hours), Calculus II (4 credit hours).

     (I) Statistical analysis (3 credit hours).

     (J) Law (12 credit hours): boundary law, law of contracts, law of property, estates &

trusts, professional ethics.

     (K) Business (9 credit hours): Quantitative business analysis I, business administration,

small business management, micro economics.

     (L) Science (9 credit hours): geology, astronomy, soils, dendrology, chemistry, biology,

ecology.

     (M) Computer usage (12 credit hours): introduction to computers, computer science,

computer programming, AutoCAD basics, AutoCAD advanced.

     (N) English composition (3 credit hours).

     (O) Advanced communication (6 credit hours): technical writing, creative writing or

speech.

     (iv)(iii) Graduation from a two-(2) year (2) survey degree program, experience, and

examination. A graduate of a two-(2) year (2) survey degree program may be admitted to an

examination in the fundamentals of land surveying. Upon passing that examination the applicant

is granted a surveyor-in-training certificate in this state. After receiving the surveyor-in-training

certificate the applicant will need a specific record of a minimum six (6) five (5) years of verified

experience in land surveying. (Four (4) of the years of experience shall be after receiving a

surveyor-in-training certificate). All six (6) five (5) years of experience shall be under the direct

supervision of a registered professional land surveyor, satisfactory to the board, and shall be

broken down as follows: At a minimum, twenty percent (20%) shall be field experience,; twenty

percent (20%) shall be research, deed evidence, reconciliation, etc.; and twenty percent (20%)

shall be property line calculations and determination. Once the experience has been deemed

satisfactory to the board, the applicant may be admitted to an examination in the principles and

practice of land surveying plus an additional Rhode Island legal portion. Upon passing that

examination, the applicant is granted a certificate of registration to practice land surveying in this

state, provided the applicant is qualified.

     (v)(iv) Graduation from a two-(2) year (2) degree program, experience, and examination.

A graduate of a two-(2) year (2) degree program applicant who has also fulfilled the two (2) year

core curriculum (see paragraph (vi) below subsection (h) of this sectionmay be admitted to an

examination in the fundamentals of land surveying. Upon passing that examination the applicant

is granted a surveyor-in-training certificate in this state. After receiving the surveyor-in-training

certificate the applicant will need a specific record of a minimum seven (7) five (5) years of

verified experience in land surveying. (Four (4) of the years of experience shall be after receiving

a surveyor-in-training certificate). All seven (7) five (5) years of experience shall be under the

direct supervision of a registered professional land surveyor, satisfactory to the board, and shall

be broken down as follows: At a minimum, twenty percent (20%) shall be field experience;

twenty percent (20%) shall be research, deed evidence, reconciliation, etc.; and twenty percent

(20%) shall be property line calculations and determination. Once the experience has been

deemed satisfactory to the board, the applicant may be admitted to an examination in the

principles and practice of land surveying plus an additional Rhode Island legal portion. Upon

passing that examination, the applicant is granted a certificate of registration to practice land

surveying in this state, provided the applicant is qualified.

     (vi) Two (2) year core curriculum. An applicant with a two (2) year degree as described

in paragraph (v) above may need to take additional courses to fulfill, at a minimum, the following

core curriculum. For the following list of classes any equivalent class may be taken and any

survey related course may be substituted upon approval of the board:

     (A) Surveying I (3 credit hours), Surveying II (3 credit hours).

     (B) Mathematics (12 credit hours): advanced algebra, analytical trigonometry, analytical

geometry, spherical trigonometry, statistical analysis or quantitative business analysis I,

Analytical trigonometry and analytical geometry are mandatory classes to fulfill the (12 credit

hours).

     (C) Business and law (6 credit hours): legal principles, business administration, law of

contracts, law of property, estates & trusts, professional ethics.

     (D) Science (6 credit hours): physics, geology, astronomy, soils, dendrology, chemistry,

biology, ecology.

     (E) Computer usage (6 credit hours): introduction to computers, computer science,

computer programming, AutoCAD basics, AutoCAD advanced.

     (F) English composition (3 credit hours).

     (G) Advanced communication (6 credit hours): technical writing, creative writing or

speech.

     (vii) Graduation from a two (2) year program, experience and examination. Any person

obtaining a minimum of five (5) years experience under the supervision of a registered

professional land surveyor, and is satisfactory to the board, may be admitted to an examination in

the fundamentals of land surveying. Upon passing that examination the applicant is granted a

surveyor-in-training certificate (LSIT), in this state provided the applicant is qualified. Upon

obtaining a specific record of a minimum of an additional five (5) years of experience of

combined office and field experience satisfactory to the board in land surveying, which

experience was under the direct supervision of a registered professional land surveyor, and which

experience indicates to the board that the applicant may be competent to practice land surveying,

and the person is a graduate of a land surveying or related curriculum of satisfactory standing, of

two (2) years or more approved by the board, who has obtained an associates degree in land

surveying or related curriculum, the applicant may be submitted to an examination in the

principles and practice of land surveying plus an additional Rhode Island legal portion. Upon

passing that examination, the applicant is granted a certificate of registration to practice land

surveying in this state, provided the applicant is qualified. This subsection expires at midnight,

December 31, 2009.

     (viii) In certain instances in which an applicant presents an experience of unusually high

quality, the board, at its complete discretion, may allow an applicant, having acquired six (6)

verified years of active office and field experience in land surveying, which experience has been

under the direct supervision of a professional land surveyor, to be admitted to an examination in

the fundamentals of land surveying. Upon passing those examinations, the applicant is granted a

surveyor-in-training certificate in the state. This subsection does not exempt the applicant from

the required degree or the experience after obtaining the surveyor-in-training certificate (LSIT).

     (v) Experience, and examination. An applicant that who has recorded a minimum of

seven (7) years verified experience and who has also fulfilled the core curriculum (see subsection

(h) of this section) will need a specific record of a minimum of seven (7) years of verified

experience in land surveying. All seven (7) years of experience shall be under the direct

supervision of a registered professional land surveyor, satisfactory to the board, and shall be

broken down as follows: At a minimum, twenty percent (20%) shall be field experience; twenty

percent (20%) shall be research, deed evidence, reconciliation, etc.; and twenty percent (20%)

shall be property line calculations and determination. Once the experience has been deemed

satisfactory to the board, the applicant may be admitted to an examination in the principles and

practice of land surveying plus an additional Rhode Island legal portion. Upon passing that

examination, the applicant is granted a certificate of registration to practice land surveying in this

state, provided the applicant is qualified .

     (ix)(vi) Surveying teaching. Teaching of advanced land surveying subjects in a college or

university offering an approved land surveying curriculum may be considered as land surveying

experience satisfactory to the board.

     (x)(vii) Registration by comity or endorsement. A person holding a current certificate of

registration to engage in the practice of land surveying issued to him or her by a proper authority

of a state, territory, or possession of the United States, or the District of Columbia must have, at

the time they were licensed, met the existing Rhode Island requirements for licensure. All

applicants applying under this section must have passed the written examinations in the

fundamentals of land surveying and the principles and practice of land surveying. If, based upon

verified evidence and the opinion of the board, the applicant meets all appropriate requirements

of this section, the applicant will be allowed to take the Rhode Island legal portion. Upon passing

this examination, the applicant shall be granted a certificate of registration to practice land

surveying in this state, provided the applicant is qualified.

     (f) The passing grade on all examinations offered by the land surveyors is not less than

seventy percent (70%). An applicant failing any examination may apply for re-examination upon

payment of the appropriate fees. An applicant who scores less than fifty percent (50%) on any

examination may not apply for re-examination for at least one year.

     (g) An applicant who fails any of the exams three (3) times shall be interviewed by the

board, before any further application can be acted upon. It is the applicant's responsibility to show

the board that he or she will be successful if allowed to take the exam again. If, in the board's

opinion, the applicant can not cannot satisfactorily demonstrate that he or she is qualified to re-

take the exam, the board may require that the applicant acquire additional knowledge, education,

and/or experience, satisfactory to the board before the applicant may sit for another exam.

     (h) Core curriculum. An applicant with a four-(4) year (4) degree as described in

subsection (e)(ii) of this section, a two-(2) year (2) degree as described in subsection (e)(iv) of

this section, or experience as described in subsection (e)(v) of this section may need to take

additional courses to fulfill, at a minimum, the following core curriculum. For the following list

of classes, any equivalent class may be taken and any survey-related course may be substituted

upon approval of the board:

     (1) Surveying (six (6) credit hours). Surveying I or equivalent, Surveying II or equivalent.

Courses must cover topics of GPS & Geodetic geodetic control and boundary adjustment

computations.

     (2) Mathematics (nine (9) credit hours). Qualifying courses: Algebra, Trigonometry, Pre-

calculus trigonometry, pre-calculus, or higher.

      (3) Business and law (six (6) credit hours). Qualifying courses: boundary law, contract

law, property law, trusts and estates, professional ethics, quantitative business analysis I, business

administration, small business management, micro economics, accounting principles, or related

courses.

     (4) Science (nine (9) credit hours). Qualifying courses: physics, geology, astronomy,

soils, dendrology, chemistry, biology, or ecology.

     (5) Computer Usage usage (three (3) credit hours). Qualifying courses: introduction to

computer, computer science, computer programing, AutoCad basics, AutoCAD advantage,

geographic/land information systems, introduction to spreadsheets, or word processing.

     (6) English composition, English composition II, technical writing, creative writing, or

speech (six (6) credit hours).


 

28)

Section

Repealed Chapter Numbers:

 

5-10-16

176 and 289

 

 

5-10-16. [Repealed.]


 

29)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11-1.1

80 and 94

 

 

5-11-1.1. "Hawkers", "peddlers", and "door-to-door salespersons" defined -- Authority

to issue rules and regulations.

     (a) For purposes of this chapter:

     (1) "Door-to-door salespersons" means persons who deliver goods, wares, or

merchandise to customers for which payment has already been made or is to be made at the time

of delivery;

     (2) "Hawker" means any person selling or offering for sale any goods, wares, or

merchandise, including any food or beverage, on any public street, highway, or public right of

way in the state from a stationary location;

     (3) "Peddler" means any person selling or offering for sale any goods, wares, or

merchandise, including any food or beverage, from a vehicle, cart, or any other conveyance that

is not stationary, subject to � 5-11-1.1 subsection (c); and

     (4) No "hawker" or "peddler" shall sell or offer for sale any single good, ware, or item

having a retail value of more than three hundred dollars ($300). However, this dollar limitation

shall not apply to any non-profit nonprofit corporation duly authorized to do business in Rhode

Island. A non-profit nonprofit corporation means a non-profit nonprofit corporation that has

applied under 26 U.S.C. � 501(c)(3) for approval as a � 501(c)(3) corporation with the Internal

Revenue Service, or has been so approved.

     (b) Persons selling farm or garden produce, including flowers, and persons selling works

of art or crafts of their own making at an art or crafts show or exhibition are not hawkers or

peddlers, provided, that:

     (1) Cumberland. The town of Cumberland has the power to license and regulate persons

selling farm or garden produce, including flowers, and persons selling works of art or crafts of

their own making at an art or crafts show or exhibition;

     (2) West Warwick. The town of West Warwick has the power to license and regulate

persons selling farm or garden produce, including flowers, and persons selling works of art or

crafts of their own making at an art or crafts show or exhibition;

     (3) Bristol. The town of Bristol has the power to license and regulate persons selling farm

or garden produce, including flowers, and persons selling works of art or crafts of their own

making at an art or crafts show or exhibition;

     (4) Warwick. The city of Warwick has the power to license and regulate persons selling

farm or garden produce, including flowers, and persons selling works of art or crafts of their own

making at an art or crafts show or exhibition;

     (5) East Providence. The city of East Providence has the power to license and regulate

persons selling farm or garden produce, including flowers; and

     (6) Woonsocket. The city of Woonsocket has the power to license and regulate peddlers

selling or offering flowers.

     (c) "Mobile food establishments" registered pursuant to chapter 11.1 of title 5 chapter

11.1 of this title, and any regulations promulgated thereunder, are not hawkers or peddlers and

are explicitly exempted from this chapter.

     SECTION 2. Title 5 of the General Laws entitled "BUSINESSES AND PROFESSIONS"

is hereby amended by adding thereto the following chapter:


 

30)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11.1

80 and 94

 

 

CHAPTER 11.1

STATE MOBILE FOOD ESTABLISHMENT REGISTRATION ACT


 

31)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11.1-1

80 and 94

 

 

5-11.1-1. Short title.

     This chapter shall be known and may be cited as the "State Mobile Food Establishment

Registration Act."


 

32)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11.1-2

80 and 94

 

 

5-11.1-2. Purpose.

     The intent of this chapter is to standardize the registration process for mobile food

establishments in the state by authorizing the department of business regulation to issue state

mobile food establishment registrations. Furthermore, this chapter explicitly exempts the selling

of food or beverages from the provisions of chapter 11 of title 5 chapter 11 of this title which

applies to hawkers and peddlers.


 

33)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11.1-3

80 and 94

 

 

5-11.1-3. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter, the following terms shall have the following meanings:

     (1) "Department" means the department of business regulation.

     (2) "Director" means the director of the department of business regulation.

     (3) "Event permit" means a permit that a city or town issues to the organizer of a public

mobile food establishment event located on public property.

     (4) "Fire safety code" shall have the meaning set forth in chapter 28.1 of title 23 and shall

include any regulations promulgated thereunder.

     (5) "Mobile food establishment" means a food service operation that is operated from a

movable motor-driven or propelled vehicle, portable structure, or watercraft that can change

location. Mobile food establishments specifically includes, but is not limited to, food trucks, food

carts, ice-cream trucks/carts, and lemonade trucks/carts.

     (6) "Mobile food establishment event" means an event where an individual has ordered or

commissioned the operation of one or more mobile food establishments at a private or public

gathering.

     (7) "Mobile food establishment operator" or "operator" means a person or corporate

entity who or that owns, manages, or controls, or who or that has the duty to manage or control,

the operation of a mobile food establishment.

     (8) "Mobile food establishment vendor" or "vendor" means a person who prepares, sells,

cooks, or serves food or beverages from a mobile food establishment.

     (9) "Municipal mobile food establishment permit" means a permit issued by a city or

town to a mobile food establishment operator that possesses a current state mobile food

establishment registration.

     (10) "Registrant" means the holder of a "state mobile food establishment registration."

     (11) "RIDOH" means the Rhode Island department of health.

     (12) "State mobile food establishment registration" or "registration" means a registration

issued by the department which authorizes a mobile food establishment to operate in the state.

     (13) "Temporary mass gathering":

     (i) Means an actual or reasonably anticipated assembly of five hundred (500) or more

people that continues, or reasonably can be expected to continue, for two (2) or more hours per

day; or an event that requires a more extensive review to protect public health and safety because

the event's nature or conditions have the potential of generating environmental or health risks.

     (ii) Includes, but is not limited to, "special events" as defined in the food code regulations

promulgated by RIDOH, and festivals and concerts.

     (iii) Shall not include an assembly of people at a location with permanent facilities

designed for that specific assembly.


 

34)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11.1-4

80 and 94

 

 

5-11.1-4. Practices for which registration is required.

     Beginning on July 1, 2019, it shall be unlawful for any person or entity to operate a

mobile food establishment, in this state without first receiving a registration from the department

and any applicable municipal permit(s) in accordance with this chapter.


 

35)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11.1-5

80 and 94

 

 

5-11.1-5. Registration applications and requirements.

     (a) An application for a state mobile food establishment registration shall be made to the

department on forms adopted by the department and accompanied by the required fee of fifty

dollars ($50.00).

     (b) The application shall, at a minimum, include the following information:

     (1) The name and address of the applicant and, if the applicant is an entity, the name and

address of at least one natural person who is in responsible charge of the operations on behalf of

the applicant;

     (2) Evidence of a current:

     (i) Mobile food service license from RIDOH;

     (ii) Fire safety permit, if applicable;

     (iii) Motor vehicle registration, if applicable;

     (iv) Motor vehicle insurance, if applicable;

     (v) Evidence of financial responsibility that is acceptable to the department; and

     (vi) Permit to make sales at retail from the Rhode Island division of taxation.

     (3) Any other such information as the department shall require.

     (c) If an applicant or registrant operates more than one mobile food establishment, the

applicant or registrant shall submit a separate application for each mobile food establishment and

pay a separate application fee per year for each mobile food establishment registered by the

department.

     (d) The fees for initial registration, renewal, and late renewals shall be determined by the

department and established by regulation.

     (e) The department shall receive applications for initial registration and renewal and

establish administrative procedures for processing applications and issuing and renewing

registrations.

     (f) All application requirements must be maintained and kept current for the duration of

the Registration registration.

     (g) The department may work with the state fire marshal to establish fees for fire safety

permit inspections by regulation.


 

36)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

5-11.1-6

80 and 94

 

 

5-11.1-6. Issuance and renewal of registration.

     (a) A registration issued by the department pursuant to this chapter shall be valid for one

year from the date on which it was issued or for another period of time as determined by the

department.

     (b) Every mobile food establishment operator who or that desires to renew a registration

for the next year shall apply for renewal upon a form furnished by the department, accompanied

by a fee to be set by the department in regulations, and containing information that is required by

the department.

     (c) Renewal of a registration may be subject to the same provisions as the initial

application.


 

37)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11.1-7

80 and 94

 

 

5-11.1-7. Authority to operate a mobile food establishment in any city or town.

     (a) To operate in any city or town, a mobile food establishment operator shall provide

proof of having a state mobile food establishment registration to the city or town that the mobile

food establishment wishes to operate in.

     (b) If a mobile food establishment presents this registration, then a city or town shall not:

     (1) Impose additional qualification requirements on the mobile food establishment

operator before issuing a municipal mobile food establishment permit to operate within the city or

town;

     (2) Charge a fee for a municipal mobile food establishment permit, event permit, or

temporary mass gathering permit greater than the maximum fee set by the department and

established by regulations;

     (3) Issue a permit that expires on a date earlier or later than the day on which the state

mobile food establishment registration expires; or

     (4) Require additional municipal mobile food establishment permits or charge additional

fees beyond the initial municipal mobile food establishment permit and fee for the operation of

that same mobile food establishment in more than one location or on more than one day within

the same city and town in the same calendar year.

     (c) Nothing in this section prevents a city or town from:

     (1) Requiring a mobile food establishment operator or event organizer to obtain an event

permit, provided that the fee is not greater than the maximum set by the department in

regulations;

     (2) Denying, suspending, or revoking a permit that the city or town has issued if the

operation of the registrant within the city or town violates the city's or town's land use regulations,

zoning, or other ordinances in relation to the operation of a mobile food establishment; or

     (3) Requiring a separate temporary mass gathering permit, provided that the fee is not

greater than the maximum set by the department in regulations.

     (d) Cities and towns will retain the authority to restrict the operation of mobile food

establishments in their city or town by ordinance with respect to:

     (1) Number of permits granted;

     (2) Location of operation;

     (3) Hours of operation; and

     (4) Noise.


 

38)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11.1-8

80 and 94

 

 

5-11.1-8. Municipal compliance.

     All cities and towns shall comply with the provisions of this chapter by July 1, 2019.


 

39)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11.1-9

80 and 94

 

 

5-11.1-9. Display of registration and municipal permits.

     (a) State mobile food establishment registrations must be affixed to the mobile food

establishment in a conspicuous place.

     (b) When the mobile food establishment is doing business in a city or town that issues

permits, the permit must also be affixed to the mobile food establishment in a conspicuous place.


 

40)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11.1-10

80 and 94

 

 

5-11.1-10. Mobile food establishment safety standards.

     (a) Mobile food establishments shall comply with RIDOH's statutes, rules, regulations,

and policies relating to food safety.

     (b) Mobile food establishments shall comply with the fire safety code, if applicable.


 

41)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11.1-11

80 and 94

 

 

5-11.1-11. Grounds for denial, suspension or revocation of a state mobile food

establishment registration.

     (a) Upon receipt of a written complaint, the request of RIDOH, or the state fire marshal,

or upon its own initiative, the department may place on probation, suspend, revoke, or refuse to

issue or renew a state mobile food establishment registration or may levy an administrative

penalty or any combination of actions, for any one or more of the following causes:

     (1) Providing incorrect, misleading, incomplete, or materially untrue information in the

registration application;

     (2) Violating any statutes, rules, regulations, ordinances, or policies applicable to the safe

operation of a mobile food establishment, specifically including the fire safety code and those set

forth by the department, RIDOH, and the state fire marshal;

     (3) Obtaining or attempting to obtain a registration through misrepresentation or fraud;

     (4) Having admitted to or been found to have committed any food safety or fire safety

violation;

     (5) Using fraudulent, coercive, or dishonest practices or demonstrating incompetence,

untrustworthiness, or financial irresponsibility in this state or in another place;

     (6) Having a registration, or its equivalent, denied, suspended, or revoked in any other

state, province, district or territory or administrative action under this section;

     (7) Operating a mobile food establishment without a current and valid registration;

     (8) Having its mobile food service license or fire safety permit denied, suspended or

revoked;

     (9) Having a substantive complaint of foodborne illness or food-related illness; or

     (10) A mobile food establishment operator, vendor, or principal thereof having been

convicted of or having plead pled nolo contendere to a felony that is relevant to that person's

  • suitability for a mobile food establishment registration.

     (b) In the event that the action by the department is to non-renew or to deny an

application for a registration, the department shall notify the applicant or registrant and advise, in

writing, the reason for the denial or non-renewal of the registration. The applicant or registrant

may make written demand upon the department within thirty (30) days for a hearing. The hearing

shall be conducted pursuant to the administrative procedures act, chapter 35 of title 42.

     (c) In addition to or in lieu of any applicable denial, suspension, or revocation of a

registration, a person may, after hearing, be subject to an administrative penalty not to exceed the

maximum set forth by regulation.

     (d) The department shall retain the authority to enforce the provisions of and impose any

penalty or remedy authorized by this chapter and this title against any person or entity who is in

violation of this chapter or this title even if the person or entity's registration has been surrendered

or has lapsed by operation of the law.


 

42)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11.1-12

80 and 94

 

 

5-11.1-12. Order to cease and desist.

     (a) If the department has reason to believe that any person, firm, corporation, or

association is conducting any activities requiring registration in this chapter without obtaining a

registration, or who after the denial, suspension, or revocation of a registration conducts any

activities requiring registration under this chapter, the department may issue its order to that

person, firm, corporation, or association commanding them to appear before the department at a

hearing to be held no sooner than ten (10) days nor later than twenty (20) days after issuance of

that order to show cause why the department should not issue an order to that person or entity to

cease and desist from the violation of the provisions of this chapter.

     (b) All hearings shall be governed by the administrative procedures act, chapter 35 of title

42 and by the department's rules of procedure for administrative hearings.


 

43)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11.1-13

80 and 94

 

 

5-11.1-13. Responsibility of registrant for acts of agents/employees.

     If a registrant is a firm or corporation, it is sufficient cause for the suspension or

revocation of a registration that any officer, director, manager, or trustee of the firm or entity or

any member or partner, in the case of a partnership, has been found by the department to have

engaged in any act or omission that would be cause for denying, suspending, or revoking a

registration to that party as an individual. Each registrant shall be responsible for the acts of any

person working on their mobile food establishment or any person acting as the agent for that

registrant, and for the acts of any chef or other employee acting as the agent for that registrant.


 

44)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-11.1-14

80 and 94

 

 

5-11.1-14. Rulemaking authority.

     The department is authorized to promulgate rules and regulations for the implementation

of this chapter and the registration of mobile food establishments in the state.


 

45)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-19.1-33

150 and 254

 

 

5-19.1-33. Partial fill of Schedule II controlled substance.

     (a) A pharmacist may dispense a Schedule schedule II controlled substance, as listed in �

21-28-2.08, as a partial fill if requested by the patient or the prescriber.

     (b) If a pharmacist dispenses a partial fill on a prescription pursuant to this section, the

pharmacy shall retain the original prescription, with a notation of how much of the prescription

has been filled, until the prescription has been fully dispensed. The total quantity dispensed shall

not exceed the total quantity prescribed.

     (c) Subsequent fills, until the original prescription is completely dispensed, shall occur at

the pharmacy where the original prescription was partially filled. The full prescription shall be

dispensed not more than thirty (30) days after the date on which the prescription was written.

Thirty-one (31) days after the date on which the prescription was written, the prescription shall

expire and no more of the drug shall be dispensed without a subsequent prescription.

     (d) The pharmacist shall record in the prescription-drug-monitoring-program

prescription-drug-monitoring program, maintained by the department of health pursuant to �

21-28-3.18, only the actual amounts of the drug dispensed.

     (e) The pharmacist shall record the date and amount of each partial fill in a readily

retrievable form and on the original prescription, and shall include the initials of the pharmacist

who dispensed each partial fill.

     (f) This section is not intended to conflict with or supersede any other requirement

established for the prescription of a Schedule schedule II controlled substance.

     (g) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

     (1) "Original prescription" means the prescription presented by the patient to the

pharmacy or submitted electronically to the pharmacy.

     (2) "Partial fill" means a part of a prescription filled that is of a quantity less than the

entire prescription.


 

46)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-20.5-14

38 and 41

 

 

5-20.5-14. Revocation, suspension of license -- Probationary period -- Penalties.

     (a) The director may, upon his or her own motion, and shall, upon the receipt of the

written verified complaint of any person initiating a cause under this section, ascertain the facts

and, if warranted, hold a hearing for the suspension or revocation of a license. The director has

power to refuse a license for cause or to suspend or revoke a license or place a licensee on

probation for a period not to exceed one year where it has been obtained by false representation,

or by fraudulent act or conduct, or where a licensee, in performing or attempting to perform any

of the acts mentioned in this chapter, is found to have committed any of the following acts or

practices:

     (1) Making any substantial misrepresentation;

     (2) Making any false promise of a character likely to influence, persuade, or induce any

person to enter into any contract or agreement when he or she could not or did not intend to keep

that promise;

     (3) Pursuing a continued and flagrant course of misrepresentation or making of false

promises through salespersons, other persons, or any medium of advertising, or otherwise;

     (4) Any misleading or untruthful advertising;

     (5) Failing to deposit money or other customers' funds received by a broker or

salesperson into an escrow account maintained by the broker that complies with the requirements

set forth in � 5-20.5-26, upon execution of a purchase and sales agreement;

     (6) Failing to preserve for three (3) years following its consummation records relating to

any real estate transaction as described in the regulations issued by the department;

     (7) Acting for more than one party in a transaction without the knowledge and consent, in

writing, of all parties for whom he or she acts;

     (8) Placing a "for sale" or "for rent" sign on any property without the written consent of

the owner, or his or her authorized agent;

     (9) Failing to furnish a copy of any listing, sale, lease, or other contract relevant to a real

estate transaction to all signatories of the contract at the time of execution;

     (10) Failing to specify a definite termination date that is not subject to prior notice, in any

listing contract;

     (11) Inducing any party to a contract, sale, or lease to break that contract for the purpose

of substitution in lieu of that contract a new contract, where that substitution is motivated by the

personal gain of the licensee;

     (12) Accepting a commission or any valuable consideration by a salesperson for the

performance of any acts specified in this chapter, from any person, except the licensed real estate

broker with whom he or she is affiliated;

     (13) Failing to disclose to an owner his or her intention or true position if he or she,

directly or indirectly through a third party, purchases for him or herself or acquires or intends to

acquire any interest in or any option to purchase property that has been listed with his or her

office to sell or lease;

     (14) Being convicted of any criminal felony in a court of competent jurisdiction of this or

any other state or federal court involving dishonesty, breach of trust, forgery, embezzlement,

obtaining money under false pretenses, bribery, larceny, extortion, conspiracy to defraud, fraud,

false dealing, or any similar offense(s) or by pleading guilty or nolo contendere to any such

criminal offense or offenses;

     (15) Violating any rule or regulation promulgated by the department in the interest of the

public and consistent with the provisions of this chapter;

     (16) In the case of a broker licensee, failing to exercise adequate supervision over the

activities of his or her licensed salesperson within the scope of this chapter;

     (17) Failing or refusing to provide information requested by the commission or director

as the result of a formal or informal complaint to the director that would indicate a violation of

this chapter;

     (18) Soliciting, selling, or offering for sale real property by offering free lots, or

conducting lotteries or contests or offering prizes for the purpose of influencing a purchaser or

prospective purchaser of real property;

     (19) Paying or accepting, giving, or charging any undisclosed commission, rebate,

compensation, or profit or expenditures for a principal, or in violation of this chapter;

     (20) Any conduct in a real estate transaction that demonstrates bad faith, dishonesty,

untrustworthiness, or incompetence;

     (21) Failing to have all listing agreements in writing, properly identifying the property

and containing all of the terms and conditions of the sale, including the commission to be paid,

the signatures of all parties concerned, and a definite expiration date in that contract, which that

shall not require an owner to notify a broker of his or her intention to terminate. An exclusive

agency listing or exclusive right to sell listing shall be clearly indicated in the listing agreement;

     (22) Accepting a listing based on "net price". In cases where the owner wishes to list in

this manner, the agreed-upon commission is added and listings made in the usual manner;

     (23) Negotiating, or attempting to negotiate, the sale, exchange, or lease of any real

property directly with an owner or lessor knowing that the owner or lessor has an outstanding

exclusive listing contract with another licensee covering the same property, except when the real

estate broker or salesperson is contacted by the client of another broker regarding a real estate

service, and the broker or salesperson has not directly or indirectly initiated those discussions,

they may discuss the terms under which they might enter into future agency agreement; or they

may enter into an agency agreement that becomes effective upon termination of any existing

exclusive agreement; or they may enter into an agreement for other real estate service not covered

by an existing agency relationship;

     (24) Accepting an exclusive right to sell or lease or an exclusive agency and subsequently

failing to make a diligent effort to sell or lease the listed property;

     (25) Advising against the use of the services of an attorney in any real estate transaction;

     (26) Representing to any lender or any other party in interest, either verbally or through

the preparation of a false sales contract, an amount other than the true and actual sales price;

     (27) Submitting to an owner a written offer to purchase or lease unless that offer contains

the essential terms and conditions of the offer, including the manner in which the purchase price

is to be paid, and if that offer is contingent upon certain conditions, those conditions shall be

clearly stated in the offer, or unless the offer is conditioned upon the later execution of a complete

agreement for sale;

     (28) Paying any sums of money being held in an escrow account to any person, or

converting such the sums of money for his or her own use, in the event of a failed real estate

transaction, without having complied with the department's rules and regulations relative to the

transfer of disputed deposit funds to the office of the general treasurer;

     (29) Advertising to sell, buy, exchange, rent, or lease the property of another in a manner

indicating that the offer to sell, buy, exchange, rent, or lease that property is being made by a

private party not engaged in the real estate business, nor inserting advertisements in any

publication containing only a post office or other box number, telephone number, or street

address. No salesperson shall advertise the property of another under his or her own name;

     (30) As a licensed salesperson, failing upon termination of his or her employment or

affiliation with a real estate broker and upon demand by the broker to immediately turn over to

the broker any and all information, records, or other materials obtained during his or her

employment, whether the information or records were originally given to him or her by the broker

or copied from the records of that broker or affiliation or acquired by the salesperson during his

or her employment;

     (31) Offering, promising, giving, or paying, directly or indirectly, any part or share of his

or her commission or compensation arising or accruing from any real estate transaction to any

person who is not licensed as a real estate broker, but who by law should be licensed, or who is

not a real estate salesperson employed by that licensee;

     (32) Soliciting the sale, lease, or the listing for sale or lease, of residential property on the

ground of loss of value due to the present or prospective entry in the neighborhood of a person or

persons of another race, religion, or ethnic origin, nor shall he or she distribute, or cause to be

distributed, material or make statements designed to induce a residential property owner to sell or

lease his or her property due to such factors;

     (33) Failure of the employing broker to notify the director, in writing, within ten (10)

days of the termination of a salesperson's employment of contractual relationship, or failure of a

salesperson to notify the director, in writing, within ten (10) days of any change in his/her broker

affiliation;

     (34) Failure to report all written offers to the owner prior to the signing of a purchase and

sale agreement by the owner;

     (35) Failure of agents to provide buyers and sellers of real property with disclosure

regarding real estate agency relationships as specified in chapter 20.6 of this title;

     (36) Failure of an associate broker to inform the public of associate broker status by not

listing associate broker on business cards and correspondence or by informing the public that his

or her status in the real estate firm is that of broker; or

     (37) Failure to pay sums of money being held in an escrow account, pursuant to � 5-20.5-

26, within ten (10) days of receipt of a written release that has been signed by all parties to a

failed real estate transaction.

     (b) The director is authorized to levy an administrative penalty not exceeding one

thousand dollars ($1,000) two thousand dollars ($2,000) for any violation under this section or the

rules and regulations of the department of business regulation.


 

47)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-25-10

176 and 289

 

 

5-25-10. Qualifications for licensure.

     Any applicant for licensure shall submit to the department written evidence on forms

furnished by the department verified by oath that the applicant meets all of the following

requirements:

     (1) Is a graduate of a school or college of veterinary medicine recognized and accredited

by the American Veterinary Medical Association and by the department or certification by the

Educational Council for Foreign Veterinary Graduates;

     (2) Pays an application fee as set forth in � 23-1-54 at the time of submitting the

application, which, in no case is returned to the applicant;

     (3) Is of good moral character, evidenced in the manner prescribed by the department;

and

     (4) Complies with any other qualifications that the department prescribes by regulation;

and

     (5) Comply Complies with the continuing education requirements adopted by the

department.


 

48)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-30-6

176 and 289

 

 

5-30-6. Qualifications and examinations of applicants.

     Every person desiring to begin the practice of chiropractic medicine, except as provided

in this chapter, shall present satisfactory evidence to the division of professional regulation of the

department of health, verified by oath, that he or she is more than twenty-three (23) years of age,

of good moral character, and that before he or she commenced the study of chiropractic medicine

had satisfactorily completed credit courses equal to four (4) years of pre-professional study

acceptable by an accredited academic college and obtained a bachelor of science or bachelor of

arts degree and subsequently graduated from a school or college of chiropractic medicine

approved by the division of professional regulation of the department of health, and has

completed a residential course of at least four (4) years, each year consisting of at least nine (9)

months study. Any qualified applicant shall take an examination before the state board of

chiropractic examiners to determine his or her qualifications to practice chiropractic medicine.

Every applicant for an examination shall pay a fee as set forth in � 23-1-54 for the examination to

the division of professional regulation. Every candidate who passes the examination shall be

recommended by the division of professional regulation of the department of health to the

director of the department of health to receive a certificate of qualification to practice chiropractic

medicine.


 

 

 

 

 

49)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-34-10

176 and 289

 

 

5-34-10. Qualifications of professional nurse applicants.

     An applicant for licensure to practice as a professional nurse shall submit to the board

written evidence on forms furnished by the division of professional regulation, verified by oath,

that the applicant:

     (1) Has completed at least an approved high school course of study or the equivalent

supported by diploma or certificate of the course of study as determined by the rules and

regulations of the state board of education;

     (2) Has successfully completed the prescribed curriculum in an approved basic

professional nursing education program and holds a diploma from the program; and

     (3) Is of good moral character.


 

50)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-35.1-3

176 and 289

 

 

5-35.1-3. Application for examination and license.

     Every person desiring to be licensed to practice optometry as provided in this chapter

shall file with the department, in the form prescribed by the department, an application, verified

by oath, presenting the facts which entitle the applicant to a license to practice optometry under

this chapter. No one shall be permitted to practice optometry in this state without a valid license.


   

51)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-37.2-12.1

176 and 289

 

 

5-37.2-12.1. Examination requirements and issuance of license.

     (a) No person shall be licensed as a doctor of acupuncture and Oriental medicine unless

he or she has passed the examination by the National Commission of Certification of

Acupuncture and Oriental Medicine. National Certification Commission for Acupuncture and

Oriental Medicine or successor entity.

     (b) Before any applicant is eligible for licensure, he or she shall furnish satisfactory proof

that he or she:

     (1) Is a United States citizen or legal alien;

     (2) Has demonstrated proficiency in the English language;

     (3) Is at least twenty one (21) years of age;

     (4) Is of good moral character;

     (5) Has completed an accredited program of at least thirty-six (36) months and not less

than twenty-five hundred (2,500) hours of training and has received a certificate or diploma from

an institute approved by the Accreditation Commission for Schools and Colleges of Acupuncture

and Oriental Medicine, according to the provisions of this chapter; provided, that this subdivision

does not apply to anyone licensed to practice under chapter 37 of this title who is qualified to take

and pass the test by the National Commission for the Certification of Acupuncture and Oriental

Medicine;

     (6) Has completed a clinical internship training that is designated as appropriate by the

National Commission for the Certification of Acupuncture and Oriental Medicine; and

     (7) Has three (3) letters of reference from reputable individuals other than relatives and at

least two (2) of which are from licensed or registered doctors of acupuncture and Oriental

medicine.


 

52)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-40-6

176 and 289

 

 

5-40-6. Qualification of physical therapists.

     Any applicant for licensure shall submit to the board written evidence on forms furnished

by the department of health, verified by oath, that the applicant meets all of the following

requirements:

     (1) Is at least eighteen (18) years of age;

     (2) Is of good moral character;

     (3) Has graduated from an education program in physical therapy accredited by the

Commission on Accreditation of Physical Therapy Education (CAPTE) or other accrediting

agency as approved by the department in consultation with the board, in the year of the

applicant's graduation; and

     (4) Has passed the National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE) of the Federation of

State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT) or other physical therapy certification examination as

approved by the department in consultation with the board to determine the applicant's fitness to

engage in the practice of physical therapy.


 

53)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-40-6.1

176 and 289

 

 

5-40-6.1. Qualifications of physical therapist assistants.

     Any applicant for licensure shall submit to the board written evidence on forms furnished

by the department of health, verified by oath, that the applicant meets all of the following

requirements:

     (1) Is at least eighteen (18) years of age;

     (2) Is of good moral character;

     (3) Has graduated from an educational program in physical therapy accredited by the

Commission on Accreditation of Physical Therapy Education (CAPTE) or other accrediting

agency as approved by the department in consultation with the board, in the year of said the

applicant's graduation; and

     (4) Has passed the National Physical Therapy Examination (NPTE) of the Federation of

State Boards of Physical Therapy (FSBPT) or other physical therapy assistant certification

examination as approved by the department in consultation with the board to determine the

applicant's fitness to engage in the practice of physical therapy.


 

 

 

54)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-40.1-8

176 and 289

 

 

5-40.1-8. Requirements for licensure.

     (a) Any applicant seeking licensure as an occupational therapist or occupational therapy

     assistant in this state must:

     (1) Be at least eighteen (18) years of age;

     (2) Be of good moral character;

     (3) Have successfully completed the academic requirements of an education program in

occupational therapy accredited by the American Occupational Therapy Association's

Accreditation Council for Occupational Therapy Education or other therapy accrediting agency

that may be approved by the board;

     (4) Have successfully completed a period of supervised fieldwork experience arranged by

the recognized educational institution where he or she met the academic requirements:

     (i) For an occupational therapist, a minimum of twenty-four (24) weeks of supervised

fieldwork experience shall be required;

     (ii) For an occupational therapy assistant, a minimum of twelve (12) weeks shall be

required;

     (5) Have successfully passed the National Certification Examination for Occupational

Therapists, Registered, or National Certification Examination for Occupational Therapy

Assistants, of the National Board for Certification in Occupational Therapy (NBCOT) or other

occupational therapy certification examination as approved by the board.

     (b) Application for licensure to practice occupational therapy in this state, either by

endorsement or by examination, shall be made on forms provided by the division, which that

shall be completed, notarized, and submitted to the board thirty (30) days prior to the scheduled

date of the board meeting. The application shall be accompanied by the following documents:

     (1) Three (3) affidavits from responsible persons attesting to the applicant's good moral

character; Is of good moral character, evidenced in the manner prescribed by the department.

     (2) For U.S. citizens: a certified copy of birth record or naturalization papers;

     (3) For non-U.S. citizens: documented evidence of alien status, such as immigration

papers or resident alien card or any other verifying papers acceptable to the administrator;

     (4) Documented evidence and supporting transcripts of qualifying credentials as

prescribed in this section;

     (5) One unmounted passport photograph of the applicant (head and shoulder view)

approximately 2x3 inches in size;

     (6) (5) A statement from the board of occupational therapy in each state in which the

applicant has held or holds licensure, or is otherwise subject to state regulation, to be submitted to

the board of this state attesting to the licensure status of the applicant during the time period the

applicant held licensure in that state; and

     (7) (6) The results of the written national examination of the National Board for

Certification in Occupational Therapy (NBCOT).

     (c)(1) Applicants seeking licensure as occupational therapists or occupational therapy

assistants are required to pass the national written examination of the National Board for

Certification in Occupational Therapy (NBCOT) approved by the board to test the applicant's

fitness to engage in the practice of occupational therapy pursuant to the provisions of this chapter.

     (2) The date, time, and place of examinations shall be available from the National Board

for Certification in Occupational Therapy (NBCOT).

     (d) In case any applicant fails to satisfactorily pass an examination, the applicant shall be

entitled to re-examination.

     (e) Occupational therapists and occupational therapy assistants who are licensed or

regulated to practice under laws of another state or territory or the District of Columbia may,

upon receiving a receipt from the division, perform as an occupational therapist or occupational

therapy assistant under the supervision of a qualified and licensed occupational therapist or

occupational therapy assistant. If this applicant fails to receive licensure when the board reviews

the application, all previously mentioned privileges automatically cease.

     (f) Applicants from foreign occupational therapy schools must meet the requirements of

the National Board for Certification in Occupational Therapy (NBCOT) and present evidence of

passage of the National Certification Examination for Occupational Therapists or the National

Certification Examination for Occupational Therapy Assistants of the NBCOT. Applicants must

meet all of the appropriate requirements for licensure to the satisfaction of the board and in

accordance with the statutory and regulatory provisions of this chapter.


 

55)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-44-9

176 and 289

 

 

5-44-9. Qualifications of psychologists.

     An applicant for licensure shall submit to the board written evidence acceptable to the

department, verified under oath, that the applicant:

     (1) Is of good moral character;

     (2) Has received a doctorate degree in psychology from a college or university whose

program of study for that degree at that time meets or exceeds the stated requirements for

approval by the American Psychological Association, or its equivalent in terms of excellence of

education and training, or a doctorate degree in an allied field whose education and training

requirements are substantially similar to current American Psychological Association standards of

accreditation for the granting of a doctorate in psychology;

     (3) Has had the requisite supervised experience as deemed acceptable to the board as

delineated in the rules and regulations;

     (4) Has passed an examination conducted by the board to determine his or her

qualification for licensure as a psychologist, or is applying under the provisions of � 5-44-11;.


 

56)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-63.2-9

176 and 289

 

 

5-63.2-9. Qualifications of licensed clinical mental health counselors.

     (a) An applicant for licensure shall submit to the board written evidence on forms

furnished by the division of professional regulation verified under oath that the applicant:

     (1) Is of good character; and

     (2) Has received a graduate degree specializing in counseling/therapy from a college or

university accredited by the New England Association of Schools and Colleges, or an equivalent

regional accrediting agency, and which has the approval by a cognizable national or regional

certifying authority; and

     (3) Has completed sixty (60) semester hours or ninety (90) quarter hours within their

graduate counseling/therapy program; and

     (4) Has completed a minimum of twelve (12) semester hours or eighteen (18) quarter

hours of supervised practicum and a minimum of one calendar year of supervised internship

consisting of twenty (20) hours per week, or its equivalent, with emphasis in mental health

counseling supervised by the department within the college or university granting the requisite

degree or by an accredited postgraduate clinical training program recognized by the United States

Department of Education, or education and/or experience which that is deemed equivalent by the

board; and

     (5) Has completed a minimum of two (2) years of relevant postgraduate experience,

including at least two thousand (2,000) hours of direct client contact offering clinical or

counseling or therapy services with emphasis in mental health counseling subsequent to being

awarded a master's degree, certificate of advanced graduate study, or doctorate; and

     (6) A minimum of one hundred (100) hours of post-degree supervised case work spread

over a two-(2)year (2) period; provided, that the supervision was provided by a person who, at the

time of rendering the supervision, was recognized by the board as an approved supervisor; and

     (7) Has passed, to the satisfaction of the board, an examination conducted by it to

determine the applicant's qualification for licensure as a clinical mental health counselor or is

applying for licensure under the provisions of � 5-63.2-15.

     (b) A candidate shall be held to have qualified for licensure as a clinical mental health

counselor upon the affirmative vote of at least four (4) members of the board, two (2) of whom

must be mental health counselors on the board.


 

57)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-63.2-10

176 and 289

 

 

5-63.2-10. Qualifications of licensed � Marriage and family therapists.

     (a) An applicant for licensure shall submit to the board written evidence on forms

furnished by the division of professional regulation verified under oath that the applicant:

     (1) Is of good character; and

     (2) Has completed a graduate degree program specializing in marital and family therapy

from a college or university accredited by the New England Association of Schools and Colleges,

or an equivalent regional accreditation agency; and

     (3) Has completed sixty (60) semester hours or ninety (90) quarter hours within their

graduate degree program specializing in marital and family therapy; and

     (4) Has completed a minimum of twelve (12) semester hours or eighteen (18) quarter

hours of supervised practicum and a one-calendar year of supervised internship consisting of

twenty (20) hours per week, or its equivalent, with emphasis in marriage and family therapy

supervised by the department within the college or university granting the requisite degree or by

an accredited postgraduate clinical training program, approved by the commission on

accreditation for marriage and family therapy education recognized by the United States

department of education or education and/or experience which that is deemed equivalent by the

board; and

     (5) Has had a minimum of two (2) years of relevant postgraduate experience, including at

least two thousand (2,000) hours of direct client contact offering clinical or counseling or therapy

services with emphasis in marriage and family therapy subsequent to being awarded a master's

degree or doctorate; and

     (6) Has had a minimum of one hundred (100) hours of post-degree supervised case work

spread over two (2) years; provided, that the supervision was provided by a person who, at the

time of rendering the supervision, was recognized by the board as an approved supervisor; and

     (7) Has passed to the satisfaction of the board an examination conducted by it to

determine the applicant's qualifications for licensure as a marriage and family therapist or is

applying for licensure under the provisions of � 5-63.2-15.

     (b) A candidate shall be qualified for licensure as a marriage and family therapist upon

the affirmative vote of at least four (4) members of the board, two (2) of whom must be marriage

and family therapists on the board.


 

58)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-65-19

64 and 69

 

 

5-65-19. Penalty for operating without a registration -- Failure to comply with a

final order of the board -- Repeat offense a felony.

     (a) Any person who violates a final order of the board, or fails to register as a contractor

as stipulated adjudged in a final order issued by the boardand upon proper written notification, is

deemed guilty of a misdemeanor, and, upon conviction, shall be imprisoned for a term not

exceeding one year, or fined not more than five thousand dollars ($5,000) one thousand dollars

($1,000), or both, for a first or second offense and not more than ten thousand dollars ($10,000)

for a second and/or subsequent offense(s) eachA third or subsequent violation of this subsection

is to be deemed a felony, and, upon conviction, the violator shall be imprisoned for a term not

exceeding two (2) years, fined not more than two thousand dollars ($2,000), or both.

     (b) Any person who violates a final order of the board where the monetary total of the

order including, but not limited to, the monetary judgment and/or fines, is not more than five

thousand dollars ($5,000), upon proper written notification, is deemed guilty of a misdemeanor,

and, upon conviction, shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding one year, fined not more than

one thousand dollars ($1,000), or both.

     (c) Any person who violates a final order of the board where the monetary total of the

order including, but not limited to, the monetary judgment and/or fines, is five thousand dollars

($5,000) or more, upon written notification, is deemed guilty of a felony, and, upon conviction,

shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding ten (10) years, fined not more than ten thousand

dollars ($10,000), or both.

     (b)(d) A final order shall be considered delivered when served to a defendant or

designated agent to accept service. In addition to any sentence or fine imposed by the court under

subsection subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this section, the court may shall order a defendant to

comply with any outstanding final order of the board, including any monetary judgment, and/or

and to pay to the board any outstanding fine or fines previously imposed by the board pursuant to

this chapter.

     (c)(e) If a contractor is a repeat offender with violations of three (3) or more final orders

of the board with respect to three (3) separate contracts executed by three (3) separate

individuals/aggrieved parties and said the violations are filed within a twenty-four- (24) month

(24) period, the violation shall be prosecuted as a felony and upon conviction the violator shall be

subject to imprisonment for a term not to exceed five (5) ten (10) years or fined not more than

ten thousand dollars ($10,000).


 

 

 

59)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-65.1-13

64 and 69

 

 

5-65.1-13. Violations -- Penalties.

     (a) Any person who operates as a home inspector without a license as adjudged in a final

order issued by the board, upon proper written notification, is deemed guilty of a misdemeanor,

and, upon conviction, shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding one year, fined not more than

one thousand dollars ($1,000), or both, for a first or second offense. A third or subsequent

violation of this subsection is to be deemed a felony, and, upon conviction, the violator shall be

imprisoned for a term not exceeding two (2) years, fined not more than two thousand dollars

($2,000), or both.

     (a)(b) Any person who violates a final order of the board where the monetary total of the

order including, but not limited to, the monetary judgment and/or fines, is not more than five

thousand dollars ($5,000), upon proper written notification, is deemed guilty of a misdemeanor

and, upon conviction, may shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding one year, or fined not

more than one thousand dollars ($1,000) for each offense, or both.

     (c) Any person who violates a final order of the board where the monetary total of the

order including, but not limited to, the monetary judgment and/or fines, is five thousand dollars

($5,000) or more, upon proper written notification, is deemed guilty of a felony, and, upon

conviction, shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding ten (10) years, fined not more than ten

thousand dollars ($10,000), or both.

     (b)(d) A final order shall be considered delivered when served to a defendant or

designated agent to accept service. In addition to any sentence or fine imposed by the court under

subsection subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this section, the court may shall order a defendant to

comply with any outstanding final order of the board, including any monetary judgment and to

pay to the board any outstanding fine or fines previously imposed by the board pursuant to this

chapter. A final order of the board may also be enforced in a civil contempt proceeding brought

upon complaint in the district court.

     (e) If a home inspector is a repeat offender with violations of three (3) or more final

orders of the board with respect to three (3) separate contracts executed by three (3) separate

individuals/aggrieved parties and said the violations are filed within a twenty-four- (24) month

(24) period, the violation shall be prosecuted as a felony and, upon conviction, the violator shall

be subject to imprisonment for a term not to exceed ten (10) years or fined not more than ten

thousand dollars ($10,000), or both.


 

60)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-65.2-5

64 and 69

 

 

5-65.2-5. Penalties for violations.

     (a) Any person who operates as a well drilling contractor without a license as adjudged in

a final order issued by the board, upon proper written notification, is deemed guilty of a

misdemeanor, and, upon conviction, shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding one year, fined

not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or both, for a first or second offense. A third or

subsequent violation of this subsection is to be deemed a felony, and, upon conviction, the person

shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding two (2) years, fined not more than two thousand

dollars ($2,000), or both.

     (b) Any person who violates a final order of the board where the monetary total of the

order including, but not limited to, the monetary judgment and/or fines, is not more than five

thousand dollars ($5,000), upon proper written notification, is deemed guilty of a misdemeanor,

and, upon conviction, shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding one year, fined not more than

one thousand dollars ($1,000), or both.

     (c) Any person who violates a final order of the board where the monetary total of the

order including, but not limited to, the monetary judgment and/or fines, is five thousand dollars

($5,000) or more, upon proper written notification, is deemed guilty of a felony, and, upon

conviction, shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding ten (10) years, fined not more than ten

thousand dollars ($10,000), or both.

     (d) A final order shall be considered delivered when served to a defendant or designated

agent to accept service. In addition to any sentence or fine imposed by the court under

subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this section, the court shall order a defendant to comply with any

outstanding final order of the board, including any monetary judgment, and to pay to the board

any outstanding fine or fines previously imposed by the board pursuant to this chapter.

     (e) If a well drilling contractor is a repeat offender with violations of three (3) or more

final orders of the board with respect to three (3) separate contracts executed by three (3) separate

individuals/aggrieved parties and said the violations are filed within a twenty-four- (24) month

(24) period, the violation shall be prosecuted as a felony and, upon conviction, the violator shall

be subject to imprisonment for a term not to exceed ten (10) years or fined not more than ten

thousand dollars ($10,000), or both.


 

61)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-65.3-17

64 and 69

 

 

5-65.3-17. Penalties for violations.

     (a) Violations of any provision of this chapter shall be subject to the penalties as follows:

any corporation, association, sole proprietorship, firm partnership, limited-liability corporation,

limited-liability partnership or other business organization licensed by the board shall be subject

to a fine up to five thousand dollars ($5,000) for the first offense and up to ten thousand dollars

($10,000) for the second and subsequent violations of this chapter.

     (b) Any person who operates as a an underground utility contractor without a license as

adjudged in a final order issued by the board, upon proper written notification, is deemed guilty

of a misdemeanor, and, upon conviction, shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding one year,

fined not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or both, for a first or second offense. A third

or subsequent violation of this subsection is to be deemed a felony, and, upon conviction, the

person shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding two (2) years, fined not more than two

thousand dollars ($2,000), or both.

     (c) Any person who violates a final order of the board where the monetary total of the

order including, but not limited to, the monetary judgment and/or fines, is not more than five

thousand dollars ($5,000), upon proper written notification, is deemed guilty of a misdemeanor,

and, upon conviction, shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding one year, fined not more than

one thousand dollars ($1,000), or both.

     (d) Any person who violates a final order of the board where the monetary total of the

order including, but not limited to, the monetary judgment and/or fines, is five thousand dollars

($5,000) or more, upon proper written notification, is deemed guilty of a felony, and, upon

conviction, shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding ten (10) years, fined not more than ten

thousand dollars ($10,000), or both.

     (e) A final order shall be considered delivered when served to a defendant or designated

agent to accept service. In addition to any sentence or fine imposed by the court under

subsections (b), (c), and (d) of this section, the court shall order a defendant to comply with any

outstanding final order of the board, including any monetary judgment, and to pay to the board

any outstanding fine or fines previously imposed by the board pursuant to this chapter.

     (f) If a an underground utility contractor is a repeat offender with violations of three (3)

or more final orders of the board with respect to three (3) separate contracts executed by three (3)

separate individuals/aggrieved parties and said the violations are filed within a twenty-four- (24)

month (24) period, the violation shall be prosecuted as a felony, and upon conviction, the violator

shall be subject to imprisonment for a term not to exceed ten (10) years or fined not more than ten

thousand dollars ($10,000), or both.


 

62)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

5-73-5

64 and 69

 

 

5-73-5. Penalties for violations.

     (a) Any person who operates as a roofing contractor without a license as adjudged in a

final order issued by the board, upon proper written notification, is deemed guilty of a

misdemeanor, and, upon conviction, shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding one year, fined

not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or both, for a first or second offense. A third or

subsequent violation of this subsection is to be deemed a felony, and, upon conviction, the person

shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding two (2) years, fined not more than two thousand

dollars ($2,000), or both.

     (b) Any person who violates a final order of the board where the monetary total of the

order including, but not limited to, the monetary judgment and/or fines, is not more than five

thousand dollars ($5,000), upon proper written notification, is deemed guilty of a misdemeanor,

and, upon conviction, shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding one year, fined not more than

one thousand dollars ($1,000), or both.

     (c) Any person who violates a final order of the board where the monetary total of the

order including, but not limited to, the monetary judgment and/or fines, is five thousand dollars

($5,000) or more, upon proper written notification, is deemed guilty of a felony, and, upon

conviction, shall be imprisoned for a term not exceeding ten (10) years, fined not more than ten

thousand dollars ($10,000), or both.

     (d) A final order shall be considered delivered when served to a defendant or designated

agent to accept service. In addition to any sentence or fine imposed by the court under

subsections (a), (b), and (c) of this section, the court shall order a defendant to comply with any

outstanding final order of the board, including any monetary judgment, and to pay to the board

any outstanding fine or fines previously imposed by the board pursuant to this chapter.

     (e) If a roofing contractor is a repeat offender with violations of three (3) or more final

orders of the board with respect to three (3) separate contracts executed by three (3) separate

individuals/aggrieved parties and said the violations are filed within a twenty-four- (24) month

(24) period, the violation shall be prosecuted as a felony and, upon conviction, the violator shall

be subject to imprisonment for a term not to exceed ten (10) years or fined not more than ten

thousand dollars ($10,000), or both.


 

63)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

5-86-9

176 and 289

 

 

5-86-9. Qualifications and examinations for licensing.

     (a) An applicant for licensure as a licensed applied behavior analyst shall submit to the

board written evidence on forms furnished by the department verified under oath (i.e. notarized)

that said the applicant:

     (1) Be Is of good moral character;

     (2) Has obtained a graduate degree in applied behavior analysis or a related field, as

approved by the board, from a college or university accredited by the New England association of

schools and colleges, or an equivalent regional accrediting agency, and which that has the

approval by a national or regional certifying authority, including, but not limited to, the applied

behavior analyst licensing board;

     (3) Has successfully completed the amount of coursework in applied behavior analysis

acceptable to the board;

     (4) Has appropriate supervised experience to include either: (i) One year, including one

thousand five hundred (1,500) hours of supervised independent fieldwork in applied behavior

analysis. The distribution of supervised independent fieldwork hours must be at least ten (10)

hours per week, but not more than thirty (30) hours per week, for a minimum of three (3) weeks

per month; (ii) One thousand (1,000) hours of practicum in behavior analysis within a university

experience program approved by the national or regional certifying authority. The distribution of

practicum hours must be at least ten (10) hours per week, but not more than twenty-five (25)

hours per week, for a minimum of three (3) weeks per month; or (iii) Seven hundred fifty (750)

hours of intensive practicum in behavior analysis within a university experience program

approved by the national or regional certifying authority. The distribution of intensive practicum

hours must be at least ten (10) hours per week, but not more than twenty-five (25) hours per

week, for a minimum of three (3) weeks per month;

     (5) Has passed the relevant examination administered by an appropriate nationally

recognized accrediting organization as approved by the department of health for this function;

     (6) Maintain active status and fulfill all relevant requirements for renewal and relicensing

with the nationally recognized and accredited organization(s) as approved by the department of

health licensing;

     (7) Conducts his or her professional activities in accordance with accepted standards for

responsible professional conduct, as approved by the Rhode Island applied behavior analyst

licensing board; and

     (8) Meets the criteria as established in � 5-86-12.

     (b) An applicant for licensure as a licensed applied behavior assistant analyst shall submit

to the board written evidence on forms furnished by the department verified under oath (i.e.,

notarized) that said the applicant:

     (1) Be Is of good moral character;

     (2) Has obtained a bachelor's degree in behavior analysis or a related field, as approved

by the board, from a college or university accredited by the New England Association of Schools

and Colleges,or an equivalent regional accrediting agency, and which that has the approval by a

national or regional certifying authority, including, but not limited to, the applied behavior analyst

licensing board;

     (3) Has successfully completed the amount of coursework in applied behavior analysis

acceptable to the board;

     (4) Has appropriate supervised experience to include either: (i) One thousand (1,000)

hours of supervised independent fieldwork in applied behavior analysis. The distribution of

supervised independent fieldwork hours must be at least ten (10) hours per week, but not more

than thirty (30) hours per week, for a minimum of (3) three weeks per month; (ii) Six hundred

seventy (670) hours of practicum in behavior analysis within a university experience program

approved by the national or regional certifying board. The distribution of practicum hours must

be at least ten (10) hours per week, but not more than twenty-five (25) hours per week, for a

minimum of three (3) weeks per month; or (iii) Five hundred (500) hours of intensive practicum

in behavior analysis within a university experience program approved by the national or regional

certifying board. The distribution of intensive practicum hours must be at least ten (10) hours per

week, but not more than twenty-five (25) hours per week, for a minimum of three (3) weeks per

month.

     (5) Is supervised by a licensed applied behavior analyst in a manner consistent with the

board's requirements for supervision of licensed applied behavior assistant analysts;

     (6) Has passed the examination administered by an appropriate nationally recognized

accrediting organization as approved by department of health licensing for this function;

     (7) Maintain active status and fulfill all relevant requirements for renewal and relicensing

with the nationally recognized and accredited organization(s) as approved by the department of

health licensing;

     (8) Conduct his or her professional activities in accordance with accepted standards for

responsible professional conduct, as required by the Rhode Island applied behavior analyst

licensure board; and

     (9) Meet the criteria as established in � 5-86-11.

     (c) An applicant shall be judged to hold the equivalent requirement of a licensure as an

applied behavior analyst upon submission to the board, written evidence on forms furnished by

the department verified under oath (i.e., notarized), if the following equivalency requirements are

met to the satisfaction of the licensing board:

     (1) Has received a doctoral degree in psychology from a college or university accredited

by the New England association of schools and colleges, or an equivalent regional accrediting

agency, and which that has the approval by a national or regional certifying authority;

     (2) Be Is individually licensed by the department of health as a psychologist subject to

chapter 5-44 chapter 44 of this title;

     (3) Be Is of good moral character;

     (4) Has completed coursework in applied behavior analysis supervised by the department

within the college or university granting the requisite degree or by an accredited postgraduate

clinical training program recognized by the United States department of education, or education

and/or experience which is deemed equivalent by the board;

     (5) Has completed one thousand five hundred (1,500) hours of direct client contact

offering applied behavior analysis services subsequent to being awarded a doctoral degree in

psychology;

     (6) Conducts his or her professional activities in accordance with accepted standards for

responsible professional conduct, as required by the Rhode Island applied behavior analyst

licensure board; and

     (7) Meets the criteria as established in 5-86-12.


 

64)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

6-16

141 and 236

 

 

CHAPTER 6-16

UNIFORM VOIDABLE TRANSACTIONS ACT


 

 

 

 

65)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

6-16-1

141 and 236

 

 

6-16-1. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter:

     (1) "Affiliate" means:

     (i) A person who directly or indirectly owns, controls, or holds with power to vote twenty

percent (20%) or more of the outstanding voting securities of the debtor, other than a person who

holds the securities:

     (A) As a fiduciary or agent without sole discretionary power to vote the securities; or

     (B) Solely to secure a debt, if the person has not exercised the power to vote;

     (ii) A corporation, twenty percent (20%) or more of whose outstanding voting securities

are directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or held with power to vote by the debtor or a person

who directly or indirectly owns, controls, or holds, with power to vote, twenty percent (20%) or

more of the outstanding voting securities of the debtor, other than a person who holds the

securities:

     (A) As a fiduciary or agent without sole power to vote the securities; or

     (B) Solely to secure a debt, if the person has not in fact exercised the power to vote;

     (iii) A person whose business is operated by the debtor under a lease or other agreement,

or a person substantially all of whose assets are controlled by the debtor; or

     (iv) A person who operates the debtor's business under a lease or other agreement or

controls substantially all of the debtor's assets.

     (2) "Asset" means property of a debtor, but the term does not include:

     (i) Property to the extent it is encumbered by a valid lien;

     (ii) Property to the extent it is generally exempt under nonbankruptcy law; or

     (iii) An interest in property held in tenancy by the entireties to the extent it is not subject

to process by a creditor holding a claim against only one tenant.

     (3) "Claim" means a right to payment, whether or not the right is reduced to judgment,

liquidated, unliquidated, fixed, contingent, matured, unmatured, disputed, undisputed, legal,

equitable, secured, or unsecured.

     (4) "Creditor" means a person who has a claim.

     (5) "Debt" means liability on a claim.

     (6) "Debtor" means a person who is liable on a claim.

     (7) "Electronic" means relating to technology having electrical, digital, magnetic,

wireless, optical, electromagnetic, or similar capabilities.

     (7)(8) "Insider" includes:

     (i) If the debtor is an individual:

     (A) A relative of the debtor or of a general partner of the debtor;

     (B) A partnership in which the debtor is a general partner;

     (C) A general partner in a partnership described in subdivision (7)(i)(B) subsection

(8)(i)(B); or

     (D) A corporation of which the debtor is a director, officer, or person in control;

     (ii) If the debtor is a corporation:

     (A) A director of the debtor;

     (B) An officer of the debtor;

     (C) A person in control of the debtor;

     (D) A partnership in which the debtor is a general partner;

     (E) A general partner in a partnership described in subdivision (7)(ii)(D) subsection

(8)(ii)(D); or

     (F) A relative of a general partner, director, officer, or person in control of the debtor.;

     (iii) If the debtor is a partnership:

     (A) A general partner in the debtor;

     (B) A relative of a general partner in, a general partner of, or a person in control of the

debtor;

     (C) Another partnership in which the debtor is a general partner;

     (D) A general partner in a partnership described in subdivision (7)(iii)(C) subsection

(8)(iii)(C); or

     (E) A person in control of the debtor;

     (iv) An affiliate, or an insider of an affiliate as if the affiliate were the debtor; and

     (v) A managing agent of the debtor.

     (8)(9) "Lien" means a charge against, or an interest in, property to secure payment of a

debt or performance of an obligation, and includes a security interest created by agreement; a

judicial lien obtained by legal or equitable process or proceedings; a common-law lien; or a

statutory lien.

     (10) "Organization" means a person other than an individual.

     (9)(11) "Person" means an individual, estate, partnership, association, trust, business or

nonprofit entity, public corporation, government or governmental subdivision, agency, or

instrumentality, or other legal or commercial entity. partnership, corporation, association,

organization, government or governmental subdivision or agency, business trust, estate, trust, or

any other legal or commercial entity, but does include the Rhode Island depositors economic

protection corporation.

     (10)(12) "Property" means anything that may be the subject of ownership.

     (13) "Record" means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored

in an electronic or other medium, and retrievable in perceivable form.

     (11)(14) "Relative" means an individual related by consanguinity within the third degree

as determined by the common law, a spouse, or an individual related to a spouse within the third

degree as so determined, and includes an individual in an adoptive relationship within the third

degree.

     (15) "Sign" means with present intent to authenticate or adopt a record:

     (i) To execute or adopt a tangible symbol; or

     (ii) To attach to or logically associate with the record an electronic symbol, sound, or

process.

     (12)(16) "Transfer" means every mode, direct or indirect, absolute or conditional,

voluntary or involuntary, of disposing of or parting with an asset or an interest in an asset, and

includes payment of money, release, lease, license, and creation of a lien or other encumbrance.

     (13)(17) "Valid lien" means a lien that is effective against the holder of a judicial lien

subsequently obtained by legal or equitable process or proceedings.


 

 

 

 

 

66

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

6-16-2

141 and 236

 

 

6-16-1. Definitions.

     (a) A debtor is insolvent if, at a fair valuation, the sum of the debtor's debts is greater than

the sum of the debtor's assets all of the debtor's assets at a fair valuation.

     (b) A debtor who is generally not paying his or her the debtor's debts as they become due

other than as a result of a bona fide dispute is presumed to be insolvent. The presumption imposes

on the party against whom the presumption is directed the burden of proving that the

nonexistence of insolvency is more probable than its existence.

     (c) A partnership is insolvent under subsection (a) if the sum of the partnership's debts is

greater than the aggregate, at a fair valuation, of all of the partnership's assets and the sum of the

excess of the value of each general partner's nonpartnership assets over the partner's

nonpartnership debts.

     (d)(c) Assets under this section do not include property that has been transferred,

concealed, or removed with intent to hinder, delay, or defraud creditors or that have been

transferred in a manner making the transfer voidable under this chapter.

     (e)(d) Debts under this section do not include obligations to the extent they are secured

by a valid lien on property of the debtor not included as an asset.


 

67)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

6-16-4

141 and 236

 

 

6-16-4. Transfers voidable as to present and future creditors.

     (a) A transfer made or obligation incurred by a debtor is fraudulent voidable as to a

creditor, whether the creditor's claim arose before or after the transfer was made or the obligation

was incurred, if the debtor made the transfer or incurred the obligation:

     (1) With actual intent to hinder, delay, or defraud any creditor of the debtor; or

     (2) Without receiving a reasonably equivalent value in exchange for the transfer or

obligation, and the debtor:

     (i) Was engaged or was about to engage in a business or a transaction for which the

remaining assets of the debtor were unreasonably small in relation to the business or transaction;

or

     (ii) Intended to incur, or believed or reasonably should have believed that he or she the

debtor would incur, debts beyond his or her the debtor's ability to pay as they became due.

     (b) In determining actual intent under subsection (a) (1) of this section, consideration may

be given, among other factors, to whether:

     (1) The transfer or obligation was to an insider;

     (2) The debtor retained possession or control of the property transferred after the transfer;

     (3) The transfer or obligation was disclosed or concealed;

     (4) Before the transfer was made or obligation was incurred, the debtor had been sued or

threatened with suit;

     (5) The transfer was of substantially all the debtor's assets;

     (6) The debtor absconded;

     (7) The debtor removed or concealed assets;

     (8) The value of the consideration received by the debtor was reasonably equivalent to

the value of the asset transferred or the amount of the obligation incurred;

     (9) The debtor was insolvent or became insolvent shortly after the transfer was made or

the obligation was incurred;

     (10) The transfer occurred shortly before or shortly after a substantial debt was incurred;

and

     (11) The debtor transferred the essential assets of the business to a lienor who transferred

the assets to an insider of the debtor.

     (c) A creditor making a claim for relief under subsection (a) of this section has the burden

of proving the elements of the claim for relief by a preponderance of the evidence.


  

68

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers

 

6-16-5

141 and 236

 

 

6-16-5. Transfers or obligations voidable as to present creditors.

     (a) A transfer made or obligation incurred by a debtor is fraudulent voidable as to a

creditor whose claim arose before the transfer was made or the obligation was incurred if the

debtor made the transfer or incurred the obligation without receiving a reasonably equivalent

value in exchange for the transfer or obligation and the debtor was insolvent at that time or the

debtor became insolvent as a result of the transfer or obligation.

     (b) A transfer made by a debtor is fraudulent voidable as to a creditor whose claim arose

before the transfer was made if the transfer was made to an insider for an antecedent debt; the

debtor was insolvent at that time; and the insider had reasonable cause to believe that the debtor

was insolvent.

     (c) Subject to �16-16-2(b), a creditor making a claim for relief under subsection (a) or (b)

of this section has the burden of proving the elements of the claim for relief by a preponderance

of the evidence.


 

69)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

6-16-5.1

141 and 236

 

 

6-16-5.1. Transfers voidable as to depository creditors of financial institutions closed by proclamation of the governor dated January 1, 1991 - Remedies.

     (a) A transfer made or obligation incurred by any financial institution closed by

proclamation of the governor dated January 1, 1991, is fraudulent voidable as to any depository

creditor of record of any such financial institution as of January 1, 1991, if the transfer or

obligation involved either:

     (1) The withdrawal of deposits from the financial institution by any officer, director, or

employee of the financial institution or of the Rhode Island share and deposit indemnity

corporation, with knowledge of the actual or impending insolvency and/or the impending closing

of the financial institution or of the actual or impending insolvency of and/or the actual or

impending cessation of business by the Rhode Island share and deposit indemnity corporation,

and for the purpose of avoiding the loss of funds and/or access to funds in any depository account

in the financial institution;

     (2) The encumbrance of any assets of the financial institution to or for the benefit of any

officer, director, or employee of the financial institution or of the Rhode Island share and deposit

indemnity corporation, with knowledge of the actual or impending insolvency and/or the

impending closing of the financial institution or of the actual or impending insolvency of and/or

the actual and/or impending cessation of business by the Rhode Island share and deposit

indemnity corporation, and for the purpose of avoiding the loss of funds and/or access to funds in

any depository account in the financial institution; or

     (3) A transfer or obligation defined as fraudulent voidable under � 6-16-4 or  6-16-5.

     (b) In addition to any remedies provided by � 6-16-7, (1) any financial institution closed

by proclamation of the governor dated January 1, 1991; (2) any assignees of and successors in

interest to any such financial institution; and (3) any depository creditor of record of any such

financial institution as of January 1, 1991, who suffers monetary loss as a result of a transfer or

conveyance defined as fraudulent voidable under this section or who is otherwise aggrieved by

the transfer or conveyance, shall have a private cause of action at law and in equity against any

officer, director, or employee of the financial institution or of the Rhode Island share and deposit

indemnity corporation to whom the subject transfer was made or to whom or for whose benefit

any assets of the financial institution were encumbered.


 

70)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

6-16-6

141 and 236

 

 

6-16-6. When transfer is made or obligation is incurred.

     For the purposes of this chapter:

     (1) A transfer is made:

     (i) With respect to an asset that is real property other than a fixture, but including the

interest of a seller or purchaser under a contract for the sale of the asset, when the transfer is so

far perfected that a good-faith purchaser of the asset from the debtor against whom applicable law

permits the transfer to be perfected cannot acquire an interest in the asset that is superior to the

interest of the transferee; and

     (ii) With respect to an asset that is not real property or that is a fixture, when the transfer

is so far perfected that a creditor on a simple contract cannot acquire a judicial lien otherwise than

under this chapter that is superior to the interest of the transferee;

     (2) If applicable law permits the transfer to be perfected as provided in subdivision

subsection (1) and the transfer is not so perfected before the commencement of an action for

relief under this chapter, the transfer is deemed made immediately before the commencement of

the action;

     (3) If applicable law does not permit the transfer to be perfected as provided in

subdivision subsection (1), the transfer is made when it becomes effective between the debtor

and the transferee;

     (4) A transfer is not made until the debtor has acquired rights in the asset transferred;

     (5) An obligation is incurred:

     (i) If oral, when it becomes effective between the parties; or

     (ii) If evidenced by a writing record, when the writing executed record signed by the

obligor is delivered to or for the benefit of the obligee.


 

71)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

6-16-7

141 and 236

 

 

6-16-7. Remedies of creditor.

     (a) In an action for relief against a transfer or obligation under this chapter, a creditor,

subject to the limitations in � 6-16-8, may obtain:

     (1) Avoidance of the transfer or obligation to the extent necessary to satisfy the creditor's

claim;

     (2) An attachment or other provisional remedy against the asset transferred or other

property of the transferee available under applicable law; and in accordance with the procedure

prescribed by applicable statutes and rules of procedure;

     (3) Subject to applicable principles of equity and in accordance with applicable rules of

civil procedure:

     (i) An injunction against further disposition by the debtor or a transferee, or both, of the

asset transferred or of other property;

     (ii) Appointment of a receiver to take charge of the asset transferred or of other property

of the transferee; or

     (iii) Any other relief the circumstances may require.

     (b) If a creditor has obtained a judgment on a claim against the debtor, the creditor, if the

court so orders, may levy execution on the asset transferred or its proceeds.


 

72)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

6-16-8

141 and 236

 

 

6-16-8. Defenses, liability, and protection of transferee or obligee.

     (a) A transfer or obligation is not voidable under � 6-16-4(a)(1) against a person who

took in good faith and for a reasonably equivalent value given the debtor or against any

subsequent transferee or obligee.

     (b) Except as otherwise provided in this section, to To the extent a transfer is voidable in

an action by a creditor under � 6-16-7(a)(1), the following rules apply:

     (1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the creditor may recover judgment for

the value of the asset transferred, as adjusted under subsection (c) of this section, or the amount

necessary to satisfy the creditor's claim, whichever is less. The judgment may be entered against:

     (1)(i) The first transferee of the asset or the person for whose benefit the transfer was

made; or

     (2)(ii) Any subsequent transferee other than a good faith transferee who took for value or

from any subsequent transferee. An immediate or mediate transferee of the first transferee, other

than:

     (A) A good-faith transferee that took for value; or

     (B) An immediate or mediate good-faith transferee of a person described in subsection

(A) (b)(1)(ii)(A) of this section.

     (2) Recovery pursuant to � 6-16-7(a)(1) or (b) or from the asset transferred or its

proceeds, by levy or otherwise, is available only against a person described in subsection (1)(i)

(b)(1)(i) or (ii) of this section.

     (c) If the judgment under subsection (b) is based upon the value of the asset transferred,

the judgment must be for an amount equal to the value of the asset at the time of the transfer,

subject to adjustment as the equities may require.

     (d) Notwithstanding voidability of a transfer or an obligation under this chapter, a good-

faith transferee or obligee, to the extent of the value given the debtor for the transfer or

obligation, is entitled to:

     (1) A lien on or a right to retain any an interest in the asset transferred;

     (2) Enforcement of any an obligation incurred; or

     (3) A reduction in the amount of the liability on the judgment.

     (e) A transfer is not voidable under � 6-16-4(a)(2) or  6-16-5 if the transfer results from:

     (1) Termination of a lease upon default by the debtor when the termination is pursuant to

the lease and applicable law; or

     (2) Enforcement of a security interest in compliance with chapter 9 of title 6A of the

Uniform Commercial Code. Article 9 of the Uniform Commercial Code, other than acceptance of

collateral in full or partial satisfaction of the obligation it secures.

     (f) A transfer is not voidable under � 6-16-5(b):

     (1) To the extent the insider gave new value to or for the benefit of the debtor after the

transfer was made unless except to the extent the new value was secured by a valid lien;

     (2) If made in the ordinary course of business or financial affairs of the debtor and the

insider; or

     (3) If made pursuant to a good-faith effort to rehabilitate the debtor and the transfer

secured present value given for that purpose as well as an antecedent debt of the debtor.

     (g) The following rules determine the burden of proving matters referred to in this

section:

     (1) A party that seeks to invoke ��6-16-8 subsection (a), (d), (e), or (f) has the burden of

proving the applicability of that subsection.

     (2) Except as otherwise provided in subsections ��6-16-8(g)(3) and 6-16-8(g)(4), the

creditor has the burden of proving each applicable element of subsection (b) or (c) of this section.

     (3) The transferee has the burden of proving the applicability to the transferee of

subsections subsection (b)(1)(ii)(A) or (B) of this section.

     (4) A party that seeks adjustment under subsection (c) of this section has the burden of

proving the adjustment.

     (h) Proof of matters referred to in this section is sufficient if established by a

preponderance of the evidence.


 

73)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

6-16-9

141 and 236

 

 

6-16-9. Extinguishment of claim for relief.

     A cause of action claim of for relief with respect to a fraudulent transfer or obligation

under this chapter is extinguished unless action is brought:

     (1) Under � 6-16-4(a)(1), within not later than four (4) years after the transfer was made

or the obligation was incurred or, if later, within not later than one year after the transfer or

obligation was or could reasonably have been discovered by the claimant;

     (2) Under � 6-16-4(a)(2) or  6-16-5(a), within not later than four (4) years after the

transfer was made or the obligation was incurred; or

     (3) Under � 6-16-5(b), within not later than one year after the transfer was made or the

obligation was incurred.


 

74)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

6-16-12

141 and 236

 

 

6-16-12. Short title.

     This chapter may be cited as the "Uniform Fraudulent Transfer Act" "Uniform Voidable

Transactions Act".


 

 75)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

6-16-13

141 and 236

 

 

6-16-13. Governing law.

     (a) As used in this section, the following rules determine a debtor's location:

     (1) A debtor who is an individual is located at the individual's principal residence.

     (2) A debtor that is an organization and has only one place of business is located at its

place of business.

     (3) A debtor that is an organization and has more than one place of business is located at

its chief executive office.

     (b) A claim for relief in the nature of a claim for relief under this chapter is governed by

the local law of the jurisdiction in which the debtor is located when the transfer is made or the

obligation is incurred.


 

76)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

6-16-14

141 and 236

 

 

6-16-14. Application to series organization.

     (a) As used in this section:

     (1) "Protected series" means an arrangement, however denominated, created by a series

organization that, pursuant to the law under which the series organization is organized, has the

characteristics set forth in subsection (a)(2) of this section.

     (2) "Series organization" means an organization that, pursuant to the law under which it

is organized, has the following characteristics:

     (i) The organic record of the organization provides for creation by the organization of one

or more protected series, however denominated, with respect to specified property of the

organization, and for records to be maintained for each protected series that identify the property

of or associated with the protected series.

     (ii) Debt incurred or existing with respect to the activities of, or property of or associated

with, a particular protected series is enforceable against the property of or associated with the

protected series only, and not against the property of or associated with the organization or other

protected series of the organization.

     (iii) Debt incurred or existing with respect to the activities or property of the organization

is enforceable against the property of the organization only, and not against the property of or

associated with a protected series of the organization.

     (b) A series organization and each protected series of the organization is a separate

person for purposes of this chapter, even if for other purposes a protected series is not a person

separate from the organization or other protected series of the organization.


 

77)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

6-16-15

141 and 236

 

 

6-16-15. Supplementary provisions.

     Unless displaced by the provisions of this chapter, the principles of law and equity,

including the law merchant and the law relating to principal and agent, estoppel, laches, fraud,

misrepresentation, duress, coercion, mistake, insolvency, or other validating or invalidating cause,

supplement its provisions.


 

79)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

6-16-17

141 and 236

 

 

6-16-17. Relation to electronic signatures in global and national commerce act.

This chapter modifies, limits, or supercedes supersedes the Electronic Signatures in

Global and National Commerce Act, 15 U.S.C. �7001 et seq., but does not modify, limit, or

supersede �101(c) of that act, 15 U.S.C. �7001(c), or authorize electronic delivery of any of the

notices described in �103(b) of that act, 15 U.S.C. �7003(b).


 

80)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

6-48-5

31 and 33

 

 

6-48-5. Security freeze -- Timing, covered entities, cost.

     (a) (1) A consumer may elect to place a "security freeze" on his or her credit report by

making a request by certified mail to a consumer reporting agency at an address designated by the

consumer reporting agency to receive such requests.

     (2) A consumer reporting agency shall place a security freeze on a consumer's credit

report no later than five (5) business days after receiving from the consumer:

     (i) A written request as described in subsection (a)(1)and

     (ii) Proper identification; and

     (iii) Payment of a fee, if applicable.

     (3) The consumer reporting agency shall send a written confirmation of the security

freeze to the consumer within ten (10) business days of placing the freeze and at the same time

shall provide the consumer with a unique personal identification number, password, or similar

device to be used by the consumer when providing authorization for the release of his or her

credit credit report for a specific period of time, or when permanently removing the freeze.

     (4) If the consumer wishes to allow his or her credit report to be accessed for a specific

period of time while a freeze is in place, he or she shall contact the consumer reporting agency,

using a point of contact designated by the consumer reporting agency, to request that the freeze

be temporarily lifted and provide the following:

     (i) Proper identification;

     (ii) The unique personal identification number or password provided by the consumer

reporting agency pursuant to subsection (a)(3) of this sectionand

     (iii) The proper information regarding the time period for which the report shall be

available to users of the credit report; and

     (iv) A fee if applicable.

     (5) A consumer reporting agency that receives a request from a consumer to temporarily

lift a freeze on a credit report pursuant to subsection (a)(4) of this section shall comply with the

request no later than three (3) business days after receiving the request.

     (6) A consumer reporting agency may develop procedures involving the use of telephone,

fax, or, upon the consent of the consumer in the manner required by the Electronic Signatures in

Global and National Commerce Act, 15 U.S.C. �7001 et seq., hereinafter referred to as ("E-

Sign") for legally required notices, by the Internet internet, e-mail, or other electronic media to

receive and process a request from a consumer to temporarily lift a freeze on a credit report

pursuant to subsection (a)(4) of this section in an expedited manner.

     (7) A consumer reporting agency shall remove or temporarily lift a freeze placed on a

consumer's credit report only in the following cases:

     (i) Upon consumer request, pursuant to subsection (a)(4) or (a)(10) of this section; and

     (ii) If the consumer's credit report was frozen due to a material misrepresentation of fact

by the consumer. If a consumer reporting agency intends to remove a freeze upon a consumer's

credit report pursuant to this paragraph, the consumer reporting agency shall notify the consumer

in writing prior to removing the freeze on the consumer's credit report.

     (8) If a third-party third party requests access to a consumer credit report on which a

security freeze is in effect; and this request is in connection with an application for credit or any

other use; and the consumer does not allow his or her credit report to be accessed; then the third-

party third party may treat the application as incomplete.

     (9) A security freeze shall remain in place until the consumer requests, using a point of

contact designated by the consumer reporting agency, that the security freeze be removed. A

consumer reporting agency shall remove a security freeze within three (3) business days of

receiving a request for removal from the consumer who provides all of the following:

     (i) Proper identification; and

     (ii) The unique personal identification number or password provided by the consumer

reporting agency pursuant to subsection (a)(3) of this section; and

     (iii) A fee, if applicable.

     (10) A consumer reporting agency shall require proper identification of the person

making a request to place or remove a security freeze.

     (11) A consumer reporting agency may not suggest or otherwise state or imply to a third

party that the consumer's security freeze reflects a negative credit score, history, report, or rating.

     (12) The provisions of this section do not apply to the use of a consumer credit report by

any of the following:

     (i) A person, or the person's subsidiary, affiliate, agent, or assignee with which the

consumer has, or prior to assignment, had, an account, contract, or debtor-creditor relationship for

the purposes of reviewing the account or collecting the financial obligation owing for the account,

contract, or debt;

     (ii) A subsidiary, affiliate, agent, assignee, or prospective assignee of a person to whom

access has been granted under subsection (a)(4) of this section for purposes of facilitating the

extension of credit or other permissible use;

     (iii) Any person acting pursuant to a court order, warrant, or subpoena;

     (iv) A state or local agency that administers a program for establishing and enforcing

child support obligations;

     (v) The department of health, or its agents or assigns, acting to investigate fraud;

     (vi) The attorney general, or its agents or assigns, acting to investigate fraud;

     (vii) The division of taxation, or its agents or assigns, acting to investigate or collect

delinquent taxes or unpaid court orders or to fulfill any of its other statutory responsibilities;

     (viii) The use of a credit report by a person for purposes of prescreening as defined by the

federal Fair Credit Reporting Act, 15 U.S.C. � 1681 et. seq.;

     (ix) Any person or entity administering a credit file monitoring subscription service to

which the consumer has subscribed;

     (x) Any person or entity for the purpose of providing a consumer with a copy of his or

her credit report upon the consumer's request; and

     (xi) Any person or entity for use in setting or adjusting a rate, adjusting a claim, or

underwriting for insurance purposes.

     (13) A consumer may be charged a fee of no more than ten dollars ($10.00) for any

security freeze services, including, but not limited to, the placement, temporary lifting, and

permanent removal of a security freeze. The consumer may not be charged for a one-time reissue

of a new personal identification number; provided, however, the consumer may be charged not

more than five dollars ($5.00) for subsequent instances of loss of the personal identification

number. However, a consumer reporting agency may not charge any fee to a victim of identity

theft who has submitted a copy of an incident report from, or a complaint to, a law enforcement

agency or to a consumer who is of sixty-five (65) years of age or older. A consumer may not be

charged a fee for any security freeze service by a consumer report reporting agency.

     (b) Entities not required to place a security freeze.

     The following entities are not required to place a security freeze on a credit report:

     (1) A consumer reporting agency that acts only as a reseller of credit information by

assembling and merging information contained in the database of another consumer reporting

agency or multiple consumer credit reporting agencies and does not maintain a permanent data

base database of credit information from which new consumer credit report reports are

produced. However, a consumer reporting agency acting as a reseller shall honor any security

freeze placed on a consumer credit report by another consumer reporting agency.;

     (2) A check services or fraud prevention services company that issues reports on

incidents of fraud or authorizations for the purpose of approving or processing negotiable

instruments, electronic funds transfers, or similar methods of payments.;

     (3) A deposit account information service company, that issues reports regarding account

closures due to fraud, substantial overdrafts, ATM abuse, or similar negative information

regarding a consumer, to inquiring banks or other financial institutions for use only in reviewing a

consumer request for a deposit account at the inquiring bank or financial institution.; and

     (4) Any database or file that consists of any information adverse to the interests of the

consumer, including, but not limited to, criminal record information; personal loss history

information; information used for fraud prevention or detection; tenant screening; and

employment screening.


 

81)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

7-16-8

14 and 24

 

 

7-16-8. Filing. [Effective until July 1, 2020.].

     (a) The secretary of state may not accept for filing any document under this chapter that

does not conform with law.

     (b) The secretary of state may not accept for filing any organizational document,

qualification, registration, change of resident agent report, service of process, notice, or other

document until all required filing and other fees have been paid to the secretary of state.

     (c) The secretary of state may not accept for filing any article of dissolution, cancellation

of registration, article of merger, unless the surviving entity is a domestic entity of record with the

office of the secretary of state, or the reinstatement of a limited-liability company's certificate of

organization or registration until all required filing and other fees have been paid to the secretary

of state and all fees and taxes have been paid, as evidenced by an appropriate certificate of good

standing issued by the Rhode Island division of taxation.

     (d) The secretary of state may not accept for filing a certificate of conversion to a non-

Rhode Island entity until all required filing and other fees have been paid to the secretary of state

and all fees and taxes have been paid, as evidenced by an appropriate certificate of good standing

issued by the Rhode Island division of taxation.

     (e) When the secretary of state accepts the articles of organization or a certificate of

registration or any other document filed under this chapter, the secretary of state shall:

     (1) Endorse on the document the date and time of its acceptance for filing;

     (2) Promptly file the document; and

     (3) Issue a certificate or other evidence that establishes:

     (i) That the document was accepted for filing by the secretary of state; and

     (ii) The date and time of the acceptance for filing.

     (f) The document becomes effective upon the issuance of the certificate or other evidence

or at any later date that is set forth within the document, not more than thirty (30) ninety (90) days after the filing of such document.

7-16-8. Filing. [Effective July 1, 2020.].

     (a) The secretary of state may not accept for filing any document under this chapter that

does not conform with law.

     (b) The secretary of state may not accept for filing any organizational document,

qualification, registration, change of resident agent report, service of process, notice, or other

document until all required filing and other fees have been paid to the secretary of state.

     (c) The secretary of state may not accept for filing any article of dissolution, cancellation

of registration, or article of merger until all required filing and other fees have been paid to the

secretary of state and all fees and taxes have been paid.

     (d) The secretary of state may not accept for filing the reinstatement of a limited-liability

company's certificate of organization or registration until all required filing and other fees have

been paid to the secretary of state and all fees and taxes have been paid, as evidenced by an

appropriate certificate of good standing issued by the division of taxation.

     (e) The secretary of state may not accept for filing a certificate of conversion to a non-

Rhode Island entity until all required filing and other fees have been paid to the secretary of state

and all fees and taxes have been paid.

     (f) When the secretary of state accepts the articles of organization or a certificate of

registration or any other document filed under this chapter, the secretary of state shall:

     (1) Endorse on the document the date and time of its acceptance for filing;

     (2) Promptly file the document; and

     (3) Issue a certificate or other evidence that establishes:

     (i) That the document was accepted for filing by the secretary of state; and

     (ii) The date and time of the acceptance for filing.

     (g) The document becomes effective upon the issuance of the certificate or other

evidence or at any later date that is set forth within the document, not more than thirty (30) ninety

(90) days after the filing of such document.


 

82)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3

6 and 7

 

 

CHAPTER 8.3 �

EXTREME RISK PROTECTION ORDERS


 

83)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3-1

6 and 7

 

 

8-8.3-1. Definitions.

     When used in this chapter, the following words and phrases shall have the following

meanings:

     (1) "Court" means the superior court in the county in which the respondent resides.

     (2) "Extreme risk protection order" means either a temporary order or a one-year order

granted under this chapter.

     (3) "Family or household member" means present and former family members (as

defined in � 15-15-1), parents (as defined in � 15-15-1), stepparents, legal guardians, persons who

are or have been in a substantive dating or engagement relationship within the past one year (as

defined in � 15-15-1), and cohabitants (as defined in � 8-8.1-1).

     (4) "Firearm" means and includes any machine gun, pistol, rifle, air rifle, air pistol,

"blank gun,", "BB gun,", or other instrument from which steel or metal projectiles are propelled,

or which that may readily be converted to expel a projectile, except crossbows, recurve,

compound, or longbows, and except instruments propelling projectiles which that are designed or

normally used for a primary purpose other than as a weapon. The frame or receiver of the weapon

shall be construed as a firearm pursuant to the provisions of this section.

     (5) "Law enforcement agency" means the police department of any city or town, and the

division of the Rhode Island state police established pursuant to chapter 28 of title 42.

     (6) "Law enforcement officer" means a sworn member of a law enforcement agency as

defined herein.

     (7) "One-year extreme risk protection order" means an extreme risk protection order

granted pursuant to the provisions of � 8-8.3-5 or renewed pursuant to the provisions of � 8-8.3-7.

     (8) "Petitioner" means a law enforcement agency that petitions for an order pursuant to

this chapter.

     (9) "Respondent" means the person who is identified as the respondent in a petition filed

pursuant to this chapter.

     (10) "Social media" means any cell phoneor internet-based tools and applications that

are used to share and distribute information.

     (11) "Temporary extreme risk protection order" means an extreme risk protection order

issued pursuant to the provisions of � 8-8.3-4.


 

84)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3-2

6 and 7

 

 

8-8.3-2. Filing of petition.

     Proceedings under this chapter shall be filed, heard, and determined in the superior court

of the county in which the respondent resides. Any proceedings under this chapter shall not

preclude any other available civil or criminal remedies. A party filing a petition under this chapter

may do so without payment of any filing fee. There shall be no minimum residence requirements

for the filing of a petition under this chapter. All matters filed under this chapter, as well as any

documents submitted in conjunction with proceedings under this chapter, shall be maintained as

confidential or non-public by the superior court.


 

85)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3-3

6 and 7

 

 

8-8.3-3. Contents of petition.

     (a) A petition for an extreme risk protection order shall be filed only by a law

enforcement agency.

     (b) A petitioner may file a petition with the court requesting an extreme risk protection

order that shall enjoin the respondent from having in their his or her possession, custody, or

control any firearms and shall further enjoin the respondent from purchasing, receiving, or

attempting to purchase or receive, any firearms while the order is in effect. The petitioner shall

concurrently file a sworn affidavit for a search warrant pursuant to chapter 5 of title 12 for the

search of any firearms in the possession, custody, or control of the respondent.

     (c) A petitioner shall file a petition upon receipt of credible information that the

respondent poses a significant danger of causing imminent personal injury to self or others by

having in their his or her custody or control, or by purchasing, possessing, or receiving, a

firearm.

     (d) A petition must state the specific statements, actions, or facts that support the belief

that the respondent poses a significant danger of causing imminent personal injury to self or

others by having in their his or her custody or control, or by purchasing, possessing, or receiving,

a firearm.

     (e) A petition for an extreme risk protection order must be supported by a written

affidavit signed by the petitioner under oath. The petitioner may produce sworn statements or

testimony of other witnesses to support the petition.

     (f) If the petitioner believes there are firearms in the respondent's current ownership,

possession, custody, or control, the petition and search warrant affidavit shall identify the

number, types, and locations of all such firearms, if known.

     (g) A petitioner for an extreme risk protection order, at the time of the filing, shall

identify all known restraining orders, orders of protection, and pending lawsuits, complaints,

petitions, or actions pending, active, or filed within one year prior to the petition involving the

respondent, including, but not limited to, an order entered pursuant to chapter 8.1 of title 8 or

chapter 15 of title 15.


 

86)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3-4

6 and 7

 

 

8-8.3-4. Temporary orders -- Proceedings.

     (a) Upon the filing of a petition under this chapter, the court may enter a temporary order

if the court finds there is probable cause from specific facts shown by the petition that the

respondent poses a significant danger of causing imminent personal injury to self or others by

having in their his or her custody or control, or by purchasing, possessing, or receiving, a firearm

before notice can be served and a hearing held.

     (b) If the court finds probable cause under subsection (a) of this section and from the

sworn affidavit, a search warrant shall issue pursuant to chapter 5 of title 12 for the search for any

firearms in the possession, custody, or control of the respondent. Such The warrant shall be

executed pursuant to chapter 5 of title 12.

     (c) When the court is unavailable after the close of business, a petition and affidavit may

be filed before any available superior court judge.

     (d) Any order and warrant issued under this section, and any documentation in support of

an order and warrant, shall be filed immediately with the clerk of the superior court. The filing

shall have the effect of commencing proceedings under this chapter and invoking the other

provisions of this chapter.

     (e) A temporary extreme risk protection order must include:

     (1) A statement of the grounds supporting the issuance of the order;

     (2) The date and time the order was issued;

     (3) A statement that the order shall continue until such time as a court considers the

petition pursuant to � 8-8.3-5 at a hearing;

     (4) The address of the court that issued the order and in which any responsive pleading

should be filed;

     (5) The date and time of the scheduled hearing;

     (6) The following statement: "To the subject of this protection order: This order will

continue until the hearing scheduled on the date and time noted above. If any of your firearms

have not been seized by the petitioner, you are under an obligation to immediately contact the

petitioner to arrange for the surrender of any other firearms that you own and/or are in your

custody, control, or possession, that have not been seized. You must surrender to the petitioner all

firearms that you own and/or are in your custody, control, or possession, and also immediately

surrender to the licensing authority or the attorney general any concealed carry permit issued to

you pursuant to � 11-47-11 or � 11-47-18. While this order is in effect, it is illegal for you to have

any firearm in your possession, custody, or control or for you to purchase, receive, or attempt to

purchase or receive, any firearm. You may seek the advice of an attorney as to any matter

connected with this order. If you believe you cannot afford an attorney, you are hereby referred to

the public defender for an intake interview, and if eligible, the court shall appoint an attorney for

you.�

     (7) Any temporary extreme risk protection order issued pursuant to this section shall

continue until the time of the hearing pursuant to � 8-8.3-5. If the court continues a hearing

pursuant to � 8-8.3-5, the temporary order shall remain in effect until the next hearing date.

     (f) The court shall schedule a hearing within fourteen (14) days of the issuance of a

temporary extreme risk protection order to determine if a one-year extreme risk protection order

should be issued under this chapter.

     (g) A temporary extreme risk protection order shall be immediately personally served by

the petitioner along with supporting documents that formed the basis of the order, the notice of

hearing, and the petition for the one-year extreme protection order. Alternate Alternative service

shall be in accordance with � 8-8.3-6. Service issued under this section takes precedence over the

service of other documents, unless the other documents are of a similar emergency nature. If

timely personal service cannot be made, the court shall set a new hearing date and shall require

additional attempts at obtaining personal service or permit alternate alternative service as

provided in this chapter.

     (h) If the court declines to issue a temporary extreme risk protection order, the court shall

state in writing the reasons for the denial.


 

87)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3-5

6 and 7

 

 

8-8.3-5. Hearings on petition � Grounds for issuance � Contents of order.

     (a) Upon hearing the matter, if the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the

respondent poses a significant danger of causing imminent personal injury to self or others by

having in their his or her custody or control, or by purchasing, possessing, or receiving, a

firearm, the court shall issue a one-year extreme risk protection order. An extreme risk protection

order issued by the court shall be for a fixed period of one year, at the expiration of which time

the court may renew the extreme risk protection order as set forth in � 8-8.3-7.

     (b) In determining whether grounds for an extreme risk protection order exist, the court

may consider any or all of the following, including, but not limited to:

     (1) A recent act or threat of violence by the respondent against self or others, regardless

of whether such the act or threat of violence involves a firearm;

     (2) A pattern of acts or threats of violence by the respondent within the past twelve (12)

months, including, but not limited to, acts or threats of violence against self or others;

     (3) The respondent's mental health history;

     (4) Evidence of the respondent's abuse of controlled substances or alcohol;

     (5) Previous violations by the respondent of any court order including, but not limited to,

restraining orders, no-contact orders issued pursuant to chapter 29 of title 12, and protective

orders issued pursuant to chapter 8.1 of title 8 or chapter 15 of title 15;

     (6) Previous extreme risk protection orders issued against the respondent;

     (7) The unlawful, threatening, or reckless use or brandishing of a firearm by the

respondent, including, but not limited to, such act taken or displayed through social media;

     (8) The respondent's ownership of, access to, or intent to possess firearms;

     (9) The respondent's criminal history, including, but not limited to, arrests and

convictions for felony offenses, crimes of violence as defined in � 11-47-2, violent misdemeanor

offenses, crimes involving domestic violence as defined in � 12-29-2, and stalking;

     (10) The history, use, attempted use, or threatened use of physical violence by the

respondent against another person, or the respondent�s history of stalking another person, or

evidence of cruelty to animals by the respondent, including, but not limited to, evidence of

violations or convictions pursuant to the provisions of chapter 1 of title 4; and

     (11) Evidence of recent acquisition or attempts at acquisition of firearms by the

respondent.

     (c) In determining whether grounds for a one-year extreme risk protection order exist, the

court may also consider any other relevant and credible evidence presented by the petitioner,

respondent, and any witnesses they may produce.

     (d) The court may continue a hearing under this section upon a showing of good cause,

including, but not limited to, whether service was effectuated less than seven (7) days from the

date of the scheduled hearing. If the court continues a hearing under this subsection in a matter in

which a temporary extreme risk protection order has been issued under � 8-8.3-4, the temporary

extreme risk protection order shall remain in effect until the next hearing date.

     (e) During the hearing the court may consider whether a mental health evaluation or

substance abuse evaluation is appropriate, and may recommend that the respondent seek such the

evaluation if appropriate.

     (f) An extreme risk protection order must include:

     (1) A statement of the grounds supporting the issuance of the order;

     (2) The date and time the order was issued;

     (3) The date and time the order expires;

     (4) Information pertaining to any recommendation by the court for mental health and/or

substance abuse evaluations, if applicable;

     (5) The address of the court that issued the order and in which any responsive pleading

should be filed; and

     (6) The following statement: "To the subject of this protection order: This order will

continue until the date and time noted above unless terminated earlier by court order. If any of

your firearms have not been seized by the petitioner, you are under an obligation to immediately

contact the petitioner to arrange for the surrender of any other firearms that you own and/or are in

your custody, control, or possession, that have not been seized. You must surrender to the

petitioner all firearms that you own and/or are in your in your custody, control, or possession, and

also immediately surrender to the licensing authority or the attorney general any concealed carry

permit issued to you pursuant to � 11-47-11 or � 11-47-18. While this order is in effect, it is

illegal for you to have any firearm in your possession, custody, or control or for you to purchase,

receive, or attempt to purchase or receive, any firearm. You have the right to request one hearing

to terminate this order within each twelve-(12) month (12) period that this order, or any renewal

order, is in effect. You may seek the advice of an attorney as to any matter connected with this

order. If you believe you cannot afford an attorney, you are hereby referred to the public defender

for an intake interview, and if eligible, the court shall appoint an attorney for you.�

     (g) Upon the issuance of a one-year extreme risk protection order, the court shall inform

the respondent that they are he or she is entitled to request termination of the order in the manner

prescribed by � 8-8.3-7. The court shall provide the respondent with a form to request a

termination hearing. The court shall also schedule a review hearing of the matter, which hearing

shall be scheduled within thirty (30) calendar days before the date the one-year extreme risk

protection order is set to expire.

     (h) If the court declines to issue a one-year extreme risk protection order, the court shall

state in writing the particular reasons for the court's denial and shall also order the return of

weapons to the respondent. Such The return should be effectuated consistent with the provisions

of � 8-8.3-8.


 

88)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3-6

6 and 7

 

 

8-8.3-6. Service of one-year extreme risk protection orders.

     (a) A one-year extreme risk protection order issued under this chapter shall be personally

served upon the respondent by the division of sheriffs. Provided, the division of sheriffs may

request the assistance of the state police with such the service as needed. If the division of

sheriffs cannot complete service of the one-year extreme risk protection order upon the

respondent within seven (7) days of the order's issuance, the deputy sheriff shall notify the

petitioner and the court. The petitioner shall then seek an order for alternate alternative service

pursuant to this chapter.

     (b) If the court determines that after diligent effort, personal service on the respondent

with or of any documents as required pursuant to this chapter cannot be made, then the court may

order an alternate alternative method of service designed to give reasonable notice to the

respondent. Alternative service may include, but shall not be limited to: service by certified and

regular mail at respondent's last-known address or place of employment; leaving copies at the

respondent's dwelling or usual place of abode with a person of suitable age and discretion

residing therein; or by affixing a summons to the door of the respondent's residence. Provided,

due to the nature of these proceedings, notice shall not be given by publication in a newspaper.

     (c) In the event personal service of any order, notice, or other document issued pursuant

to this chapter cannot be obtained, the court shall have discretion to continue any extreme risk

protection order, and hearing thereon, as the court deems appropriate, until service can be made

upon the respondent.

     (d) Upon receipt of alternate alternative service of any order, notice, or other document

issued pursuant to this chapter, the respondent shall comply with the order, notice, or document as if personally served.


 

89)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3-7

6 and 7

 

 

8-8.3-7. Termination � Expiration � Renewal of orders.

     (a) Termination of order. The respondent may submit a single written request for a

hearing to terminate a one-year extreme risk protection order issued under this chapter within the

twelve-(12) month (12) period that the order, or any renewal order, is in effect.

     (1) Upon receipt of the request for a hearing to terminate a one-year extreme risk

protection order, the court shall set a date for a hearing. The respondent shall cause a copy of the

notice of the request to be served on the original petitioner. A hearing on this motion shall be

scheduled not later than thirty (30) days from the date of filing the request.

     (2) At a hearing to terminate a one-year extreme risk protection order prior to its

scheduled date of expiration, the respondent shall have the burden of proving by clear and

convincing evidence that the respondent does not pose a significant danger of causing imminent

personal injury to self or others by having a firearm in their his or her custody or control, or by

purchasing, possessing, or receiving, a firearm. The court may consider any relevant evidence,

including evidence of the considerations enumerated in � 8-8.3-5. In addition, the court may

consider whether the respondent complied with the court�s recommendation that the respondent

undergo a mental health and/or substance abuse evaluation.

     (3) If the court finds after the hearing that the respondent has met their his or her burden

by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall terminate the one-year order and order return of

the firearms consistent with the provisions of � 8-8.3-8.

     (b) Notice of impending expiration. The original petitioner shall notify in writing all

interested parties, including but not limited to family or household members of the respondent, of

the impending expiration of any one-year extreme risk protection order within fourteen (14)

calendar days before the date the order expires.

     (c) Motion for renewal of order. The petitioner may by motion request a renewal of a

one-year extreme risk protection order at any time within fourteen (14) calendar days before the

date the order expires.

     (1) Upon receipt of a motion to renew a one-year extreme risk protection order, the court

shall order that a hearing be held not later than fourteen (14) days from the date the motion is

filed. The respondent shall be personally served with notice of the motion, unless otherwise

ordered by the court.

     (2) In determining whether to renew a one-year extreme risk protection order under this

section, the court shall consider all relevant evidence presented by the petitioner and follow the

same procedures provided in � 8-8.3-5. The court may also consider whether the respondent

complied with any court recommendation for a mental health and/or substance abuse evaluation.

     (3) If the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the requirements for issuance

of a one-year extreme risk protection order as provided in � 8-8.3-5 continue to be met, the court

shall renew the order for another year. Further, if, after notice, the motion for renewal is

uncontested and the petitioner seeks no modification of the order, the order may be renewed on

the basis of the petitioner's motion and affidavit stating that there has been no material change in

relevant circumstances since entry of the order which that is subject to renewal.

     (4) A renewal of a one-year extreme risk protection order shall be for another fixed

period of one year, subject to termination as provided in subsection (a) of this section or future

renewal by order of the court pursuant to this subsection.


 

90)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3-8

6 and 7

 

 

8-8.3-8. Firearms return �- Disposal.

     (a) Any firearm seized or surrendered in accordance with this chapter shall be returned to

the respondent upon their his or her request, within ten (10) days, when:

     (1) The respondent produces documentation issued by the court indicating that any

extreme risk protective order issued pursuant to this chapter has expired, terminated, or has not

been renewed. Respondent shall not be required to acquire any additional court order granting

the return of seized or surrendered firearms; and

     (2) The law enforcement agency in possession of the firearms conducts a national

criminal records check and determines that the respondent is not otherwise prohibited from

possessing a firearm under state or federal law.

     (b) A law enforcement agency shall, if requested by the court or the petitioner, provide

prior notice to any interested party, including but not limited to family or household members of

the respondent, of the impending return of a firearm to a respondent, in the manner provided in �

8-8.3-6.

     (c) Upon written request of the respondent, any law enforcement agency storing

firearm(s) shall transfer possession of the firearm(s) to a federally licensed firearms dealer, who

or that may be designated by the respondent if so desired.

     (1) The respondent may instruct the federally licensed firearms dealer designated by the

respondent where applicable to sell the firearm(s) or to transfer ownership or possession in

accordance with state and federal law, to a qualified named individual who is not a member of the

person's dwelling house, and who is not prohibited from possessing firearms under state or

federal law. The owner of any firearm(s) sold shall receive any financial value received from their

its sale, less the cost associated with taking possession of, storing, and transferring of the

firearm(s).

     (2) Any individual to whom possession of a firearm(s) is transferred pursuant to this

subsection shall be prohibited from transferring or returning any firearm(s) to the respondent

while the extreme risk protective order is in effect and shall be informed of this prohibition. Any

knowing violation of this subsection is a felony which that shall be punishable by imprisonment

for a term of not more than five (5) years, or by a fine of not more than one thousand dollars

($1,000), or both.

     (3) An individual to whom possession of a firearm(s) is transferred pursuant to this

subsection shall only return a firearm(s) to the respondent if the respondent provides court

documentation that the extreme risk protection order issued pursuant to this chapter has expired

or been withdrawn or terminated, and has not been renewed.

     (d) The Rhode Island state police are authorized to develop rules and procedures

pertaining to the storage and return of firearms seized by or surrendered to the local law

enforcement agency or the state police pursuant to the provisions of this chapter or chapter 8.1 of

title 8. The state police may consult with the Rhode Island Police Chiefs' Association in

developing rules and procedures to effectuate this section.


 

91)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3-9

6 and 7

 

 

8-8.3-9. Reporting of orders.

     (a) The clerk of the court shall enter any one-year extreme risk protection order or

temporary extreme risk protection order issued pursuant to this chapter into a statewide judicial

information system on the same day such the order is issued.

     (b) The clerk of the court shall forward a copy of any order issued, renewed, or

terminated under this chapter the same day such the order is issued to the appropriate law

enforcement agency specified in the order and the attorney general.

     (1) Upon receipt of the copy of an extreme risk protection order, the attorney general

shall enter the order into:

     (i) The national instant criminal background check system National Instant Criminal

Background Check System, also known as the NICS database;

     (ii) All federal or state computer-based systems and databases used by law enforcement

or others to identify prohibited purchasers of firearms; and

     (iii) All computer-based criminal intelligence information systems and databases

available in this state used by law enforcement agencies.

     (2) The order must remain in each system for the period stated in the order, and the law

enforcement agency shall only remove orders from the systems upon notice that they have been

terminated or expired. Entry into the computer-based criminal intelligence information system

constitutes notice to all law enforcement agencies of the existence of the order. The order shall be

fully enforceable in any city or town in the state.

     (c) The issuing court shall, within three (3) business days after issuance of a one-year

extreme risk protection order or temporary extreme risk protection order, forward a copy of the

respondent's driver's license, or comparable information, along with the date of order issuance, to

the attorney general and the appropriate licensing authority. Upon receipt of the information, the

attorney general or the appropriate licensing authority shall determine if the respondent has a

concealed carry permit. If the respondent does have a concealed carry permit, the attorney general

or the appropriate licensing authority shall immediately revoke the license.

     (d) If any extreme risk protection order is terminated before its expiration date, the clerk

of the court shall forward, on the same day, a copy of the termination order to the office of the

attorney general and the petitioner. Upon receipt of the order, the attorney general shall promptly

remove the order from any computer-based system into which it was entered pursuant to

subsection (b) of this section.


 

92)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3-10

6 and 7

 

 

8-8.3-10. Penalties.

     (a) Any violation of any extreme risk protection order shall subject the violator to being

found in contempt of court. The contempt order shall not be exclusive and shall not preclude any

other available civil or criminal remedies.

     (b) Any violation of an extreme risk protection order issued under this chapter of which

the respondent has actual notice shall be a felony and, upon conviction, shall be punished by

imprisonment for not more than ten (10) years, or a fine of not more than ten thousand dollars

($10,000), or both.

     (c) Filing a petition or providing information pursuant to this chapter knowing the

information in or for such petition to be materially false, or with intent to harass the respondent,

shall be a felony that shall be punished by imprisonment for not more than five (5) years, or a fine

of not more than five thousand dollars ($5,000), or both.


 

93)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3-11

6 and 7

 

 

8-8.3-11. Liability.

     Except as provided in �� 8-8.3-8 and 8-8.3-10, this chapter does not impose criminal or

civil liability on a law enforcement agency, law enforcement officer, or the attorney general or a

member of that department, for acts or omissions related to obtaining any extreme risk protection

order including, but not limited to, reporting, declining to report, investigating, declining to

investigate, filing, or declining to file a petition under this chapter.


 

94)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3-12

6 and 7

 

 

8-8.3-12. Required notice on orders � Confidentiality of proceedings.

     (a) Any extreme risk protection order form shall include, in a conspicuous location,

notice of penalties resulting from violation of the order, and the following statement: "You have

the sole responsibility to avoid or refrain from violating this order's provisions. Only the court can

change the order and only upon written application."

     (b) All filings, petitions, orders, warrants, affidavits, evidence, and any other document

filed pursuant to this chapter shall be deemed confidential documents and shall not be available

for public inspection or disclosure absent a court order. This section shall not prohibit the entry of

orders into appropriate databases as required pursuant to � 8-8.3-9.


 

95)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3-13

6 and 7

 

 

8-8.3-13. Appeal.

     Any order under this chapter shall remain in effect during the pendency of an appeal to

the supreme court unless the order is stayed by a justice of the supreme court.


 

96)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-8.3-14

6 and 7

 

 

8.3-14. Severability.

     If any section of this chapter or its application to any person or circumstance is held

invalid by a court of competent jurisdiction, the remainder of the chapter and the application of

the section to other persons or circumstances shall not be affected. The invalidity or

unconstitutionality of any section or sections or part of any section or sections of this chapter

shall not affect the validity of the remainder of this chapter and to this end the sections of this

chapter are severable.


 

97)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

8-19-7

164 and 270

 

 

8-19-7. Confidential communications.

     No interpreter/transliterator appointed pursuant to this chapter to interpret or translate for

limited-English-proficient persons in proceedings before the state courts in Rhode Island shall be

called upon to testify concerning any statement(s) made to them in connection with the

interpreter's or transliterator's interpretation or transliteration without the consent of the person

making the statement or unless compelled by court order.


 

98)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

9-1-14.1

154 and 273

 

 

9-1-14.1. Limitation on malpractice actions.

     Notwithstanding the provisions of �� 9-1-13 and 9-1-14, an action for medical,

veterinarian, accounting, or insurance or real estate agent or broker malpractice shall be

commenced within three (3) years from the time of the occurrence of the incident which that

gave rise to the action; provided, however, that:

     (1) One who is under disability by reason of age, mental incompetence, or otherwise, and

on whose behalf no action is brought within the period of three (3) years from the time of the

occurrence of the incident, shall bring the action within three (3) years from the removal of the

disability the action at any time up to twenty-one (21) years of age.

     (2) One who is under disability by reason of mental incompetence, or otherwise, and on

whose behalf no action is brought within the period of three (3) years from the time of the

occurrence of the incident, shall bring the action within three (3) years from the removal of the

disability.

     (2)(3) In respect to those injuries or damages due to acts of medical, veterinarian,

accounting, or insurance or real estate agent or broker malpractice which that could not in the

exercise of reasonable diligence be discoverable at the time of the occurrence of the incident

which that gave rise to the action, suit shall be commenced within three (3) years of the time that

the act or acts of the malpractice should, in the exercise of reasonable diligence, have been

discovered.


 

99)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

9-1.1-3

155 and 257

 

 

9-1.1-3. Liability for certain acts.

     (a) Any person who:

     (1) Knowingly presents, or causes to be presented, a false or fraudulent claim for

payment or approval;

     (2) Knowingly makes, uses, or causes to be made or used, a false record or statement

material to a false or fraudulent claim;

     (3) Conspires to commit a violation of subdivisions 9-1.1-3(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6) or (7)

subsection (a)(1), (a)(2), (a)(4), (a)(5), (a)(6), or (a)(7);

     (4) Has possession, custody, or control of property or money used, or to be used, by the

state and knowingly delivers, or causes to be delivered, less property than all of that money or

property;

     (5) Is authorized to make or deliver a document certifying receipt of property used, or to

be used, by the state and, intending to defraud the state, makes or delivers the receipt without

completely knowing that the information on the receipt is true;

     (6) Knowingly buys, or receives as a pledge of an obligation or debt, public property

from an officer or employee of the state, or a member of the guard, who lawfully may not sell or

pledge the property; or

     (7) Knowingly makes, uses, or causes to be made or used, a false record or statement

material to an obligation to pay or transmit money or property to the state, or knowingly conceals

or knowingly and improperly avoids or decreases an obligation to pay or transmit money or

property to the state; is liable to the state for a civil penalty of not less than five thousand five

hundred dollars ($5,500) and not more than eleven thousand dollars ($11,000) in an amount equal

to the civil penalty set forth in the Federal False Claims Act, following the Federal Civil Penalties

Inflation Agreement Act of 1990, (31 U.S.C. � 3729(a)), Pub. L. No. 101-410 section 5, 104 Stat.

891, note following 28 U.S.C. section 2461, as amended and annually adjusted by the Federal

Civil Penalties Inflation Adjustment Improvements Act of 2015, plus three (3) times the amount

of damages which the state sustains because of the act of that person. A person violating this

subsection (a) shall also be liable to the state for the costs of a civil action brought to recover any

such penalty or damages.

     (b) Definitions. For purposes of this section:

     (1)(2) "Knowing" and "knowingly" means that a person with respect to information:

     (i) Has actual knowledge of the information;

     (ii) Acts in deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the information;

     (iii) Acts in reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the information; and

     (iv) Requires no proof of specific intent to defraud.

     (2)(1) "Claim" means any request or demand, whether under a contract or otherwise, for

money or property and whether or not the state has title to the money or property, that:

     (i) Is presented to an officer, employee, or agent of the state; or

     (ii) Is made to a contractor, grantee, or other recipient, if the money or property is to be

spent or used on the state's behalf or advance a state program or interest, and if the state:

     (A) Provides or has provided any portion of the money or property requested or

demanded; or

     (B) Will reimburse such the contractor, grantee, or other recipient for any portion of the

money or property which that is requested or demanded; and

     (iii) Does not include requests or demands for money or property that the state has paid to

an individual as compensation for state employment or as an income subsidy with no restrictions

on that individual's use of the money or property;

     (3)(4) "Obligation" means an established duty, whether or not fixed, arising from an

express or implied contractual, grantor-grantee, or licensor-licensee relationship, from a fee-based

or similar relationship, from statute or regulation, or from the retention of any overpayment; and

     (4)(3) �Material" means having a natural tendency to influence, or be capable of

influencing, the payment or receipt of money or property.

     (c) Exclusion. This section does not apply to claims, records, or statements made under

the Rhode Island personal income tax law contained in Rhode Island general laws chapter 44-30

chapter 30 of title 44.


 

100)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

9-1.1-4

155 and 257

 

 

9-1.1-4. Civil actions for false claims.

     (a) Responsibilities of the attorney general and solicitor. The attorney general or solicitor

diligently shall investigate a violation under � 9-1.1-3 of this section. If under this section the

attorney general or solicitor finds that a person has violated or is violating � 9-1.1-3, the attorney

general or solicitor may bring a civil action under this section against the person.

     (b) Actions by private persons.

     (1) A person may bring a civil action for a violation of � 9-1.1-3 for the person and for

the state. The action shall be brought in the name of the state. The action may be dismissed only

if the court and the attorney general give written consent to the dismissal and their reasons for

consenting.

     (2) A copy of the complaint and written disclosure of substantially all material evidence

and information the person possesses shall be served on the state upon the attorney general. The

complaint shall be filed in camera,; shall remain under seal for at least sixty (60) days,; and shall

not be served on the defendant until the court so orders. The state may elect to intervene and

proceed with the action within sixty (60) days after it receives both the complaint and the material

evidence and information.

     (3) The state may, for good cause shown, move the court for extensions of the time

during which the complaint remains under seal under paragraph (2) subsection (b)(2). Any such

motions may be supported by affidavits or other submissions in camera. The defendant shall not

be required to respond to any complaint filed under this section until twenty (20) days after the

complaint is unsealed and served upon the defendant.

     (4) Before the expiration of the sixty-(60) day (60) period or any extensions obtained

under paragraph (3) subsection (b)(3), the state shall:

     (i) Proceed with the action, in which case the action shall be conducted by the state; or

     (ii) Notify the court that it declines to take over the action, in which case the person

bringing the action shall have the right to conduct the action.

     (5) When a person brings an action under this subsection (b), no person other than the

state may intervene or bring a related action based on the facts underlying the pending action.

     (c) Rights of the parties to Qui Tam qui tam actions.

     (1) If the state proceeds with the action, it shall have the primary responsibility for

prosecuting the action, and shall not be bound by an act of the person bringing the action. Such

The person shall have the right to continue as a party to the action, subject to the limitations set

forth in paragraph (2) subsection (c)(2).

     (2)(A)(i) The state may dismiss the action notwithstanding the objections of the person

initiating the action if the person has been notified by the state of the filing of the motion and the

court has provided the person with an opportunity for a hearing on the motion.

     (i)(ii) The state may settle the action with the defendant notwithstanding the objections of

the person initiating the action if the court determines, after a hearing, that the proposed

settlement is fair, adequate, and reasonable under all the circumstances. Upon a showing of good

cause, such hearing may be held in camera.

     (ii)(iii) Upon a showing by the state that unrestricted participation during the course of

the litigation by the person initiating the action would interfere with or unduly delay the state's

prosecution of the case, or would be repetitious, irrelevant, or for purposes of harassment, the

court may, in its discretion, impose limitations on the person's participation, such as:

     (A) Limiting the number of witnesses the person may call:;

     (B) Limiting the length of the testimony of such witnesses;

     (C) Limiting the person's cross-examination of witnesses; or

     (D) Otherwise limiting the participation by the person in the litigation.

     (iii)(iv) Upon a showing by the defendant that unrestricted participation during the course

of the litigation by the person initiating the action would be for purposes of harassment or would

cause the defendant undue burden or unnecessary expense, the court may limit the participation

by the person in the litigation.

     (3) If the state elects not to proceed with the action, the person who initiated the action

shall have the right to conduct the action. If the state so requests, it shall be served with copies of

all pleadings filed in the action and shall be supplied with copies of all deposition transcripts (at

the state's expense). When a person proceeds with the action, the court, without limiting the status

and rights of the person initiating the action, may nevertheless permit the State state to intervene

at a later date upon a showing of good cause.

     (4) Whether or not the state proceeds with the action, upon a showing by the state that

certain actions of discovery by the person initiating the action would interfere with the state's

investigation or prosecution of a criminal or civil matter arising out of the same facts, the court

may stay such discovery for a period of not more than sixty (60) days. Such a showing shall be

conducted in camera. The court may extend the sixty-(60) day (60) period upon a further showing

in camera that the state has pursued the criminal or civil investigation or proceedings with

reasonable diligence and any proposed discovery in the civil action will interfere with the

ongoing criminal or civil investigation or proceedings.

     (5) Notwithstanding subsection (b), the state may elect to pursue its claim through any

alternate remedy available to the state, including any administrative proceeding to determine a

civil money penalty. If any such alternate remedy is pursued in another proceeding, the person

initiating the action shall have the same rights in such that proceeding as such the person would

have had if the action had continued under this section. Any finding of fact or conclusion of law

made in such the other proceeding that has become final shall be conclusive on all parties to an

action under this section. For purposes of the preceding sentence, a finding or conclusion is final

if it has been finally determined on appeal to the appropriate court,; if all time for filing such an

appeal with respect to the finding or conclusion has expired,; or if the finding or conclusion is not

subject to judicial review.

     (d) Award to Qui Tam qui tam plaintiff.

     (1) If the State state proceeds with an action brought by a person under this section

subsection 9-1.1-4(b) � 9-1.1-4such the person shall, subject to the second sentence of this

paragraph, receive at least fifteen percent (15%) but not more than twenty-five percent (25%) of

the proceeds of the action or settlement of the claim, depending upon the extent to which the

person substantially contributed to the prosecution of the action. Where the action is one which

that the court finds to be based primarily on disclosures of specific information (other than

information provided by the person bringing the action) relating to allegations or transactions in a

criminal, civil, or administrative hearing, in a legislative, administrative, or Auditor General's

auditor general's report, hearing, audit, or investigation, or from the news media, the court may

award such those sums as it considers appropriate, but in no case more than ten percent (10%) of

the proceeds, taking into account the significance of the information and the role of the person

bringing the action in advancing the case to litigation. Any payment to a person under the first or

second sentence of this paragraph (1) subsection (d)(1) shall be made from the proceeds. Any

such The person shall also receive an amount for reasonable expenses which that the court finds

to have been necessarily incurred, plus reasonable attorneys' fees and costs. The state shall also

receive an amount for reasonable expenses which the court finds to have been necessarily

incurred by the attorney general, including reasonable attorneys' fees and costs, and the amount

received shall be deposited in the false claims act fund created under this chapter. All such

expenses, fees, and costs shall be awarded against the defendant.

     (2) If the state does not proceed with an action under this section, the person bringing the

action or settling the claim shall receive an amount which the court decides is reasonable for

collecting the civil penalty and damages. The amount shall be not less than twenty-five percent

(25%) and not more than thirty percent (30%) of the proceeds of the action or settlement and shall

be paid out of such the proceeds. Such The person shall also receive an amount for reasonable

expenses which the court finds to have been necessarily incurred, plus reasonable attorneys' fees

and costs. All such expenses, fees, and costs shall be awarded against the defendant.

     (3) Whether or not the state proceeds with the action, if the court finds that the action was

brought by a person who planned and initiated the violation of � 9-1.1-3 upon which the action

was brought, then the court may, to the extent the court considers appropriate, reduce the share of

the proceeds of the action which the person would otherwise receive under paragraph (1) or (2) of

this subsection (d) subsection (d)(1) or (d)(2), taking into account the role of that person in

advancing the case to litigation and any relevant circumstances pertaining to the violation. If the

person bringing the action is convicted of criminal conduct arising from his or her role in the

violation of � 9-1.1-3, that person shall be dismissed from the civil action and shall not receive

any share of the proceeds of the action. Such The dismissal shall not prejudice the right of the

state to continue the action.

     (4) If the state does not proceed with the action and the person bringing the action

conducts the action, the court may award to the defendant its reasonable attorneys' fees and

expenses if the defendant prevails in the action and the court finds that the claim of the person

bringing the action was clearly frivolous, clearly vexatious, or brought primarily for purposes of

harassment.

     (e) Certain actions barred.

     (1) No court shall have jurisdiction over an action brought by a former or present member

of the guard under this section subsection 9-1.1-4(b) � 9-1.1-4(actions by private persons) against

a member of the guard arising out of such the person's service in the guard.

     (2) No court shall have jurisdiction over an action brought pursuant to subsection (b) 9-

1.1-4(b) (actions by private persons) against the governor, lieutenant governor, the attorney

general, members of the general assembly, a member of the judiciary, the treasurer, secretary of

state, the auditor general, any director of a state agency, and any other individual appointed to

office by the governor if the action is based on evidence or information known to the state when

the action was brought.

     (3) In no event may a person bring an action under subsection 9-1.1-4(b) which that is

based upon allegations or transactions which are the subject of a civil suit or an administrative

civil money penalty proceeding in which the state is already a party.

     (4) (A) The court shall dismiss an action or claim under this section, unless opposed by

the state, if substantially the same allegations or transactions as alleged in the action or claim

where were publically publicly disclosed:

     (i) In a state criminal, civil, or administrative hearing, in which the state or its agents is a

party;

     (ii) In a legislative or auditor general's or other state of Rhode Island report, hearing,

audit, or investigation; or

     (iii) From the news media, unless the action is brought by the attorney general or the

person bringing the action is an original source of the information.

     (B) For purposes of this paragraph, "original source" means an individual who either: (i)

Prior to the public disclosure under subparagraph 9-1.4-4 subsection (e)(4)(A), has voluntarily

disclosed to the state the information on which the allegations or transactions in a claim are

based; or (ii) Who has knowledge that is independent of and materially adds to the publicly

disclosed allegations or transaction, and who has voluntarily provided the information to the state

before filing an action under this section.

     (f) State not liable for certain expenses. The state is not liable for expenses which that a

person incurs in bringing an action under this section.

     (g) Any employee, contractor, agent, or associated others who is discharged, demoted,

suspended, threatened, harassed, or in any other manner discriminated against in the terms and

conditions of employment because of lawful acts done by the employee, contractor, agent, or

associated others in furtherance of an action under this section, or other efforts to stop one or

more violations of this subsection chapter, including investigation for, initiation of, testimony for,

or assistance in an action filed or to be filed under this section, shall be entitled to all relief

necessary to make the employee, contractor, agent, or associated others whole. Such The relief

shall include reinstatement with the same seniority status such the employee, contractor, agent, or

associated others would have had but for the discrimination,; two (2) times the amount of back

pay,; interest on the back pay,; and compensation for any special damages sustained as a result of

the discrimination, including litigation costs and reasonable attorneys' fees. An employee,

contractor, agent, or associated others may bring an action in the appropriate superior court for

the relief provided in this subsection 9-1.1-4(g).

     (h) Limitation on bringing civil action. A civil action under subsection (g) may not be

brought more than three (3) years after the date when the retaliation occurred.


 

101)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

9-1.1-5

155 and 257

 

 

9-1.1-5. False claims procedure.

     (a) A subpoena requiring the attendance of a witness at a trial or hearing conducted under

� 9-1.1-4, may be served at any place in the state.

     (b) A civil action under � 9-1.1-4 may not be brought:

     (1) More than 6 years after the date on which the violation of � 9-1.1-3 is committed, or

     (2) More than three (3) years after the date when facts material to the right of action are

known or reasonably should have been known by the official of the state charged with

responsibility to act in the circumstances, but in no event more than ten (10) years after the date

on which the violation is committed, whichever occurs last.

     (c) If the state elects to intervene and proceed with an action brought under subsection 9-

1.1-4(i) � 9-1.1-4, the state may file its own complaint or amend the complaint of a person who

has brought an action under � 9-1.1-4 to clarify or add detail to the claims in which the state is

intervening and to add any additional claims with respect to which the state contends it is entitled

to relief. For statute of limitations purposes, any such state pleading shall relate back to the filing

date of the complaint of the person who originally brought the action, to the extent that the claim

of the state arises out of the conduct, transactions, or occurrences set forth, or attempted to be set

forth, in the prior complaint of that person.

     (d) In any action brought under � 9-1.1-4, the state shall be required to prove all essential

elements of the cause of action, including damages, by a preponderance of the evidence.

     (e) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, a final judgment rendered in favor of the

state in any criminal proceeding charging fraud or false statements, whether upon a verdict after

trial or upon a plea of guilty or nolo contendere, shall estop the defendant from denying the

essential elements of the offense in any action which that involves the same transaction as in the

criminal proceeding and which is brought under subsections  9-1.1-4(a) or 9-1.1-4(b).


 

102)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

9-31-2.1

231 and 258

 

 

9-31-2.1. Limitation of damages -- State -- Commuter rail service.

     (a) Agreements between the state and a railroad for the provision of commuter rail

service shall provide that the state shall secure and maintain a liability insurance policy covering

the liability of the state and the railroad for property damage, personal injury, bodily injury, and

death arising out of such the commuter rail service. Such The policy shall name the state as

named insured, and the railroad as an additional insured, shall have policy limits of not less than

seventy-five million dollars ($75,000,000) per occurrence annually and seventy-five million

dollars ($75,000,000) in the aggregate annually, and shall be subject to self-insured retention in

an amount not less than up to seven million five hundred thousand dollars ($7,500,000). In no

event shall the state or the railroad be liable in excess of the coverage limits of such the insurance

policy for any and all claims for damage, whether compensatory or punitive, for property

damage, personal injury, bodily injury, and death arising out of such the commuter rail service.

     (b) For the purposes of this section, the term "railroad" shall include any person, railroad

corporation, or other legal entity in the business of providing rail transportation which that

contracts with the state for the provision of commuter rail services and the term "commuter rail

service", shall include all services performed by a railroad pursuant to a contract with the state in

connection with the transportation of rail passengers including, but not limited to, the operation of

trains, trackage, and equipment, or the construction, reconstruction, or maintenance of railroad

equipment, tracks, and any appurtenant facilities or the provision of trackage rights over lines

owned by any such railroad.


 

103)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-13-9

232 and 281

 

 

11-13-9. Placing of explosive devices, threats, possession of readily convertible components.

     (a) Every person who, without lawful authority, places a bomb, or other explosive in any

public or private building, or area where persons may lawfully assemble as provided in � 11-11-1

device, or any destructive or incendiary device or substance, or falsely reports the placing of a

bomb, explosive device, or any destructive or incendiary device or substance, shall upon

conviction be imprisoned not less than three (3) years nor more than twenty (20) years and fined

not less than one thousand dollars ($1,000) nor more than ten thousand dollars ($10,000).

     (b) Every person who threatens to place a bomb, or other explosive in any public or

private building, or area where persons may lawfully assemble as provided in � 11-11-1, device,

or any destructive or incendiary device or substance, or falsely reports the placing of a bomb, or

other explosive in the building or area device, or any destructive or incendiary device or

substance, shall, upon conviction, be imprisoned not less than one year nor more than ten (10)

years and fined not less than five hundred dollars ($500) nor more than five thousand dollars

($5,000).

     (c) Whoever, without lawful authority, has in their possession or under their control any

bomb, explosive device, or any destructive or incendiary device or substance, or combination of

materials that are readily convertible to a bomb, explosive device, or any destructive or

incendiary device or substance, shall be punished by imprisonment for not less than three (3)

years nor more than twenty (20) years, or by a fine of not less than one thousand dollars ($1,000)

nor more than ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or both.


 

104)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

11-13-10

232 and 281

 

 

11-13-10. Definitions.

     For purposes of this chapter unless the context otherwise requires:

     (1) "Destructive or incendiary device or substance" means an explosive, article or device

designed or adapted to cause physical harm to persons or property by means of fire, explosion,

deflagration, or detonation and consisting of any substance capable of being ignited, whether or

not contrived to ignite or explode automatically.

     (2) "Explosive" means any chemical compound, mechanical mixture, or device that

contains any oxidizing and combustible units, or other ingredients, in such proportions, quantities,

or packing that ignition by fire, by friction, by concussion, by percussion, or by detonation of the

compound, mixture, or device, or any part thereof, may cause an explosion; any chemical

compound, mixture, or device, the primary or common purpose of which is to function by

explosion; the term includes, but is not limited to, high and low explosives, black powder,

smokeless powder, pellet powder, initiating explosives, detonators, safety fuses, squibs,

detonating cord, igniter cord, igniters; and other materials which that are classified as Division

1.1, 1.2, 1.3, 1.4, 1.5 or 1.6 explosives by the United States Department of Transportation or

listed pursuant to 18 USC � 841 or 27 CFR 555.23. "Explosive" shall not include a pyrotechnic,

small-arms ammunition, small-arms ammunition primers, smokeless powder and black powders

possessed in quantities allowable by law pursuant to � 23-28.28-5 unless possessed or used for an

illegal purpose.

     (3) "Hoax explosive", "hoax destructive or incendiary device or substance", or "hoax

chemical, biological, or nuclear weapon" means any device, article, or substance that would cause

a person to reasonably believe that such the device, article, or substance is: (i) An explosive; (ii)

A destructive or incendiary device or substance; or (iii) A chemical, biological, or nuclear

weapon, harmful radioactive substance or poison capable of causing bodily injury which that is

actually an inoperable facsimile.

     (4) "Oxidizer" means a substance that yields oxygen readily to stimulate the combustion

of organic matter or other fuel.

     (5) "Places" means to set or put in a particular space.

     (6) "Pyrotechnic" means any commercially manufactured combustible or explosive

composition or manufactured article designed and prepared for the purpose of producing an

audible effect or a visible display including, but not limited to: (i) Fireworks, firecrackers; and

(ii) Flares, fuses and torpedoes, so-called, and similar signaling devices.

     (7) "Readily converted" means any combination of components that have been brought

together in a manner for assembly that is designed or adapted to cause physical harm to persons

or property by means of fire, explosion, deflagration, or detonation but are not yet in a completed

stage. Elements to determine whether an item is "readily converted" include, but are not limited

to: (1)(i) Time required to convert the components; (2)(ii) Ease of conversion; (3)(iii) Expertise

needed; (4)(iv) Necessary equipment; (5)(v) Availability of parts and the ease in which they can

be obtained; (6)(vi) Expense; (7)(vii) Scope to which the item(s) have already been modified; and

(8)(viii) Feasibility.

     (8) "Small-arms ammunition" means any shotgun, rifle, pistol, or revolver cartridge, and

cartridges for propellant-actuated power devices and industrial guns.


 

105)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-23-6

105 and 111

 

 

11-23-6. Controlled substance transaction resulting in death of minor.

     Any person convicted of the sale who sellsdelivery delivers, or distribution distributes

of a controlled substance, the sale of which would constitute a felony under chapter 28 of title 21,

to a minor, or of knowingly provides providing a controlled substance for sale, delivery, or

distribution to a minor, and death has resulted to the minor because of the ingestion orally, by or

the injection, or by inhalation of the controlled substance, shall be imprisoned for life.


 

106)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

11-23-7

105 and 111

 

 

11-23-7. Controlled substance delivery resulting in death.

     (a) A person is guilty of a controlled substance delivery resulting in death when, as a

result of an unlawful delivery of a controlled substance in exchange for anything of value to an

adult, death results to that adult because of the ingestion orally, or the injection, or inhalation of

the controlled substance.

     (b) A person is guilty of a controlled substance delivery resulting in death when, as a

result of an unlawful delivery of a controlled substance to another person who subsequently

delivers such controlled substance to an adult, death results to that adult because of the ingestion

orally, or the injection, or inhalation of the controlled substance.

     (c) Those in violation of subsections subsection (a) or (b) of this section, upon

conviction, shall be imprisoned up to life.

     (d) For the purposes of this section only, any person who, in good faith, without malice

and in the absence of evidence of an intent to defraud, seeks medical assistance for someone

experiencing a controlled substance overdose shall not be charged or prosecuted for a violation of

this section, if the evidence for the charge was gained as a result of the seeking of medical

assistance.

     (e) The phrase "in exchange for anything of value" does not apply to the act of sharing a

controlled substance when said the sharing results in the proximate cause of a person's death

under this section.


 

107)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-37.1-2

157 and 259

 

 

11-37.1-2. Definitions.

     (a)(b) "Aggravated offense" means, and includes, offenses involving sexual penetration

of victims of any age through the use of force, or the threat of use of force, or offenses involving

sexual penetration of victims who are fourteen (14) years of age or under.

     (b)(c) "Board", "board of review", or "sex offender board of review" means the sex

offender board of review appointed by the governor pursuant to � 11-37.1-6.

     (c)(d) (1) "Conviction" or "convicted" means, and includes, any instance where:

     (i) A judgment of conviction has been entered against any person for any offense

specified in subsection (e) or (k), or a federal offense, a foreign offense, or a military offense,

regardless of whether an appeal is pending; or

     (ii) There has been a finding of guilty for any offense specified in subsection (e) or (k), or

a federal offense, a foreign offense, or a military offense, regardless of whether an appeal is

pending; or

     (iii) There has been a plea of guilty or nolo contendere for any offense specified in

subsection (e) or (k), or a federal offense, a foreign offense, or a military offense, regardless of

whether an appeal is pending; or

     (iv) There has been an admission of sufficient facts or a finding of delinquency for any

offense specified in subsection (e) or (k), or a federal offense, a foreign offense, or a military

offense, regardless of whether or not an appeal is pending.

     (2) Provided, in the event that a conviction, as defined in this subsection, has been

overturned, reversed, or otherwise vacated, the person who was the subject of the conviction shall

no longer be required to register as required by this chapter and any records of a registration shall

be destroyed. Provided, further, that nothing in this section shall be construed to eliminate a

registration requirement of a person who is again convicted of an offense for which registration is

required by this chapter.

     (d)(e) [Deleted by P.L. 2003, ch. 162, � 1 and by P.L. 2003, ch. 170, � 1].

     (e)(f) "Criminal offense against a victim who is a minor" means, and includes, any of the

following offenses or any offense in another jurisdiction that is substantially the equivalent of the

following or for which the person is or would be required to register under 42 U.S.C. � 14071 or

18 U.S.C. � 4042(c) 34 U.S.C. � 20911 as amended:

     (1) Kidnapping or false imprisonment of a minor, in violation of �� 11-26-1.4, 11-26-1 or

11-26-2, where the victim of the offense is sixteen (16) years of age or older and under the age of

eighteen (18) years;

     (2) Enticement of a child in violation of � 11-26-1.5 with the intent to violate �� 11-37-6,

11-37-8, 11-37-8.1, 11-37-8.3;

     (3) Any violation of �� 11-37-6, 11-37-8, 11-37-8.1, or 11-37-8.3;

     (4) Any violation of � 11-1-10, where the underlying offense is a violation of chapter 34

of this title and the victim, or person solicited to commit the offense, is under the age of eighteen

(18) years;

     (5) Any violation of � 11-9-1(b) or (c);

     (6) Any violation of � 11-9-1.3;

     (7) Any violation of � 11-9-1.5;

     (8) Any violation of � 11-37.1-10;

     (9) Any violation of � 11-37-8.8;

     (10) Any violation of � 11-64-2, where the victim is under the age of eighteen (18) years;

     (11) Murder in violation of � 11-23-1, where the murder was committed in the

perpetration of, or attempted perpetration of, kidnapping and where the victim of the offense is

under eighteen (18) years of age; or

     (12) Any violation of �� 11-67-6, 11-67.1-3(b), 11-67.1-4(b), 11-67.1-5(c), 11-67.1-6(b),

or 11-67.1-7(b).; or

     (13) Any conviction for an attempt or conspiracy to commit an offense enumerated in this

subsection.

     (f)(g) "Designated state law enforcement agency" means the attorney general, or his or

her designee.

     (g)(h) "Employed, carries on a vocation" means and includes the definition of "employed,

carries on a vocation" under 42 U.S.C. � 14071 34 U.S.C. � 20911.

     (h)(n) "Institutions of higher education" means any university, two- or four-year (2 or 4)

college or community college.

     (i)(p) "Mental abnormality" means a congenital or acquired condition of a person that

affects the emotional or volitional capacity of the person in a manner that predisposes that person

to the commission of criminal sexual acts to a degree that makes the person a menace to the

health and safety of other persons.

     (j)(s) "Predator" means a person whose act(s) is (are) or was (were) directed at a

stranger, or at a person with whom a relationship has been established or promoted for the

primary purpose of victimization.

     (k)(v) "Sexually violent offense" means, and includes, any violation of �� 11-37-2, 11-

37-4, 11-37-6, 11-37-8, 11-37-8.1, 11-37-8.3, 11-67-2 (where the victim was subject to

commercial sexual activity), 11-67-3(a), 11-67-3(b) (where the victim was subject to commercial

sexual activity), 11-67.1-3(c) (where the victim was subject to sexual servitude), 11-67.1-5(d),

11-67.1-6(c); or 11-5-1, where the specified felony is sexual assault; or � 11-23-1, where the

murder was committed in the perpetration of, or attempted perpetration of, rape or any degree of

sexual assault or child molestation; or any offense in another jurisdiction that is substantially the

equivalent of any offense listed in this subsection or for which the person is or would be required

to register under 42 U.S.C. � 14071 or 18 U.S.C. � 4042(c) 34 U.S.C. � 20911 as amendedor

any conviction for an attempt or conspiracy to commit an offense enumerated in this subsection.

     (l)(w) "Sexually violent predator" means a person who has been convicted of a sexually

violent offense and who has a mental abnormality or personality disorder that makes the person

likely to engage in predatory sexually violent offenses.

     (m)(x) "Student" means, and includes, the definition of "student" under 42 U.S.C. �

14071 34 U.S.C. � 20911.

     (n)(r) "Parole board" means the parole board or its designee.

     (o)(a) "Abscond" means to not register as required, or to relocate to some unknown place

other than the registered place of residence, or to conceal himself or herself in an attempt to avoid

registration or verification of registration.

     (p)(i) "Federal offense" means, and includes, any conviction for an offense that was

obtained under federal law which, if committed within the jurisdiction of this state, would require

the person to register, any conviction for an offense under 34 U.S.C. � 20911 as amended, or any

conviction for an attempt or conspiracy to commit an offense requiring registration under this

subsection.

     (q)(j) "Foreign offense" means, and includes, any conviction for an offense which, if

committed within the jurisdiction of this state, would require the person to register that was

obtained under the laws of Canada, the United Kingdom, Australia, New Zealand, or under the

laws of any foreign country when the United States state department in its country reports on

human rights practices has concluded that an independent judiciary generally or vigorously

enforced the right to a fair trial in that country during the year in which the conviction occurred,

or any conviction for an attempt or conspiracy to commit an offense enumerated in this

subsection.

     (r)(k) "Habitually lives or sleeps" means living in a place with some regularity, and with

reference to where a person required to be registered under this chapter actually lives, which

could be some place other than a mailing address or primary address but would entail a place

where the person lives on an intermittent basis regardless of whether it pertains to a location

otherwise identifiable by street or address.

     (s)(l) "Homeless" means a person required to be registered under this chapter who lacks a

fixed, regular, and adequate nighttime residence; has a primary nighttime residence that is a

public or private place not designed for or ordinarily used as a regular sleeping accommodation

for human beings, including a car, park, abandoned building, bus or train station, airport, or

camping ground; living in a supervised publicly or privately operated shelter designated to

provide temporary living arrangements (including hotels and motels paid for by federal, state, or

local government programs for low-income individuals or by charitable organizations, congregate

shelters, and transitional housing); or who resided in a shelter or place not meant for human

habitation and who is exiting an institution where he or she temporarily resided.

     (t)(m) "Immediate" or "Immediately" means upon receipt of information provided by or

regarding a person required to register under this chapter but not later than three (3) business

days.

     (u)(o) "Jurisdiction" means any of the fifty (50) states, the District of Columbia, the

Commonwealth of Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the Commonwealth of the Northern

Marian Mariana Islands, the United States Virgin Islands, and any Indian tribe that has elected to

function as a registration and notification jurisdiction pursuant to 34 U.S.C. � 20929.

     (v)(q) "Military offense" means, and includes, any conviction for any military offense

specified by the secretary of defense under � 115(a)(8)(C)(i) of Pub. L. 105-119, codified at 10

U.S.C. � 951 note, or any conviction for an attempt or conspiracy to commit an offense

enumerated in this subsection.

     (w)(t) "Public or private educational institution" means early childhood facilities (nursery

school, pre-kindergarten and kindergarten), elementary, middle, secondary, institutions of higher

education, and post-secondary postsecondary educational institutions authorized or licensed by

the State of Rhode Island.

     (x)(u) "School" means the buildings and real property of kindergarten, elementary,

middle, and secondary institutions, whether public or private.


 

108)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-37.1-3

157 and 259

 

 

11-37.1-3. Registration required -- Persons covered.

     (a) Any person who, in this or any other jurisdiction: (1) has been convicted of a criminal

offense against a victim who is a minor, (2) has been convicted of a sexually violent offense, (3)

has been determined to be a sexually violent predator, (4) has committed an aggravated offense as

defined in � 11-37.1-2, or (5) is a recidivist, as defined in � 11-37.1-4, (6) has been convicted of a

federal offense, (7) has been convicted of a foreign offense, (8) has been convicted of a military

offense, or (9) has been convicted of a violation of � 11-37.1-10 shall be required to register his

or her current address with the local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the city or

town in which the person having the duty to register resides for the time period specified in � 11-

37.1-4.

     (b) Any person who is: (1) a nonresident worker who has committed an offense that is

subject to registration in the state jurisdiction of his or her residence and who is employed or

carrying on a vocation in Rhode Island as defined in � 11-37.1-2(g)(h), or (2) a nonresident

student as defined by � 11-37.1-2(m)(x) who has committed an offense that is subject to

registration in the state jurisdiction of his or her residence and who is attending an educational

institution a public or private educational institution in Rhode Island, shall be required to register

his or her current address and the address of his or her place of employment or school a public or

private educational institution attended with the local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction

over the city or town in which the nonresident worker or student is employed or attending school

a public or private educational institution.

     (c) Any person having a duty to register as a sex offender in subsection (a) of this section

who is enrolled at, employed at, or carrying on a vocation at an institution of higher education

shall have an additional duty to register the information described in subsection (a) of this section

with the local law enforcement agency in the city or town where the primary campus of the

institution of higher education at which the person is enrolled, employed, or carrying on a

vocation who is located for the period of time they are enrolled at, employed at or carrying on a

vocation at the institution of higher education.

     (d) If a person is registered as a sex offender in another state jurisdiction for an offense

which, if committed within the jurisdiction of this state, would require the person to register as a

sex offender, then that person, upon moving to or returning to this state, shall register as a sex

offender in the same manner as if the offense were committed within Rhode Island.

     (e) Registration information. In addition to the requirements of subsections (a) through

(d) of this section, the person required to register under this section shall provide the local law

enforcement agency the following information:

     (1) Relating to the person's name:

     (i) The person's full primary given or legal name;

     (ii) Any and all names the person has used in the past, valid or otherwise; and

     (iii) Any and all nicknames, aliases, and pseudonyms regardless of the context in which

they are used.

     (2) Relating to the person's date of birth:

     (i) The person's actual date of birth; and

     (ii) Any other date of birth used by the person.

     (3) Relating to the person's social security number:

     (i) A valid social security number for the person; and

     (ii) Any social security number the person has used in the past, valid or otherwise.

     (4) A current digitized photograph of the person.

     (5) An accurate description of the person as follows:

     (i) A general description of the person's physical appearance or characteristics; and

     (ii) Any identifying marks, such as, but not limited to, scars, moles, birthmarks, or

tattoos.

     (6) A photocopy of all of the person's valid driver's licenses issued by any jurisdiction.

     (7) A photocopy of all of the identification card's cards issued to the person.

     (8) A photocopy of any passports issued to the person.

     (9) Relating to the person's residence:

     (i) The address of each residence at which the person resides or will reside;

     (ii) Any location or description that identifies where the person habitually lives or sleeps

regardless of whether it pertains to a permanent residence or location otherwise identifiable by a

street or address; and

     (iii) Whether the person is homeless.

     (10) Any and all telephone numbers of the person.

     (11) Relating to the person's Internet internet-related activity:

     (i) Any and all email addresses used by the person;

     (ii) Any and all Instant Message instant message addresses and identifiers;

     (iii) Any and all other designations or monitors used for self-identification in Internet

internet communications or postings; and

     (iv) Any and all designations used by the person for the purpose of routing or self-

identification and Internet communications or postings.

     (12) Relating to all vehicles owned or operated by the person for work or personal use

including land vehicles, aircraft, and watercraft:

     (i) License plate numbers;

     (ii) Registration numbers or identifiers;

     (iii) General description of the vehicle to include color, make, model, and year; and

     (iv) Any permanent or frequent location where any covered vehicle is kept.

     (13) Relating to the person's employment, any and all places where the person is

employed in any means including volunteer and unpaid positions:

     (i) The name of the person's employer;

     (ii) The address of the person's employer; and

     (iii) Similar information related to any transient or day labor employment.

     (14) All licensing information that authorizes the person to engage in an occupation or

carry out a trade or business.

     (15) Relating to the person's public or private educational institution:

     (i) The name of each public or private educational institution at which the person is or

will be a student; and

     (ii) The address of each public or private educational institution where the person is or

will be a student.

     (16) Relating to the person's criminal history:

     (i) The date of all arrests;

     (ii) The date of all convictions;

     (iii) The person's status of parole, probation, or supervised release;

     (iv) The person's registration status; and

     (v) Any outstanding arrest warrants.

     (17) The fingerprints and palm prints of the person in a digitized format that shall be

submitted to the FBI Central Database, Next Generation Identification Program.

     (18) If the person's DNA is not already contained in the Combined DNA Index System

(CODIS), the person shall provide a sample of his or her DNA. Any DNA sample obtained from

a person shall be submitted to an appropriate lab for analysis and entry of the resulting DNA

profile into CODIS.

     (19) The text of each provision of law defining the criminal offense(s) for which the

person is registered.

     (20) When the person will be absent from his/her residence for seven (7) days or more:

     (i) Identifying information of the temporary lodging locations including addresses and

names; and

     (ii) The dates the person will be staying at each temporary lodging location.

     (21) If the person will be traveling outside of the United States, the person must notify

the local law enforcement agency at least twenty-one (21) days in advance of the travel date and

provide any necessary information regarding his or her international travel in accordance with �

11-37.1-9(g).

     (22) A signed copy of the person's notice of registration and notification obligations as

provided in � 11-37.1-5(b)(6).

     (23) The local law enforcement agency and the designated state law enforcement agency

shall maintain all information obtained under this chapter in a digitized format.


 

109)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-37.1-4

157 and 259

 

 

11-37.1-4. Duration of registration -- Frequency of registration.

     (a) Annual registration. Any person required to register under � 11-37.1-3(a)(1) or (2)

shall annually register with the local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the city or

town in which the person having the duty to register resides for a period of ten (10) years from

the expiration of sentence for the offense and shall verify his or her address with the agency on a

quarterly basis for the first two (2) years of the period unless the person has been determined to

be a sexually violent predator in accordance with � 11-37.1-6 or unless the person is required to

register for the life of that person in accordance with the provisions of subsection (c) of this

section.

     (b) Sexually violent predators. Any person who has been determined to be a sexually

violent predator in accordance with the provisions of � 11-37.1-6 shall be required to annually

register in person with the local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the city or town

in which the person having the duty to register resides for the life of that person and to verify his

or her address on a quarterly basis for the life of that person.

     (c) Recidivists and aggravated crime offenders. Any person required to register under �

11-37.1-3 and who has one or more prior convictions for any offense described in � 11-37.1-2 or

has been convicted of an aggravated offense as defined in � 11-37.1-2 shall annually register in

person with the local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the city or town in which

the person having the duty to register resides for the life of that person and to verify his or her

address on a quarterly basis for the life of that person.

     (d) Nonresident workers and students. Any nonresident person required to register

pursuant to � 11-37.1-3(b)(1) or (2) shall annually register in person with the local law

enforcement agency having jurisdiction over the city or town in which the person having the duty

to register is employed or attends school a public or private educational institution for the period

of time that the person is employed in Rhode Island or is attending school a public or private

educational institution in Rhode Island.

     (e) Initial registration; Incarcerated individuals. All persons required to register under this

chapter who are sentenced to a period of confinement shall perform their initial registration by

appearing in person at the local law enforcement agency in the city or town in which the person

intends to reside within twenty-four (24) hours of their release from confinement.

     (f) Initial registration; Non-incarcerated individuals. All persons required to register

under this chapter who are convicted in Rhode Island and who are not sentenced to serve a term

of incarceration or confinement shall perform their initial registration by appearing in person at

the local law enforcement agency in the city or town in which the person intends to reside within

twenty-four (24) hours of being sentenced.

     (g) Initial registration; Individuals relocating to Rhode Island. All persons required to

register under this chapter who are moving their residence to Rhode Island from another

jurisdiction shall perform their initial registration by appearing in person at the local law

enforcement agency in the city or town in which the person intends to reside within twenty-four

(24) hours of their arrival in Rhode Island.

     (h) Initial registration; Nonresident workers and students. All nonresident workers or

students who are required to register under this chapter shall perform their initial registration by

appearing in person at the local law enforcement agency in the city or town in which the person is

employed or is attending school a public or private educational institution within twenty-four (24)

hours of their first day of their personal attendance at their place of employment or school a

public or private educational institution.

     (i) Tolling provision. Where, during the period in which any person is required to

register, a person required to register under this chapter is incarcerated or re-incarcerated for any

offense or is civilly committed, the person's registration requirements shall be tolled during the

subsequent incarceration, re-incarceration or commitment.

     (j) Juveniles. Any juvenile having the duty to register under subsections (b) and (c) of this

section shall be required to annually register in person with the local law enforcement agency

having jurisdiction over the city or town in which the juvenile having the duty to register resides

for fifteen (15) years subsequent to the date of release from confinement or placement in the

community or probation for such offense or offenses and to verify his or her address on a

quarterly basis for said fifteen (15) years. However, if a juvenile is adjudicated delinquent under �

11-37-8.1 or 11-37-8.3, the court shall assess the totality of the circumstances of the offense and

if the court makes a finding that the conduct of the parties is criminal only because of the age of

the victim, the court may have discretion to order the juvenile to register as a sex offender as long

as the court deems it appropriate to protect the community and to rehabilitate the juvenile

offender. Registration shall be subject to the provisions of this chapter.

     (k) Annual registration for federal, foreign, or military offenses. Any person who is

required to register under this chapter due to a conviction of a federal offense, a foreign offense,

or a military offense shall register for the duration and frequency in the same manner as if the

offense were committed within Rhode Island.

     (l) Homeless persons. In addition to the other requirements of this section, a person who

is required to register under this chapter and is homeless shall verify their presence in the

community with the local law enforcement agency where they are required to register three (3)

times a week for the duration of their being homeless.


 

110)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-37.1-5

157 and 259

 

 

11-37.1-5. Registration requirement upon release, parole, or probation.

     (a) (1) Duty of state officials. If a person who is required to register under this chapter is

released from prison, including those place placed on parole, then the official in charge of the

place of confinement or his or her designee shall comply with the provisions of subsection (b) of

this section;

     (2) If a person who is required to register under this chapter is placed on parole, the

executive secretary of the parole board shall comply with the provisions of subsection (b) of this

section;

     (3) If a person who is required to register under this chapter is released on probation or

placed on home confinement, then the assistant administrator or the division of probation shall

comply with the provisions of subsection (b) of this section;

     (4) If a person who is required to register under this chapter is released from a juvenile

correctional facility, either outright or on some form of supervised release, then the person in

charge of the institution shall comply with the provisions of subsection (b) of this section;

     (5) If a person who is required to register under this chapter is placed on juvenile

probation, then the person in charge of the program shall comply with the provisions of

subsection (b) of this section; or

     (6) If a person who is required to register under this chapter has moved into this state

under the provisions of an interstate compact providing for supervision of the terms of his or her

release by agents of this state, then the administrator of the interstate compact shall comply with

the provisions of subsection (b) of this section.

     (b) Notification of registration requirements. The person designated with the

responsibility for the notification requirements of this chapter shall, prior to the release of any

person required to register under this chapter:

     (1) Inform the person of the duty to register and obtain the information required for

registration under subsection � 11-37.1-5(c) of this section;

     (2) Inform the person that if the person changes his or her residence address, the person

shall give the new address to a the designated state law enforcement agency in writing within

twenty-four (24) hours;

     (3) Inform the person that if the person changes residence to another state jurisdiction, the

person shall register the new address with the law enforcement agency with whom the person last

registered, and the person is also required to register with a designated law enforcement agency in

the new state jurisdiction in accordance with the new state's jurisdiction's sex offender registration

statute;

     (4) Inform the person that if the person works or attends school a public or private

educational institution in another state jurisdiction in which he or she does not reside, the person

shall register his or her employment address or address of the educational institution he or she

attends as required by the other state jurisdiction;

     (5) Obtain fingerprints and a photograph of the person if these have not already been

obtained in connection with the offense that triggers registration; and

     (6) Require the person to read and sign a form approved by the attorney general stating

that the duty of the person to register under this section has been explained.

     (c) Registration information. In addition to the requirements of subsection (b) of this

section, for a person required to register under � 11-37.1-3, then the person responsible for the

notification required under subsection (b) of this section shall obtain the name of the person,

identifying factors, anticipated future residence, juvenile and adult offense history, and

documentation of any treatment received for the mental abnormality or personality disorder of the

person. following information in a digitized format:

     (1) Relating to the person's name:

     (i) The person's full primary given or legal name;

     (ii) Any and all names the person has used in the past, valid or otherwise; and

     (iii) Any and all nicknames, aliases, and pseudonyms regardless of the context in which

they are used.

     (2) Relating to the person's date of birth:

     (i) The person's actual date of birth; and

     (ii) Any other date of birth used by the person.

     (3) Relating to the person's social security number:

     (i) A valid social security number for the person; and

     (ii) Any social security number the person has used in the past, valid or otherwise.

     (4) A current digitized photograph of the person.

     (5) An accurate description of the person as follows:

     (i) A general description of the person's physical appearance or characteristics; and

     (ii) Any identifying marks, such as, but not limited to, scars, moles, birthmarks, or

tattoos.

     (6) Relating to the person's residence:

     (i) The address of each residence at which the person resides or will reside; and

     (ii) Whether the person is homeless.

     (7) Any and all telephone numbers of the person.

     (8) A signed copy of the person's notice of registration and notification obligations as

provided in � 11-37.1-5 subsection (b)(6).

     (d) For purposes of this subsection subsection (c) of this section, the provisions of chapter

37.3 of title 5 pertaining to health care privileges, the provisions of � 9-17-24 pertaining to the

privilege of witnesses, or the provisions of � 42-72-8 pertaining to confidentiality of records of

the department of children, youth and families, shall not be effective so as to prevent the transfer

of information or the testimony of any person possessing any information required by this

subsection. Any information so obtained may be transferred to the sex offender board of review

and may be used by them in making a determination of whether or not the person is a sexually

violent predator or in determining the level of notification under � 11-37.1-12. The information

may also be used by the sentencing court or by any court reviewing the level of notification

determined by the sex offender board of review or reviewing any conviction or sentence which

requires registration under this chapter. Provided, information so obtained shall not be admissible

in any other judicial proceeding against the subject of the information except to determine a

person's status as a sexually violent predator or to determine or review the level of notification to

the community which has been made by a court or the sex offender board of review. Provided,

further, that this subsection shall not be applicable to any person for whom an appeal is pending

for which a final judgment of conviction has not been entered, until the time that a final

conviction has been entered.


 

 

 

111)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-37.1-6

157 and 259

 

 

11-37.1-6. Community notification.

     (1) (a) Sex Offender Board of Review. The governor shall appoint eight (8) persons

including experts in the field of the behavior and treatment of sexual offenders by reason of

training and experience, victim's rights advocates, and law enforcement representatives to the sex

offender board of review. At least one member of the sex offender board of review shall be a

qualified child/adolescent sex offender treatment specialist. These persons shall serve at the

pleasure of the governor or until their successor has been duly qualified and appointed.

     (b) Duties of the Board. Upon passage of this legislation, the sex offender board of

review will utilize a validated risk assessment instrument and other material approved by the

parole board to determine the level of risk an offender poses to the community and to assist the

sentencing court in determining if that person is a sexually violent predator. If the offender is a

juvenile, the Department of Children, Youth & Families shall select and administer a risk

instrument appropriate for juveniles and shall submit the results to the sex offender board of

review.

     (c) Duties of other state agencies. Six (6) months prior to release of any person having a

duty to register under � 11-37.1-3, or upon sentencing of a person having a duty to register under

� 11-37.1-3, if the offender is not incarcerated, the agency having supervisory responsibility and

the Interstate Compact Unit of the Rhode Island department of corrections upon acceptance of

supervision of a sexual offender from the sending state jurisdiction shall refer the person to the

sex offender board of review, together with any reports and documentation that may be helpful to

the board, for a determination as to the level of risk an offender poses to the community and to

assist the sentencing court in determining if that person is a sexually violent predator.

     (2) (i) The board shall within thirty (30) days of a referral of a person shall conduct the

validated risk assessment, review other material provided by the agency having supervisory

responsibility and assign a risk of re-offense level to the offender. In addition, the board may find

that, based on the assessment score and other material, that the person may possess a mental

abnormality or personality disorder that makes the person likely to engage in sexually violent

predatory offenses. In these cases, the committee shall ask the parole board psychiatrist or if the

offender is a juvenile, a DCYF psychiatrist to conduct a sex offender evaluation to determine if

the offender possesses a mental abnormality or personality disorder that affects the emotional or

volitional capacity of the person in a manner that predisposes that person to the commission of

criminal sexual acts to a degree that makes the person a menace to the health and safety of other

persons.

     (ii) Upon receipt of a sex offender evaluation that suggests there is sufficient evidence

and documentation to suggest that a person may be a sexually violent predator, the sex offender

board of review shall forward a report to the attorney general for consideration by the court.

     (iii) Upon receipt of a report from the attorney general, the court, after notice to the

offender and his or her counsel, shall upon consideration of the report and other materials, make a

determination as to whether or not a person is a sexually violent predator.

     (iv) Effect of determination. In the event that a determination is made by the court that a

person is a sexually violent predator, that person shall be required to register and verify his or her

address in accordance with �� 11-37.1-3, 11-37.1-4 and 11-37.1-8(b).

     (3) No cause of action or liability shall arise or exist against the committee or any

member or agent of the board as a result of the failure of the board to make any findings required

by this section within the time period specified by subdivision subsection (2) of this subsection

section.

     (4) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the board shall have access to all relevant

records and information in the possession of any state official or agency having a duty under 

11-37.1-5(a)(1) through (6), relating to the juvenile and adult offenders under review by the

board, including, but not limited to, police reports; prosecutor's statements of probable cause,

presentence investigations and reports, complete judgments and sentences, current classification

referrals, juvenile and adult criminal history records, violation and disciplinary reports, all

psychological evaluations and psychiatric evaluations, psychiatric hospital records, sex offender

evaluations and treatment reports, substance abuse evaluations and treatment reports to the extent

allowed by federal law. Records and information obtained by the board of review under this

subsection shall remain confidential, provided that the board of review may disclose the records

and information to the sentencing court in accordance with the provisions of this chapter.

     (5) Duties of the director of the department of corrections/director of the department of

children, youth and families. Not less than sixty (60) days prior to release of any person subject to

this chapter, the director of the department of corrections or, in the event the person is a juvenile,

the director of the department of children, youth and families, or their respective designees, shall

seek verification that the duties of the sex offender board of review and any other state agency

have been fulfilled as specified in � 11-37.1-6 et seq. In the event that the director of the

department of corrections or, in the event the person is a juvenile, the director of the department

of children, youth and families, cannot obtain verification, he or she shall, no less than thirty (30)

days prior to the release of a person subject to this chapter, file with the presiding judge of the

superior court or, in the case of a juvenile, the chief judge of the family court, a petition in the

nature of mandamus, seeking compliance with this chapter. The court shall promptly, but no less

than ten (10) days from the filing of the petition, hold a hearing on the petition. The court may, in its discretion, enter any orders consistent with this chapter to compel compliance, however, the

court may not delay the release of any person subject to this chapter for the failure of the sex

offender board of review or any state agency to fulfill its obligations under this chapter.


 

112)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-37.1-7

157 and 259

 

 

11-37.1-7. Transfer of information to designated state law enforcement agency.

     (a) The person required to provide notice in accordance with � 11-37.1-5(b) and the local

law enforcement agencies required to register persons who have a duty to register in accordance

with � 11-37.1-4 and receive changes in the person's registration information under  11-37.1-9,

shall, within three (3) days after receipt of information defined in that section, immediately

forward it to a the designated state law enforcement agency. The designated state law

enforcement agency shall immediately enter the information into the appropriate state law

enforcement record system. The state law enforcement agency shall also immediately transmit the

conviction data and fingerprints to the Federal Bureau of Investigation.

     (b) Whenever a person required to be registered under this chapter initially registers or

updates his or her information, the designated state law enforcement agency shall immediately

notify:

     (1) Any jurisdiction where the person is registered or is required to register due to the

person's residency, public or private educational institution attendance, or employment;

     (2) All jurisdictions where a person was required to register prior to the updated

information being given;

     (3) All jurisdictions where a person intends to reside, work, or attend a public or private

educational institution;

     (4) The Federal Bureau of Investigation or other federal agencies as designated by the

Attorney General of the United States in order that the information may be updated on the

National Sex Offender Registry or other relevant databases;

     (5) If the person intends to commence residency, attend a public or private educational

institution, or commence employment outside of the United States, the United States Marshals

Service;

     (6) Any agency, department, or program within the state that is responsible for criminal

investigation, prosecution, child welfare, or sex offender supervision functions; and

     (7) National Child Protection Act agencies, which includes any agency responsible for

conducting employment-related background checks under section 3 of the National Child

Protection Act of 1993, 42 U.S.C. � 5119a.

     (c) The designated state law enforcement agency shall ensure there is an automated

community notification process in place that ensures the following:

     (1) Upon a person's initial registration or update of information, the state's public sex

offender registry website is immediately updated; and

     (2) The state's public sex offender registry has a function that enables the general public

to request an email notice that will notify them when a person commences residence,

employment, or a public or private educational institution attendance with the state, within a

specified zip code, or within a certain geographic radius. This email notice shall include the

person's identity so that the public can access the public registry for the new information.

     (d) The notification requirements of subsections (a)(b)(7) and (c) do not apply to persons

who were adjudicated delinquent of an offense requiring registration or a person tiered as a level

1 sex offender.

     (e) Notwithstanding the aforementioned notification requirements, the designated state

law enforcement agency and local law enforcement agencies where the person resides, is

employed, or attends a public or private educational institution, may utilize other forms of

community notification consistent with the provisions and intent of this chapter.

     (f) In the event a person required to register under this chapter fails to register or fails to

verify or update his or her registration information, the local law enforcement agency shall

immediately inform the local law enforcement agency of the city or town where the person

resides, is employed, or attends a public or private educational institution,; the jurisdiction that

provided notification that the person was to commence residency, employment, or public or

private educational institution attendance,; and the designated state law enforcement agency that

the person failed to appear for registration or failed to verify or update their registration

information.

     (1) Upon notification by the designated state law enforcement agency, the local law

enforcement agency where the person resides, is employed, or attends a public or private

educational institution, shall:

     (i) Make an effort to determine if the person is actually residing, employed or attending a

public or private educational institution within their city or town; and

     (ii) Seek a warrant for the person's arrest for failing to register or verify or update their

his or her registration in compliance with this chapter. The U.S. Marshals Service or Federal

Bureau of Investigation may be contacted in an attempt to obtain a federal warrant for the

person's arrest.

     (iii) The designated state law enforcement agency shall update the registry to reflect that

the person is not in compliance with his or her duty to register.

     (g) If the designated state law enforcement agency receives information that a person has

absconded or local law enforcement cannot determine whether the person is actually residing,

employed, or attending a public or private educational institution in the city or town using the

measures outlined in subsection (f) of this section, the designated state law enforcement agency,

with the assistance of local law enforcement, shall make an effort to determine if the person has

actually absconded.

     (1) If the information indicating the possible absconding came through notice from

another jurisdiction or federal authorities, they shall be informed that the person has failed to

appear and register.

     (2) If an absconded person cannot be located then the designated state law enforcement

agency shall take the following steps:

     (i) Update the registry to reflect the person has absconded or is otherwise not capable of

being located;

     (ii) Notify the local law enforcement agency where the person resides, is employed, or

attends a public or private educational institution, so the local law enforcement agency can seek a

warrant for the person's arrest.

     (iii) Notify the U.S. Marshals Service or Federal Bureau of Investigation so they may

attempt, if necessary, to obtain a federal warrant for the person's arrest;

     (iv) Update the National Sex Offender Registry to reflect the sex offender's status as an

absconder, or is otherwise not capable of being located; and

     (v) Enter the person into the National Crime Information Center Wanted Person file.


 

113)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-37.1-8

157 and 259

 

 

11-37.1-8. Verification of address.

     (a) For a person required to register under � 11-37.1-3(a)(1), or (2) (a)(2), (a)(6), (a)(7),

(a)(8), or (a)(9) on each anniversary of the person's initial registration date during the period in

which the person is required to register:

     (1) The sex offender community notification unit of the parole board designated state law

enforcement agency or local law enforcement agency shall mail a non-forwardable verification

form to the last reported address of the person;

     (2) The person shall mail the verification form to the sex offender community notification

unit designated state law enforcement agency or local law enforcement agency within ten (10)

days after receipt of the form;

     (3) The verification form shall be signed by the person, and state that the person still

resides at the address last reported to the local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction over

the city or town in which the person having the duty to register resides; and

     (4) If the person fails to mail the verification form to the sex offender community

notification unit of the parole board designated state law enforcement agency or local law

enforcement agency within ten (10) days after receipt of the form, the person shall be in violation

of this chapter unless the person proves that the person has not changed the residence address

from that which he or she last registered.

     (b) The provisions of subdivisions (1) -- (4) subsections (a)(1)-(a)(4) of this section shall

apply to a person required to register under � 11-37.1-3(a)(3), (4), or (5), except that the

registration address verification shall take place quarterly.


 

114)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-37.1-9

157 and 259

 

 

11-37.1-9. Notification of local law enforcement agencies of changes in address.

     (a) Duty of local law enforcement agency; Interstate interstate and Intrastate intrastate

moves. For any person required to register under this chapter, the local law enforcement agency

having jurisdiction where the person is residing, shall, if the person changes residence to another

state jurisdiction or within the state, notify the law enforcement agency with which the person

must register in the new state jurisdictionif the new state has a registration requirement or the

city or town within the state, and notify the designated state jurisdiction law enforcement agency.

The designated state law enforcement agency shall provide immediate notice as provided under �

11-37.1-7.

     (b) Duty of person required to register; Interstate interstate moves. A person who has

been convicted of an offense which that required registration under this chapter shall register the

new address with a designated state law enforcement agency in another state jurisdiction to which

the person moves in accordance with the new state's jurisdiction's sex offender registration

statute. Prior to the change of residence to a new state jurisdiction, the person shall notify the

local law enforcement agency within this state with which the person is registered of the intended

move and of the new address within the new state jurisdictionThe local law enforcement agency

shall notify the designated state law enforcement agency and the designated state law

enforcement agency shall provide immediate notice as provided under � 11-37.1-7.

     (c) Duty of law enforcement agency; Changes of residence within the state. For any

person required to register under this chapter, the local law enforcement agency having

jurisdiction where the person is residing, shall, if the person changes residence to another city or

town in Rhode Island, notify the local law enforcement agency with which the person must

register in the new city or town and notify the state designated state law enforcement agency. The

designated state law enforcement agency shall provide immediate notice as provided under � 11-

37.1-7.

     (d) Duty of person required to register; Changes of residence within the state. A person

who has been convicted of an offense which that requires registration under this chapter and who

changes his or her residence address to another city or town in Rhode Island, shall notify the local

law enforcement agency in the city or town from which the person is moving before the person

establishes residence in the new location, and shall register with the local law enforcement

agency in the city or town in which the person is moving not later than twenty-four (24) hours

after the person establishes residence in the new city or town. A person who has been convicted

of an offense which that requires registration under this chapter and who changes his or her

residence within a city or town in Rhode Island shall notify the local law enforcement agency in

the city or town not later than twenty-four (24) hours after the person changes the residence

within the city or town. The local law enforcement agency shall notify the designated state law

enforcement agency and the designated state law enforcement agency shall provide immediate

notice as provided under � 11-37.1-7.

     (e) Duty of person required to register; Changes changes in required registration

information. A person who has been convicted of an offense which that requires registration

under this chapter shall immediately notify the local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction

where the person is residing, is employed, or attending a public or private educational institution

of any changes to their his or her required registration information as provided in � 11-37.1-3(e).

The local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction shall also notify the designated state law

enforcement agency. The designated state law enforcement agency shall provide immediate

notice as provided under � 11-37.1-7.

     (f) In the event of a change in temporary lodging, the person who have been convicted of

an offense which that requires registration under this chapter and the local law enforcement

agency shall immediately notify the jurisdiction in which the person will be temporarily staying.

The local law enforcement agency having jurisdiction shall also notify the designated state law

enforcement agency who shall provide immediate notice as provided under � 11-37.1-7.

     (g) In the event the person who has been convicted of an offense which that requires

registration under this chapter will be traveling outside of the United States, the person must

notify the local law enforcement agency at least twenty-one (21) days in advance of the travel

date and provide any necessary information regarding his or her international travel. The local

law enforcement agency having jurisdiction shall also notify the designated state law enforcement

agency. The designated state law enforcement agency shall provide immediate notice as provided

under � 11-37.1-7. Upon notification of a person's intention to travel internationally, the

designated state law enforcement agency shall immediately notify and provide the person's travel

information to the United States Marshall's Marshals Service.


 

115)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-37.1-10

157 and 259

 

 

11-37.1-10. Penalties.

     (a) Any person who is required to register or verify his or her address or give notice of a

change of address or residence who knowingly fails to do so shall be guilty of a felony and, upon

conviction, be imprisoned not more than ten (10) years, or fined not more than ten thousand

dollars ($10,000), or both.

     (b) Any person who is required to register or verify his or her address or give notice of a

change of address or residence who knowingly fails to do so shall be in violation of the terms of

his or her release, regardless of whether or not the term was a special condition of his or her

release on probation, parole, home confinement or other form of supervised release.

     (c) Except in the case of a level-three (3) sex offender, any person who is required to

register or verify his or her address, who knowingly resides within three hundred feet (300') of

any school as defined in � 11-37.1-2public or private, which distance shall be measured from the

nearest boundary line of the real property supporting the residence of the person to the nearest

boundary line of the real property that supports or upon which there exists a school shall be guilty

of a felony and, upon conviction, may be imprisoned not more than five (5) years, or fined not

more than five thousand dollars ($5,000), or both.

     (d) Any level-three (3) sex offender who knowingly resides within one thousand feet

(1,000') of any school as defined in � 11-37.1-2public or private, which distance shall be

measured from the nearest boundary line of the real property supporting the residence of the

person to the nearest boundary line of the real property that supports or upon which there exists a

school shall be guilty of a felony and, upon conviction, may be imprisoned for not more than five

(5) years, or fined not more than five thousand dollars ($5,000), or both.


 

116)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-37.1-11

157 and 259

 

 

11-37.1-11. Release of information.

     (a) Except as otherwise provided by this chapter or as provided in subsections subsection

(b) or (c) of this section, no information obtained under this chapter shall be released or

transferred without the written consent of the person or his or her authorized representative.

     (b) No consent for release or transfer of information obtained under this chapter shall be

required in the following instances:

     (1) Information may be disclosed to law enforcement agencies for law enforcement

purposes;

     (2) Information may be disclosed to government agencies conducting confidential

background checks;

     (3) The designated state law enforcement agency and any local law enforcement agency

authorized by the state agency may release relevant information that is necessary to protect

individuals concerning a specific person required to register under this chapter, except that the

identity of a victim of an offense that requires registration under this section shall not be released;

     (4) Information may be released or disseminated in accordance with the provisions of �

11-37.1-12;

     (5) Information shall be disclosed by the local police department to the general public in

a city or town for those registered offenders determined to be either a level 2 or level 3 offender

as determined consistent with parole board guidelines; and

     (6) Information shall be disclosed by the local police department to the local school

department for those registered offenders determined to be level 3 offenders by the parole board

for the purposes of notifying parents of students whose school bus stop is within one thousand

feet (1,000') of a level 3 sex offender's residence, which distance shall be measured from the

nearest boundary line of the real property supporting the residence of the level 3 sex offender to

the school bus stop.

     (c) Any local law enforcement agency shall release relevant information collected

pursuant to � 11-37.1-3(c) to any campus police agency appointed pursuant to � 16-52-2 or police

for private institutions appointed pursuant to � 12-2.1-1 for any person having a duty to register

who is enrolled in, employed by, or carrying on a vocation at an institution of higher education.

That agency may release relevant information that is necessary to protect individuals concerning

a specific person required to register under this chapter, except that the identity of a victim of an

offense that requires registration under this section shall not be released.


 

117)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-37.1-12

157 and 259

 

 

11-37.1-12. Rules and regulations for community notification.

     (a) The parole board shall promulgate guidelines and procedures for notification required

pursuant to the provisions of this section.

     (b) The regulations shall provide for three (3) levels of notification depending upon the

risk of re-offense level of the sex offender determined by the sex offender board of review as

outlined in � 11-37.1-6(1)(b):

     (1) If risk of re-offense is low, law enforcement agencies and any individuals identified in

accordance with the parole board guidelines shall be notified;

     (2) If risk of re-offense is moderate, organizations in the community likely to encounter

the person registered shall be notified in accordance with the parole board's guidelines, in

addition to the notice required by subdivision (1) of this subsection (b)(1);

     (3) If risk of re-offense is high, the members of the public likely to encounter the person

registered shall be notified through means in accordance with the parole board's guidelines

designed to reach members of the public likely to encounter the person registered, in addition to

the notice required by subdivisions (1) and (2) of this subsection subsections (b)(1) and (b)(2).

     (4) The sex offender community notification unit designated state law enforcement

agency is authorized and directed to utilize the Rhode Island state police web site website and the

Rhode Island Unified Court System unified court system website for the public release of

identifying information of level two and level three sex offenders who have been convicted,

provided that no identifying information of a juvenile shall be listed on the web site website.

     (i) The website shall have the capability of conducting searches by name, county, city,

and/or and town; and zip code and/or geographic radius.

     (ii) The website shall include:

     (A) Links to sex offender safety and education resources;

     (B) Instructions on how a person can seek correction of information that the individual

contends is erroneous;

     (C) A warning that the information contained on the website should not be used to

unlawfully injure, harass, or commit a crime against any individual named in the registry or

residing or working at any reported addresses and that any such action could result in civil or

criminal penalties; and

     (D) All field search capabilities needed for full participation in the Dru Sjodin National

Sex Offender Public website and shall participate in that website as provided by the attorney

general of the United States.

     (iii) The following information regarding the person required to register under this

chapter shall be made available to the public on the website:

     (A) Notice that the person is in violation of their his or her registration requirements or

cannot be located if the person has absconded;

     (B) All offenses that require registration under this chapter for which the person has been

convicted;

     (C) The offense(s) for which the person is currently registered;

     (D) The name of the person, including all aliases;

     (E) A current photograph of the person;

     (F) A physical description of the person; and

     (G) The person's residential addresses and, if relevant, a description of a location where

the person habitually lives or sleeps, and if the person is homeless;

     (H) The following information shall not be available to the public on the sex offender

registry website:

     (I) Any arrest that did not result in conviction;

     (II) The person's social security number;

     (III) Any travel documents;

     (IV) The identity of the victim;

     (V) Internet identifiers (as defined in 42 U.S.C. � 16911); and

     (VI) Any information of a person who was adjudicated delinquent of an offense requiring

registration.

     (iv) For persons who are under a witness protection program, the designated state law

enforcement agency may honor the request of the United States Marshals Service or other agency

responsible for witness protection by not including the original identity of the person on the

publicly accessible sex offender registry website.

     (5) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the sex offender review board shall have

access to all relevant records and information in the possession of any state official or agency

having a duty under � 11-37.1-5(a)(1) through (6) relating to juvenile and adult offenders under

review by the sex offender review board, including, but not limited to,: police reports,;

prosecutors statements of probable cause,; pre-sentence investigations and reports,; complete

judgments and sentences,; current classification referrals,; juvenile and adult criminal history

records,; violation and disciplinary reports,; all psychological evaluations and psychiatric

evaluations,; psychiatric hospital records,; sex offender evaluations and treatment reports,; and

substance abuse evaluations and treatment reports to the extent allowed by federal law. Records

and information obtained by the sex offender review board under this subsection shall remain

confidential, provided that the parole board may disclose the records and information to the board

of review, the sentencing court, and/or and law enforcement agencies in accordance with the

provisions of this chapter.


 

118)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-47-2

5 and 8

 

 

11-47-2. Definitions.

     When used in this chapter, the following words and phrases are construed as follows:

      (1) "Antique firearm" is defined as that term is defined under the provisions of 18 U.S.C.

� 921.

      (2)(3) "Bump-fire stock" means any device which that replaces a semi-automatic

weapon's standard stock and is designed to slide back and forth rapidly, harnessing the weapon's

recoil to rapidly fire the weapon.

      (3)(2) "Binary trigger" means a device which that replaces a standard trigger on a semi-

automatic weapon and is designed to fire one round on the pull of the trigger and another round

upon release of the trigger.

      (2)(4) "Crime of violence" means and includes any of the following crimes or an attempt

to commit any of them: murder, manslaughter, rape, first- or second-degree sexual assault, first-

or second-degree child molestation, kidnapping, first- and second-degree arson, mayhem,

robbery, burglary, breaking and entering, any felony violation involving the illegal manufacture,

sale, or delivery of a controlled substance, or possession with intent to manufacture, sell, or

deliver a controlled substance classified in schedule I or schedule II of � 21-28-2.08, any

violation of � 21-28-4.01.1 or  21-28-4.01.2 or conspiracy to commit any violation of these

statutes, assault with a dangerous weapon, assault or battery involving grave bodily injury, and/or

assault with intent to commit any offense punishable as a felony; upon any conviction of an

offense punishable as a felony offense under � 12-29-5.

      (3)(5) "Firearm" includes any machine gun, pistol, rifle, air rifle, air pistol, "blank gun,",

"BB gun,", or other instrument from which steel or metal projectiles are propelled, or which that

may readily be converted to expel a projectile, except crossbows, recurve, compound, or

longbows, and except instruments propelling projectiles which that are designed or normally

used for a primary purpose other than as a weapon. The frame or receiver of the weapon shall be

construed as a firearm under the provisions of this section.

      (4)(6) "Fugitive from justice" means any person who has fled from any state, territory,

the District of Columbia, or possession of the United States to avoid prosecution for a crime of

violence or to avoid giving testimony in any criminal proceeding.

      (5)(7) "Licensing authorities" means the board of police commissioners of a city or town

where the board has been instituted, the chief of police or superintendent of police of other cities

and towns having a regular organized police force, and, in towns where there is no chief of police

or superintendent of police, it means the town clerk who may issue licenses upon the

recommendation of the town sergeant, and it also means any other person or body duly authorized

by the city or town charter or by state law.

      (6)(8) "Machine gun" means any weapon which that shoots, is designed to shoot, or can

be readily restored to shoot automatically more than one shot, without manual reloading, by a

single function of the trigger. The term also includes the frame or receiver of the weapon, any

combination of parts designed and intended for use in converting a weapon into a machine gun,

and any combination of parts from which a machine gun can be assembled if the parts are in the

possession or under the control of a person.

      (7)(9) "Person" includes an individual, partnership, firm, association, or corporation.

      (8)(10) "Pistol" includes any pistol or revolver, and any shotgun, rifle, or similar weapon

with overall length less than twenty-six inches (26"), but does not include any pistol or revolver

designed for the use of blank cartridges only.

     (9)(11) "Sawed-off rifle" means any rifle with overall length of less than twenty-six

inches (26") and/or barrel length of less than sixteen inches (16").

      (10)(12) "Sawed-off shotgun" means any shotgun with overall length of less than

twenty-six inches (26") and/or barrel length of less than eighteen inches (18").

      (11)(13) "Sell" includes let or hire, give, lend, and transfer, and "purchase" includes hire,

accept, and borrow, and "purchasing" shall be construed accordingly.

     (14) "Trigger crank" means a trigger actuator that attaches to the trigger of a semi-

automatic weapon and causes the weapon to fire by turning the crank handle.


 

119)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-47-8

5 and 8

 

 

11-47-8. License or permit required for carrying pistol -- Possession of machine gun.

     (a) No person shall, without a license or permit issued as provided in �� 11-47-11, 11-47-

12, and 11-47-18, carry a pistol or revolver in any vehicle or conveyance or on or about his or her

person whether visible or concealed, except in his or her dwelling house or place of business or

on land possessed by him or her or as provided in �� 11-47-9 and 11-47-10. The provisions of

these sections shall not apply to any person who is the holder of a valid license or permit issued

by the licensing authority of another state, or territory of the United States, or political

subdivision of the state or territory, allowing him or her to carry a pistol or revolver in any

vehicle or conveyance or on or about his or her person whether visible or concealed, provided the

person is merely transporting the firearm through the state in a vehicle or other conveyance

without any intent on the part of the person to detain him or herself or remain within the state of

Rhode Island. No person shall manufacture, sell, purchase, or possess a machine gun except as

otherwise provided in this chapter. Every person violating the provision of this section shall, upon

conviction, be punished by imprisonment for not less than one nor more than ten (10) years, or by

a fine up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or both, and except for a first conviction under this

section, shall not be afforded the provisions of suspension or deferment of sentence, nor a

probation.

     (b) No person shall have in his or her possession or under his or her control any sawed-

off shotgun or sawed-off rifle as defined in � 11-47-2. Any person convicted of violating this

subsection shall be punished by imprisonment for up to ten (10) years, or by a fine of up to five

thousand dollars ($5,000), or both.

     (c) No person shall have in his or her possession or under his or her control any firearm

while the person delivers, possesses with intent to deliver, or manufactures a controlled

substance. Any person convicted of violating this subsection shall be punished by imprisonment

for not less than two (2) years nor more than twenty (20) years, and the sentence shall be

consecutive to any sentence the person may receive for the delivery, possession with intent to

deliver, or the manufacture of the controlled substance. It shall not be a defense to a violation of

this subsection that a person has a license or permit to carry or possess a firearm.

     (d) It shall be unlawful for any person to possess a bump-fire device, binary trigger,

trigger crank, or any other device that when attached to a semi-automatic weapon allows full-

automatic fire. Individuals who possess these items shall have ninety (90) days from the

enactment of this section to either sell, destroy, or otherwise remove these items from the state of

Rhode Island. Every person violating the provisions of this section shall, upon conviction, be

punished by imprisonment for not less than one nor more than ten (10) years, or by a fine up to

ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or both, and, except for a first conviction under this section, shall

not be afforded the provisions of suspension or deferment of sentence, nor a probation.


 

120)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

11-47-8.1

5 and 8

 

 

11-47-8.1. Modification of semi-automatic weapon.

     (a) It shall be unlawful for any person within this state to modify any semi-automatic

weapon such that it can shoot, is designed to shoot, or can be readily restored to shoot full-

automatic fire with a single pull or hold of the trigger. The possession of such a modified semi-

automatic weapon shall be evidence of guilty knowledge by the person having possession that the

semi-automatic weapon was modified. Every person violating the provisions of this subsection

shall, upon conviction, be punished by imprisonment for not less than one year nor more than ten

(10) years, or by a fine up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000), or both, and, except for a first

conviction under this section, shall not be afforded the provisions of suspension or deferment of

sentence, nor a probation.

     (b) This section shall not apply to the purchase of any such device by the Rhode Island

state police, by any city or town police department of the state of Rhode Island, or by the

department of environmental management for display as a part of a firearms training course under

its auspices.

     (c) Weapons otherwise considered legal which that are found modified by devices

pursuant to this section shall be subject to forfeiture pursuant to � 11-47-22.

     (d) This section shall not be construed to prohibit use of a replacement trigger or trigger

components designed and intended to decrease the weight of the trigger pull or to improve the

quality and release of the trigger pull in a semi-automatic weapon.


 

121)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

11-64-1

27 and 28

 

 

11-64-1. Definitions.

     (1) For the purposes of this section chapter the following definitions apply:

     (1)(a) "Disseminate" means to make available by any means to any person.

     (2)(b) "Harm" means bodily injury, emotional distress, financial loss, or reputational

injury.

     (3)(c) "Identifiable" means identifiable by any person from the visual image or

information offered in connection with the visual material.

     (4)(b)(d) "Imaging device" means any electronic instrument capable of capturing,

recording, storing, or transmitting visual images.

     (5)(c)(e) "Intimate areas" means the naked or undergarment clad genitals, pubic area,

buttocks, or any portion of the female breast below the top of the areola of a person which that

the person intended to be protected from public view.

     (6)(d)(f) "Legal entity" means any partnership, firm, association, corporation, or any

agent or servant thereof.

     (7)(e)(g) "Publish" means to:

     (i) Disseminate with the intent that such the image or images be made available by any

means to any person or other legal entity;

     (ii) Disseminate with the intent such the images be sold by another person or legal entity;

     (iii) Post, present, display, exhibit, circulate, advertise, or allow access by any means, so

as to make an image or images available to the public; or

     (iv) Disseminate with the intent that an image or images be posted, presented, displayed,

exhibited, circulated, advertised, or made accessible by any means, and to make such the images

available to the public.

     (8)(f)(h) "Sell" means to disseminate to another person, or to publish, in exchange for

something of value.

     (9)(i) "Sexually explicit conduct" means actual:

     (i) Graphic sexual intercourse, including: genital-genital;, oral-genital, anal-genital, or

oral-anal, or lascivious sex where the genitals, or pubic area of any person is exhibited;

     (ii) Bestiality;

     (iii) Masturbation; or

     (iv) Sadistic or masochistic abuse.

     (10)(j) "Visual image" means any photograph, film, video, or digital image or recording,

whether produced by electronic, mechanical, or other means.


 

122)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

11-64-3

27 and 28

 

 

11-64-3. Unauthorized dissemination of indecent material.

     (a) A person is guilty of unauthorized dissemination of a sexually explicit visual image of

another person when the person intentionally, by any means, disseminates, publishes, or sells:

     (1) A visual image that depicts another identifiable person eighteen (18) years or older

engaged in sexually explicit conduct or of the intimate areas of that person;

     (2) The visual image was made, captured, recorded, or obtained under such

circumstances in which a reasonable person would know or understand that the image was to

remain private;

     (3) The visual image was disseminated, published, or sold without the consent of the

depicted person; and

     (4) With knowledge or with reckless disregard for the likelihood that the depicted person

will suffer harm, or with the intent to harass, intimidate, threaten, or coerce the depicted person.

     (b) Subsection (a) of this section shall not apply to:

     (1) A visual image that involves voluntary exposure of intimate areas or of sexually

explicit conduct in a public or commercial setting, or in a place where a person does not have a

reasonable expectation of privacy;

     (2) Dissemination made in the public interest, scientific activities, or educational

activities;

     (3) Dissemination made in the course of a lawful public proceeding;

     (4) Dissemination made for purposes of law enforcement, criminal reporting, corrections,

legal proceedings, the reporting of unlawful conduct, or for medical treatment; or

     (5) Dissemination of an image that constitutes a matter of public concern, such as a

matter related to a newsworthy event or related to a public figure.

     (c) For the purposes of this section, "intimate areas" means the naked genitals, pubic area,

buttocks, or any portion of the female breast below the top of the areola of a person which that

the person intended to protect from public view.

     (d) A first violation of this section shall be a misdemeanor and, upon conviction, subject

to imprisonment of not more than one year, a fine of not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000),

or both. A second or subsequent violation of this section shall be a felony and, upon conviction,

subject to imprisonment for not more than three (3) years, a fine of not more than three thousand

dollars ($3,000), or both.

     (e) Any person who intentionally threatens to disclose any visual image described in

subsection (a) of this section and makes the threat to obtain a benefit in return for not making the

disclosure or in connection with the threatened disclosure, shall be guilty of a felony and, upon

conviction, be subject to imprisonment for up to five (5) years, a fine of up to five thousand

dollars ($5,000), or both.

     (f) Any person who demands payment of money, property, services, or anything else of

value from a person in exchange for removing any visual image describe described in subsection

(a) of this section from public view shall be guilty of a felony and, upon conviction, be subject to

imprisonment for up to five (5) years, a fine of up to five thousand dollars ($5,000), or both.

     (g) Those in violation of this section shall not be subject to sex offender registration

requirements as set forth in chapter 37.1 of title 11 entitled "Sexual Offender Registration and

Community Notification Act."

      (h) A violation of this section is committed within this state if any conduct that is an

element of the offense, or any harm to the depicted person resulting from the offense, occurs in

this state.

     (i) Nothing in this section shall be construed to impose liability on an interactive

computer service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. � 230(f)(2), an information service, as defined in 47

U.S.C. � 153, or a telecommunications service, as defined in � 44-18-7.1, for content provided by

another person.


 

123)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-1.3-2

188 and 247

 

 

12-1.3-2. Motion for expungement.

     (a) Any person who is a first offender may file a motion for the expungement of all

records and records of conviction for a felony or misdemeanor by filing a motion in the court in

which the conviction took place; provided, that no person who has been convicted of a crime of

violence shall have his or her records and records of conviction expunged; and provided, that all

outstanding court-imposed or court-related fees, fines, costs, assessments, charges, and/or any

other monetary obligations have been paid, unless such amounts are reduced or waived by order

of the court.

     (b) Notwithstanding � 12-1.3-1(3) ("first offender"), any person who has been convicted

of more than one misdemeanor, but fewer than six (6) misdemeanors, and has not been convicted

of a felony may file a motion for the expungement of any or all of those misdemeanors by filing a

motion in the court in which the convictions took place; provided that convictions for offenses

under chapter 29 of title 12, � 31-27-2 or  31-27-2.1 are not eligible for and may not be

expunged under this subsection.

     (c) Subject to subsection (a), a person may file a motion for the expungement of records

relating to a misdemeanor conviction after five (5) years from the date of the completion of his or

her sentence.

     (d) Subject to subsection (a), a person may file a motion for the expungement of records

relating to a felony conviction after ten (10) years from the date of the completion of his or her

sentence.

     (e) Subject to � 12-19-19(c), and without regard to subsections (a) through (c) of this

section, a person may file a motion for the expungement of records relating to a deferred sentence

upon its completion, after which the court will hold a hearing on the motion.

     (f) Subject to subsection (b) of this section, a person may file a motion for the

expungement of records relating to misdemeanor convictions after ten (10) years from the date of

the completion of their last sentence.

     (g) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsections (a) through (f) of this section, a person

may file a motion for the expungement of records related to an offense that has been

decriminalized subsequent to the date of their conviction, after which the court will hold a hearing

on the motion in the court in which the original conviction took place.


 

124)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-5-2

6 and 7

 

 

12-5-2. Grounds for issuance.

     A warrant may be issued under this chapter to search for and seize any of the following:

     (1) Property stolen or embezzled, or obtained by any false pretense, or pretenses, with

intent to cheat or defraud within this state, or elsewhere;

     (2) Property kept, suffered to be kept, concealed, deposited, or possessed in violation of

law, or for the purpose of violating the law;

     (3) Property designed or intended for use, or which that is or has been used, in violation

of law, or as a means of committing a violation of law;

     (4) Property which that is evidence of the commission of a crime; or

     (5) Samples of blood, saliva, hair, bodily tissues, bodily fluids, or dental impressions

from the body of a person, that may yield evidence of the identity of the perpetrator of a crime

when subjected to scientific or other forensic analysis. The foregoing samples, and the results of

any scientific or other forensic analysis, shall be admissible in all criminal proceedings, subject to

application of the rules of evidence and criminal procedure. When any of the foregoing samples

are seized for scientific or forensic analysis, the seizure shall be conducted in accordance with the

regulations, guidelines, or protocols of the department of health or the state crime laboratory, as

may be appropriate under the circumstances; or

     (6) Samples of blood or breath that may yield evidence of the presence of alcohol or a

controlled substance when subjected to a chemical test, as contemplated in � 31-27-2. When any

of the foregoing samples are seized for purposes of performing the aforementioned chemical test,

the seizure shall be conducted in accordance with the regulations of the department of health that

apply to the consensual collection of such a sample for purposes of the chemical test

contemplated by Rhode Island general laws � 31-27-2; or

     (7) Property of a respondent under chapter 8.3 of title 8 where firearms may be under the

possession, custody, or control of the respondent.


 

125)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

12-17-17

125 and 294

 

 

12-17-17. Restrictions on the defense of provocation.

     For purposes of determining sudden quarrel or heat of passion, the provocation was not

objectively reasonable if it resulted solely from the discovery of, knowledge about, or potential

disclosure of the victim's actual or perceived gender, gender identity, gender expression, or sexual

orientation, including under circumstances in which the victim made an unwanted, non-forcible

romantic or sexual advance toward the defendant, or if the defendant and victim dated or had a

romantic relationship.


 

126)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

12-17-18

125 and 294

 

 

12-17-18. Restrictions on the defense of diminished capacity.

     A defendant does not suffer from reduced mental capacity based solely on the discovery

of, knowledge about, or potential disclosure of the victim's actual or perceived gender, gender

identity, gender expression, or sexual orientation, including under circumstances in which the

victim made an unwanted, non-forcible romantic or sexual advance toward the defendant, or if

the defendant and victim dated or had a romantic or sexual relationship.


 

127)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

12-17-19

125 and 294

 

 

12-17-19. Restrictions on the defense of self-defense.

     A person is not justified in using force against another based solely on the discovery of,

knowledge about, or potential disclosure of the victim's actual or perceived gender, gender

identity, gender expression, or sexual orientation, including under circumstances in which the

victim made an unwanted, non-forcible romantic or sexual advance toward the defendant, or if

the defendant and victim dated or had a romantic or sexual relationship.


 

128)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

12-29-12

233 and 280

 

 

12-29-12. Deborah DeBare domestic violence prevention fund -- policy.

     (a) The general assembly finds and declares that domestic violence is a serious public

health concern in the state of Rhode Island, and that evidence-based domestic violence prevention

programs are important tools in decreasing the continuing toll that domestic violence takes on

Rhode Island communities, cities, and towns. It is therefore in the best interest of the state to

establish a fund to promote effective programs working toward the primary prevention of

domestic violence in Rhode Island.

     (b) Deborah DeBare Domestic domestic violence prevention fund:

     (1) There is created the Deborah DeBare domestic violence prevention fund program, to

be administered by the Rhode Island Coalition Against Domestic Violence.

     (2) The Deborah DeBare domestic violence prevention fund program monies shall be

used to fund evidence-based programs with the purpose of primary prevention of domestic

violence and dating violence in the state of Rhode Island.

     (3) The Rhode Island Coalition Against Domestic Violence shall convene a statewide

prevention fund advisory committee comprised of those with knowledge, experience, training,

and/or expertise in the field of prevention of domestic violence and dating violence. The

committee members shall include, but are not limited to, the executive director of the Rhode

Island Coalition Against Domestic Violence, or their his or her designee; the director of the

department of health, or their his or her designee; the director of the department of human

services, or their his or her designee; the attorney general, or their his or her designee; and

representative organizations providing domestic violence and dating violence primary prevention

services in Rhode Island.

     (c) The committee shall be responsible for implementation of programs to prevent

domestic and dating abuse and shall:

     (1) Develop a plan and budget for distribution of funds;

     (2) Develop criteria for awarding and distributing funds received to develop plans and

programs for the prevention of domestic and dating violence;

     (3) Issue requests for proposals to providers, organizations, firms, or entities that will

provide services to the committee;

     (4) Review proposals for the funds and present recommendations to the board of directors

of the Rhode Island Coalition Against Domestic Violence;

     (5) Monitor and account for the expenditure of funds and produce an annual report on the

activities of the Deborah DeBare domestic violence prevention fund. Annual reports shall be

submitted to the senate and house finance committees of the general assembly for review on or

before February 28 of each year; and

     (6) Promote the general development of domestic violence primary prevention programs

and activities.

     (d) Organizations submitting proposals for funds shall not participate in the review of

proposals or expenditure of funds. The Rhode Island Coalition Against Domestic Violence shall

not be eligible to submit proposals for the committee's programs nor shall it be eligible to receive

any funds from the committee except as hereinafter provided.

     (e) The Rhode Island Coalition Against Domestic Violence may utilize up to ten percent

(10%) of the sums collected for the Deborah DeBare domestic violence prevention fund for the

purpose of administering the program and it shall also be required to submit an annual report

detailing the expenditure of funds to the senate and house finance committees on or before

February 28 of each year.


 

129)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

14-1-3

47 and 153

 

 

14-1-3. Definitions.

     The following words and phrases when used in this chapter shall, unless the context

otherwise requires, be construed as follows:

     (1) "Adult" means a person eighteen (18) years of age or older, except that "adult"

includes any person seventeen (17) years of age or older who is charged with a delinquent offense

involving murder, first-degree sexual assault, first-degree child molestation, or assault with intent

to commit murder, and that person shall not be subject to the jurisdiction of the family court as set

forth in �� 14-1-5 and 14-1-6 if, after a hearing, the family court determines that probable cause

exists to believe that the offense charged has been committed and that the person charged has

committed the offense.

     (2) "Appropriate person", as used in �� 14-1-10 and 14-1-11, except in matters relating to

adoptions and child marriages, means and includes:

     (i) Any police official of this state, or of any city or town within this state;

     (ii) Any duly qualified prosecuting officer of this state, or of any city or town within this

state;

     (iii) Any director of public welfare of any city or town within this state, or his or her duly

authorized subordinate;

     (iv) Any truant officer or other school official of any city or town within this state;

     (v) Any duly authorized representative of any public or duly licensed private agency or

institution established for purposes similar to those specified in � 8-10-2 or 14-1-2; or

     (vi) Any maternal or paternal grandparent, who alleges that the surviving parent, in those

cases in which one parent is deceased, is an unfit and improper person to have custody of any

child or children.

     (3) "Child" means a person under eighteen (18) years of age.

     (4) "The court" means the family court of the state of Rhode Island.

     (5) "Delinquent", when applied to a child, means and includes any child who has

committed any offense that, if committed by an adult, would constitute a felony, or who has on

more than one occasion violated any of the other laws of the state or of the United States or any

of the ordinances of cities and towns, other than ordinances relating to the operation of motor

vehicles.

     (6) "Dependent" means any child who requires the protection and assistance of the court

when his or her physical or mental health or welfare is harmed, or threatened with harm, due to

the inability of the parent or guardian, through no fault of the parent or guardian, to provide the

child with a minimum degree of care or proper supervision because of:

     (i) The death or illness of a parent; or

     (ii) The special medical, educational, or social-service needs of the child which the parent

is unable to provide.

     (7) "Justice" means a justice of the family court.

     (8) "Neglect" means a child who requires the protection and assistance of the court when

his or her physical or mental health or welfare is harmed, or threatened with harm, when the

parents or guardian:

     (i) Fails to supply the child with adequate food, clothing, shelter, or medical care, though

financially able to do so or offered financial or other reasonable means to do so;

     (ii) Fails to provide the child proper education as required by law; or

     (iii) Abandons and/or deserts the child.

     (9) "Wayward", when applied to a child, means and includes any child:

     (i) Who has deserted his or her home without good or sufficient cause;

     (ii) Who habitually associates with dissolute, vicious, or immoral persons;

     (iii) Who is leading an immoral or vicious life;

     (iv) Who is habitually disobedient to the reasonable and lawful commands of his or her

parent or parents, guardian, or other lawful custodian;

     (v) Who, being required by chapter 19 of title 16 to attend school, willfully and habitually

absents himself or herself from school or habitually violates the rules and regulations of the

school when he or she attends;

     (vi) Who has, on any occasion, violated any of the laws of the state or of the United

States or any of the ordinances of cities and towns, other than ordinances relating to the operation

of motor vehicles; or

     (vii) Any child under seventeen (17) years of age who is in possession of one ounce (1

oz.) or less of marijuana, as defined in � 21-28-1.02, and who is not exempted from the penalties

pursuant to chapter 28.6 of title 21.

     (10) The singular shall be construed to include the plural, the plural the singular, and the

masculine the feminine, when consistent with the intent of this chapter.

     (11) For the purposes of this chapter, "electronic surveillance and monitoring devices"

means any "radio frequency identification device (RFID)" or "global positioning device" that is

either tethered to a person or is intended to be kept with a person and is used for the purposes of

tracking the whereabouts of that person within the community.


 

130)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

14-1-5

153 and 248

 

 

14-1-5. Exclusive jurisdiction.

     The court shall, as set forth in this chapter, have exclusive original jurisdiction in

proceedings:

     (1) Concerning any child residing or being within the state who is: (i) delinquent; (ii)

wayward; (iii) dependent; (iv) neglected; or (v) mentally disabled, except that any person aged

seventeen (17) years of age or older who is charged with a delinquent offense involving murder,

first degree sexual assault, or assault with intent to commit murder shall not be subject to the

jurisdiction of the family court if, after a hearing, the family court determines that probable cause

exists to believe that the offense charged has been committed and that the person charged has

committed the offense. The family court shall conduct a hearing within ten (10) days of the

arraignment on the charge(s), unless the time for the hearing is extended by the court for good

cause shown;

     (2) Concerning adoption of children;

     (3) To determine the paternity of any child alleged to have been born out of wedlock and

to provide for the support and disposition of that child in case that child or its mother has

residence within the state;

     (4) Relating to child marriages, as prescribed by � 15-2-11; and

     (5) Referred to the court in accordance with the provisions of � 14-1-28.


 

131)

Section

Chapter Numbers:

 

14-1-6

47 (article 15) and 70

 

 

14-1-6. Retention of jurisdiction.

     (a) When the court shall have obtained jurisdiction over any child prior to the child

having attained the age of eighteen (18) years by the filing of a petition alleging that the child is

wayward or delinquent pursuant to � 14-1-5, the child shall, except as specifically provided in

this chapter, continue under the jurisdiction of the court until he or she becomes nineteen (19)

years of age, unless discharged prior to turning nineteen (19).

      (b) When the court shall have obtained jurisdiction over any child prior to the child's

eighteenth (18th) birthday by the filing of a miscellaneous petition or a petition alleging that the

child is dependent, neglected, or abused pursuant to �� 14-1-5 and 40-11-7 or 42-72-14, the child

shall, except as specifically provided in this chapter, continue under the jurisdiction of the court

until he or she becomes eighteen (18) years of age; provided, that at least six (6) months prior to a

child turning eighteen (18) years of age, the court shall require the department of children, youth

and families to provide a description of the transition services including the child's housing,

health insurance, education and/or employment plan, available mentors and continuing support

services, including workforce supports and employment services afforded the child in placement,

or a detailed explanation as to the reason those services were not offered. As part of the transition

planning, the child shall be informed by the department of the opportunity to voluntarily agree to

extended care and placement by the department and legal supervision by the court until age

twenty-one (21). The details of a child's transition plan shall be developed in consultation with

the child, wherever possible, and approved by the court prior to the dismissal of an abuse, neglect,

dependency, or miscellaneous petition before the child's twenty-first birthday.

     (c) A child, who is in foster care on their eighteenth birthday due to the filing of a

miscellaneous petition or a petition alleging that the child is dependent, neglected, or abused

pursuant to ��14-1-5, 40-11-7 or 42-72-14, may voluntarily elect to continue responsibility for

care and placement from DCYF and to remain under the legal supervision of the court as a young

adult until age twenty-one (21), provided:

     (1) The young adult was in the legal custody of the department at age eighteen (18); or

and

     (2) The young adult is participating in at least one of the following:

     (i) Completing the requirements to receive a high school diploma or GED;

     (ii) Completing a secondary education or a program leading to an equivalent credential;

enrolled in an institution that provides post-secondary or vocational education;

     (iii) Participating in a job-training program or an activity designed to promote or remove

barriers to employment;

     (iv) Be employed for at least eighty (80) hours per month; or

     (v) Incapable of doing any of the foregoing due to a medical condition that is regularly

updated and documented in the case plan;.

     (d) A former foster child who was adopted or placed in guardianship with an adoption

assistance agreement or a guardianship assistance agreement that was executed on or after his or

her sixteenth birthday and prior to his or her eighteenth birthday may voluntarily agree to

extended care and placement by the department and legal supervision by the court until age

twenty-one (21) if the young adult satisfies the requirements in � 14-1-6(c)(2) subsection (c)(2).

Provided, however, the department retains the right to review the request and first attempt to

address the issues through the adoption assistance agreement by providing post adoptive or post

guardianship support services to the young adult and his or her adoptive or guardianship family.

     (e) Upon the request of the young adult, who voluntarily agreed to the extension of care

and placement by the department and legal supervision by the court, pursuant to subsections (c)

and (d) of this section, the court's legal supervision and the department's responsibility for care

and placement may be terminated. Provided, however, the young adult may request reinstatement

of responsibility and resumption of the court's legal supervision at any time prior to their his or

her twenty-first birthday if the young adult meets the requirements set forth in �14-l-6(c)(3)

subsection (c)(2). If the department wishes to terminate the court's legal supervision and its

responsibility for care and placement, it may file a motion for good cause. The court may exercise

its discretion to terminate legal supervision over the young adult at any time.

     (f) The court may retain jurisdiction of any child who is seriously emotionally disturbed

or developmentally delayed pursuant to � 42-72-5(b)(24)(v) until that child turns age twenty-one

(21) when the court shall have obtained jurisdiction over any child prior to the child's eighteenth

birthday by the filing of a miscellaneous petition or a petition alleging that the child is dependent,

neglected, and/or abused pursuant to �� 14-1-5, and 40-11-7, or 42-72-14.

      (g) The department of children, youth and families shall work collaboratively with the

department of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and hospitals, and other agencies,

in accordance with � 14-1-59, to provide the family court with a transition plan for those

individuals who come under the court's jurisdiction pursuant to a petition alleging that the child is

dependent, neglected, and/or abused and who are seriously emotionally disturbed or

developmentally delayed pursuant to � 42-72-5(b)(24)(v). This plan shall be a joint plan

presented to the court by the department of children, youth and families and the department of

behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and hospitals. The plan shall include the

behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and hospitals' community or residential service

level, health insurance option, education plan, available mentors, continuing support services,

workforce supports and employment services, and the plan shall be provided to the court at least

twelve (12) months prior to discharge. At least three (3) months prior to discharge, the plan shall

identify the specific placement for the child, if a residential placement is needed. The court shall

monitor the transition plan. In the instance where the department of behavioral healthcare,

developmental disabilities and hospitals has not made timely referrals to appropriate placements

and services, the department of children, youth and families may initiate referrals.

      (h) The parent and/or guardian and/or guardian ad litem of a child who is seriously

emotionally disturbed or developmentally delayed pursuant to � 42-72-5(b)(24)(v), and who is

before the court pursuant to �� 14-1-5(1)(iii) through 14-1-5(1)(v), 40-11-7 or 42-72-14, shall be

entitled to a transition hearing, as needed, when the child reaches the age of twenty (20) if no

appropriate transition plan has been submitted to the court by the department of children, youth

person and families and the department of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and

hospitals. The family court shall require that the department of behavioral healthcare,

developmental disabilities, and hospitals shall immediately identify a liaison to work with the

department of children, youth, and families until the child reaches the age of twenty-one (21) and

an immediate transition plan be submitted if the following facts are found:

     (1) No suitable transition plan has been presented to the court addressing the levels of

service appropriate to meet the needs of the child as identifies by the department of behavioral

healthcare, developmental disabilities and hospitals: or

     (2) No suitable housing options, health insurance, educational plan, available mentors,

continuing support services, workforce supports, and employment services have been identified

for the child.

      (i) In any case where the court shall not have acquired jurisdiction over any person prior

to the person's eighteenth (18th) birthday by the filing of a petition alleging that the person had

committed an offense, but a petition alleging that the person had committed an offense that would

be punishable as a felony if committed by an adult has been filed before that person attains the

age of nineteen (19) years of age, that person shall, except as specifically provided in this chapter,

be subject to the jurisdiction of the court until he or she becomes nineteen (19) years of age,

unless discharged prior to turning nineteen (19).

      (j) In any case where the court shall not have acquired jurisdiction over any person prior

to the person attaining the age of nineteen (19) years by the filing of a petition alleging that the

person had committed an offense prior to the person attaining the age of eighteen (18) years

which that would be punishable as a felony if committed by an adult, that person shall be referred

to the court that had jurisdiction over the offense if it had been committed by an adult. The court

shall have jurisdiction to try that person for the offense committed prior to the person attaining

the age of eighteen (18) years and, upon conviction, may impose a sentence not exceeding the

maximum penalty provided for the conviction of that offense.

      (k) In any case where the court has certified and adjudicated a child in accordance with

the provisions of �� 14-1-7.2 and 14-1-7.3, the jurisdiction of the court shall encompass the

power and authority to sentence the child to a period in excess of the age of nineteen (19) years.

However, in no case shall the sentence be in excess of the maximum penalty provided by statute

for the conviction of the offense.

      (l) Nothing in this section shall be construed to affect the jurisdiction of other courts over

offenses committed by any person after he or she reaches the age of eighteen (18) years.


 

 

 

132)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

15-5-14

171 and 264

 

 

15-5-14. Return day of complaints -- Notice -- Issuance of process -- Time of hearing.

     (a) The court may, by general rule,:

     (1) Determine determine the return day of petitions complaints for divorce; and

     (2) Prescribe prescribe the notice to be given, within or without the state, on all petitions

complaints for divorce, and;

     (3) May may issue any process that may be necessary to carry into effect all powers

conferred upon it the court in relation to the petitions complaints and divorce; and,

     (4) the court may also, by general rule, fix Fix the times, during its session, when all

petitions complaints for divorce shall be heard, as they may be filed in Providence, Newport, East

Greenwich, or South Kingstown, respectively. These general rules shall, be subject to special

orders which that the court may make in special cases. Until general rules are made, special order

in each case shall be made.

     (b) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsection (a) of this section, no petition for

divorce or separation shall be in order for hearing until after the expiration of sixty (60) days after

the filing of the petition, unless sooner ordered, ex parte, by a justice of the family court. During

this period the family counseling service may investigate the circumstances at the discretion of

the court, or at the request of either party, counsel the parties, and make recommendations to the

court and the parties.


 

133)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-2-9.6

143 and 193

 

 

16-2-9.6. Joint purchasing agreements for technology and IT infrastructure.

     Notwithstanding any other law or rule, any two (2) or more school committees may

establish joint purchasing agreements between and among themselves or with the Rhode Island

Society of Technology Educators ("RISTE"), a domestic, nonprofit corporation, for the purposes

of establishing bids pursuant to chapter 55 of title 45, and jointly purchasing technology-related

goods and services. The RISTE, acting on behalf of any school committee(s) that are members of

a joint purchasing agreement with RISTE, may establish specifications and bid on behalf of such

the member school districts. The RISTE shall comply with bidding requirements of chapter 55 of title 45. The RISTE and any consortia created pursuant to a joint purchase agreement under this chapter shall be entitled to all the rights and benefits set forth in �37-2-56. Notwithstanding the foregoing, nothing in this section permits any non-public school or non-public school district

access to the master price agreement maintained by the department of administration, division of

purchases.


 

134)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-11-8

135 and 287

 

 

16-11-8. Recruitment and selection of teachers - Troops to teachers.

     (a) The Rhode Island department of education shall, as part of its certification of qualified

candidates, utilize, and apply for available grants with, the Troops to Teachers (TTT) program

whose oversight is provided by the United States Department of Defense and managed by the

Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Educational Support (DANTES).

     (b) The implementation of the TTT program pursuant to this section shall be contingent

upon federal funding. State funds or appropriations shall not be utilized in connection with the

implementation of this section.

     (c) The commissioner shall promulgate whatever rules and regulations, including the

creation of necessary forms and applications, that are required to carry out the provisions of this

section.


 

135)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-21-5.1

117 and 202

 

 

16-21-5.1. Carbon monoxide detectors required in school buildings.

     Effective January 1, 2019, all school buildings where students are in attendance for any

portion of the day shall be required to have carbon monoxide detectors installed and maintained

therein, in accordance with the applicable provisions of the National Fire Protection Association

('"NFPA") Code and the state fire safety code ('"state code"), chapter 28.1 of title 23. The fire

safety code board of appeal and review (the "board'') established pursuant to chapter 28.3 of title

23 shall have authority to promulgate rules and regulations necessary to enforce the provisions of

this section. Provided, in the event the state fire marshal determines that neither the NFPA code

nor the state code have provisions in place to govern such the installation, then the state fire

marshal may use the provisions of NFPA Code 1/NFPA 101, 2015 editions, NFPA Code 720,

2012 edition, the state fire code, and any additional requirements provided under those codes for

licensed nursery or day care services, as guidance in the installation of carbon monoxide detectors

in schools, until such time as the board promulgates applicable rules and regulations.


 

136)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-21-7.1

15 and 22

 

 

16-21-7.1. Unhealthy food and beverage advertising prohibited in schools.

     (a) Except as provided in subsection (b) of this section, a school district shall prohibit at

any school within the district:

     (1) The advertising of any food or beverage that may not be sold on the school campus

during the school day. For purposes of this section, food and beverages that may not be sold on

the school campus during the school day are those that do not meet the minimum nutrition

standards as set forth by the United States Department of Agriculture under the Healthy, Hunger-

Free Kids Act of 2010 [(Pub. L. No. 111-296) federal regulations implementing the Act [42

U.S.C. � 1779(b)], and as set forth by the Rhode Island board of education and local school

committees. Advertising is prohibited on any property or facility owned or leased by the school

district or school and used at any time for school-related activities, including, but not limited to,

school buildings, athletic fields, facilities, signs, scoreboards, parking lots, school buses or other

vehicles, equipment, vending machines, uniforms, educational materials, or supplies; and

     (2) The participation in a corporate incentive program that rewards children with free or

discounted foods or beverages that may not be sold on the school campus during the school day

when they reach certain academic goals.

     (b) Exceptions. The restriction on advertising in subsection (a) of this section shall not

apply to:

     (1) Advertising on broadcast, digital, or print media, unless the media are produced or

controlled by the local education agency, school, faculty, or its students;

     (2) Advertising on clothing with brand images worn on school grounds;

     (3) Advertising contained on product packaging; or

     (4) Advertising on a food truck that sells foods and beverages on school property, after

the end of the school day, as defined in � 16-21-7.

     (c) Implementation. The restriction on advertising in subsection (a) of this section shall

take effect on September 1, 2018, with the following limited exceptions:

     (1) For advertising that occurs pursuant to a contract or lease, the restrictions in

subsection (a) of this section apply to advertising that occurs pursuant to a contract or lease that

was entered into or renewed on or after the effective date of this section; and

     (2) Nothing in this section requires the removal, from a permanent fixture, of advertising

that does not comply with the restrictions in subsection (a) of this section, until the permanent

fixture is removed or replaced, provided the advertising or display is a permanent feature of the

permanent fixture.

     (d) Definitions � As used in this section, the following words shall have the following

meanings:

     (1) "Advertising" means an oral, written, or graphic statement or representation,

including a company logo or trademark, made for the purpose of promoting the use or sale of a

product by its producer, manufacturer, distributer, seller, or any other entity with a commercial

interest in the product.

     (2) "Brand" means a corporate or product name, a business image, or a mark, regardless

of whether it legally qualifies as a trademark used by a seller or manufacturer to identify their

goods or services and to distinguish them from competitors' goods.


 

137)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-21-23

9 and 10

 

 

16-21-23. School safety teams, school crisis response teams, and school safety assessments.

     (a) Each school district of each town, city, and regional school department shall conduct a

school safety assessment in conjunction with local police, fire, school safety team pursuant to the

provisions of this section and any other expert said school department deems necessary. The

assessment shall examine the current status of each school building's safety and shall be

performed within thirty (30) days of passage of this act, and every three (3) years thereafter.

     (1) There shall be a Rhode Island school safety committee whose functions shall include,

but not be limited to, providing training to law enforcement, school administrators, and teachers,;

collecting and reviewing all hazard safety security assessments,; and offering recommendations

and assistance to each school district of every town, city, and regional school department, in an

effort to increase the safety of students and faculty. Said The committee shall be comprised of

twelve (12) members as follows: the superintendent of the Rhode Island state police or designee,

who shall serve as chairperson of the committee; the president of the Police Chiefs' Association,

or designee; the director of the Rhode Island emergency management agency, or designee; the

commissioner of the department of elementary and secondary education, or designee; a

representative from the Rhode Island School Superintendents' Association, to be selected by the

association; the director of the department of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities

and hospitals, or designee; the state fire marshal, or designee; a representative of the Rhode Island

association of school maintenance directors Association of School Maintenance Directors, to be

selected by the association; a representative from the Rhode Island Association of School

Principals, to be selected by the association; a representative from the Rhode Island Association

of School Committees, to be selected by the association; a representative from the National

Education Association of Rhode Island ("NEARI"), who shall be a full-time classroom teacher, to

be selected by the president of NEARI; and one representative from the Rhode Island Federation

of Teachers and Health Professionals ("RIFTHP"), who shall be a full-time classroom teacher, to

be selected by the president of the RIFTHP.

     (2) Each school department of each town, city, and regional school district shall complete

the emergency action plan and shall submit the all hazards site safety survey report to the Rhode

Island school safety committee every three (3) years for the committee's review and

recommendation.

     (3) The assessment shall be completed by November 1 of the year mandated, and by

December 31 of that year, the commissioner of elementary and secondary education shall report

to the speaker of the house, the senate president, and the governor that such the assessments have

been completed. Assessments performed within a year of the date of passage of this act shall

satisfy this requirement.

     (4) All meetings regarding the school safety assessment are not subject to the open

meetings law pursuant to chapter 46 of title 42, and documents produced including, but not

limited to, meeting minutes and the school safety assessment are not subject to the access to

public records law pursuant to chapter 2 of title 38.

     (b) The school committee of each town, city, and regional school department shall review

and adopt in executive session a comprehensive school safety plan regarding crisis intervention,

emergency response, and management. The plan shall be developed by a school safety team

comprised of representatives of the school committee,; representatives of student, teacher, and

parent organizations,; school safety personnel,; school administration,; and members of local law

enforcement, fire, and emergency personnel. Members of the school safety team shall be

appointed by the school committee and/or school superintendent of the town, city, or regional

school district. In creating the school safety plan, the school safety team(s) shall consult the

model school safety plan developed by the department of elementary and secondary education

pursuant to � 16-21-23.1.

     (c) The school crisis response team shall be comprised of those selected school personnel

willing to serve as members of a psychological response team to address the psychological and

emotional needs of the school community, and may seek mental health resources from the

department of elementary and secondary education. Members of the school crisis response team

may coordinate mental health services for those students and school employees affected by acts

of violence in the schools, using resources available through the department of elementary and

secondary education.


 

138)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-22-4

173 and 203

 

 

16-22-4. Instruction in health and physical education.

     (a) All children in grades one through twelve (12) attending public schools, or any other

schools managed and controlled by the state, shall receive in those schools instruction in health

and physical education under rules and regulations the department of elementary and secondary

education may prescribe or approve during periods that shall average at least twenty (20) minutes

in each school day. No private school or private instruction shall be approved by any school

committee for the purposes of chapter 19 of this title as substantially equivalent to that required

by law of a child attending a public school in the same city and/or or town unless instruction in

health and physical education similar to that required in public schools shall be given.

Commencing September 1, 2012, the required health education curriculum shall be based on the

health education standards of the Rhode Island Health Education Framework: Health Literacy

health education framework: health literacy for All Students all students as promulgated by

the Rhode Island department of education and consistent with the mandated health instructional

outcomes therein. Commencing September 1, 2012, the required physical education curriculum

shall be based on the physical education standards of the Rhode Island Physical Education

Framework: Supporting Physically Active Lifestyles physical education framework:

supporting physically active lifestyles through Quality Physical Education quality physical

education as promulgated by the Rhode Island department of education and consistent with the

instructional outcomes therein.

     (b) The department of elementary and secondary education shall consider incorporate, in

consultation with the state department of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and

hospitals, the incorporation of substance-abuse prevention and suicide prevention into the health

education curriculum. For the purpose of this section, "substance-abuse prevention" means the

implementation of evidence-based, age-appropriate programs, practices, or curricula related to the

use and abuse of alcohol, tobacco, and other drugs; "suicide prevention" means the

implementation of evidence-based, appropriate programs, practices, or curricula related to mental

health awareness and suicide prevention.


 

139)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

16-22-18

116 and 191

 

 

16-22-18. Health and family life courses.

     (a) Every secondary school teaching courses in family life or sex education within this

state shall include, as part of the course instruction, abstinence from sexual activity and refraining

from sexual intercourse as the preferred method of pregnancy prevention and the prevention of

sexually transmitted diseases. Provided further, part of the course instruction may incorporate

age-appropriate and developmentally-appropriate developmentally appropriate elements of

effective and evidence-based programs on the law and meaning of consent. Such age-appropriate

and developmentally-appropriate developmentally appropriate elements of effective and

evidence-based programs on the prevention of pregnancy, sexually transmitted diseases, and

sexual violence may include instruction that increases student awareness of the fact that consent

is required before sexual activity.

     (b) Upon written request to the school principal, a pupil not less than eighteen (18) years

of age or a parent or legal guardian of a pupil less than eighteen (18) years of age, within a

reasonable period of time after the request is made, shall be permitted to examine the curriculum

program instruction materials at the school in which his or her child is enrolled.

     (c) A parent or legal guardian may exempt his or her child from the program by written

directive to the principal of the school. No child so exempted shall be penalized academically by

reason of the exemption.


 

140)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-22-29

129 and 199

 

 

16-22-29. Field trips to nature preserve, reserve, or conservatory.

     The general assembly recognizes the importance of a citizenry well educated in the

principles of nature and our environment, as well as the general assembly's duty to provide for the

preservation, regeneration, and restoration of the natural environment of the state, as enunciated

in the constitution of the state of Rhode Island. In light of this, public schools of this state,

beginning in kindergarten and continuing through and including grade twelve (12), are

encouraged to use their best efforts to provide access to every student to at least one field trip to a

nature preserve, reserve, or conservatory.


 

141)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-73.1

162 and 197

 

 

CHAPTER 73.1

SCHOOL SOCIAL WORKERS QUALITY ASSESSMENT ACT


 

 

142)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-73.1-1

162 and 197

 

 

16-73.1-1. Compilation of data � School social worker duties and responsibilities.

     (a) Accumulated data is needed to identify and assess the workload, duties, and

responsibilities of school social workers. The 2009 basic education plan drafted by the

department of education:

     (1) Delegates to the local education agency the ultimate responsibility for the operation of

a system of education and support services that is reasonably designed and adequately resourced

to achieve compliance with all aspects of the basic education plan;

     (2) Requires that the local education agency provide a supportive and nurturing school

community; and

     (3) Provides adequate psychological, mental health, and social services.

     (b) The state department of education shall develop a standard measure which that will

identify the number of school social workers in the state, and the actual nature and scope of work

and services that they provide. Specifically, it shall solicit information concerning:

     (1) Prevention and intervention services;

     (2) Counselor services assessments;

     (3) Consultation;

     (4) Parent and community liaison;

     (5) Attempts to reduce violence;

     (6) Referrals and collaboration; and

     (7) Promoting adherence to federal mandates, involvement in school activities, and

training.

     (c) School departments shall ascertain and forward to the state department of education

the following information:

     (1) The number of social assessments completed;

     (2) The number of family contacts;

     (3) The number of staff meetings attended;

     (4) The number of community contacts;

     (5) The number of teacher consultation contacts;

     (6) The number of functional behavioral assessments (FBAs) completed;

     (7) The number of individualized educational plan (IEP) meetings attended;

     (8) The number of individual counseling sessions; and

     (9) The number of group counseling sessions.

     (d) Every school social worker shall complete this standard measure for one complete

school year.


 

143)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-73.1-2

162 and 197

 

 

16-73.1-2. Report.

     The department of education shall gather all the information concerning the duties and

responsibilities of school social workers provided to it by local school departments. It shall

summarize the information in a report which that shall be delivered to the chairpersons of the

house of representatives health education and welfare committee and the senate committee on

education in January of 2020.


 

 

 

144)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

16-81-1.1

187 and 239

 

 

16-81-1.1. Suicide prevention and mental health services.

     (a) Each public institution of postsecondary education shall establish a plan for

addressing the mental health needs of its students in a timely fashion that may include written

memorandum of understanding with local community service providers or other mental health

providers. Sole reliance on off-campus mental health services is strongly discouraged.

     (b) Each public institution of postsecondary education shall develop and implement

policies and training, if appropriate, that advise students, faculty, and staff, including residence

hall staff, of the proper procedures for identifying the needs of a student exhibiting suicidal

tendencies or behavior, and where appropriate provide training for addressing said needs.

     (c) The plan and policies along with the implementation timetable in subsections (a) and

(b) of this section shall be provided to the president of the senate, speaker of the house of

representatives, and the council on postsecondary education by January l, 2019.


 

145)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-1-5

182 and 279

 

 

17-1-5. Effect of special statutes.

     The provisions of any chapter or section under this title are subject to the provisions of

any special statutes or charters respecting any particular town or city, none of which are repealed

by this title; provided, that insofar as any special statute or charters adapted prior to April 22,

1935, conflicts with the provisions of chapter 19 of this title, the provisions of chapter 19 shall

prevail; and provided, further, that insofar as any special statute or charter provision conflicts

with the provisions of � 17-14-7, 17-14-9, or 17-19-7.1 of this title, the provisions of � 17-14-7,

17-14-9, or 17-19-7.1 shall prevail. Notwithstanding any charter provision of any city or town to

the contrary, all local elections and special elections, as these terms are defined under �� 17-1-

2(6) and 17-1-2(14), shall be held on the first Tuesday next after the first Monday in any month.

     SECTION 2. Section 17-3-6 of the General Laws in Chapter 17-3 entitled "General

Assembly Members" is hereby amended to read as follows:


 

146)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-3-6

182 and 279

 

 

17-3-6. Vacancy in general assembly -- Special elections.

     (a) Whenever from any cause a vacancy occurs in the representation of any senatorial or

representative district in the general assembly while the general assembly is in session, the

secretary of state shall cause the local board of the city or town to issue a warrant ordering an

election to fill the vacancy, to be held in that district at least seventy (70) but not more than ninety

(90) days from the occurrence of the vacancy; provided, that if the general assembly has nearly

completed its January session so that it is doubtful whether the person to be chosen can serve as a

member at that session, the election shall not be ordered within that time limit, but may be held at

any later date within that calendar year, if that year is the first year of the biennial period for

which a general assembly has been chosen. And, provided further, the election to fill the vacancy

shall be held on a Tuesday that falls between the seventieth and ninetieth day of the vacancy. If

the vacancy occurs after the first Monday in February in the second year of the biennial period for

which a general assembly was chosen, no warrant shall be issued for a special election to fill the

vacancy. If the vacancy occurs or exists at any other time when the general assembly is not in

session, the secretary of state shall cause to be issued a warrant for an election to be held to fill

the vacancy.

     (b) Every person elected pursuant to the provisions of this section shall hold his or her

office for the remainder of the term that person is elected to fill, and until his or her successor is

elected and qualified.


 

147)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-4-8

182 and 279

 

 

17-4-8. Special election to fill vacancy in office of representative.

     Whenever any person elected a representative in congress from either district, at any time

between the day of his or her election and the beginning of his or her term of office, refuses to

serve and so declares to the secretary of state, or dies, becomes insane, removes from the state, or

is otherwise incapacitated, or whenever a vacancy happens in the representation of this state in

congress as contemplated in the second section of the first article of the Constitution of the United

States, the governor shall immediately issue his or her writ of election directed to the several city

and town clerks, or local boards as the case may be, ordering a new election of the representative

in congress to be held in that district to fill the vacancy, at as early a date, to be stated in the writ,

as will be in compliance with the provisions of law in relation to these elections, but no election

provided for by this section shall be held on Saturday on any day other than the first Tuesday next

after the first Monday of any month; provided, that whenever a vacancy occurs between the first

day of April and the first day of October in any even-numbered year, the governor shall, unless in

his or her opinion the public good requires an earlier special election, issue his or her writ for a

special election to fill the vacancy to be held with the general election on the Tuesday next after

the first Monday in November of that year.


 

148)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-4-9

182 and 279

 

 

17-4-9. Special election to fill senatorial vacancy.

     Whenever a person elected a senator in congress, at any time between the day of that

person's election and the beginning of his or her term of office, refuses to serve and so declares to

the secretary of state, or dies, becomes insane, removes from the state, or is otherwise

incapacitated, or whenever a vacancy happens in the representation of this state in the United

States senate, the governor shall issue his or her writ of election directed to the several city and

town clerks, or local boards as the case may be, ordering a new election of senator to fill the

vacancy to be held in the state at as early a date, to be stated in the writ, as will be in compliance

with the provisions of law in relation to these elections, but no election provided for by this

section shall be held exclusively on Saturday on any day other than the first Tuesday next after

the first Monday of any month; provided, that whenever a vacancy occurs between the first day of

July and the first day of October in any even-numbered year, the governor shall, unless in his or

her opinion the public good requires an earlier special election, issue his or her writ for a special

election to fill the vacancy to be held with the general election on the Tuesday next after the first

Monday in November of that year.


 

149)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-5-1.1

182 and 279

 

 

17-5-1.1. Special referenda elections.

     Any proposition of amendment of the Constitution or any other public question submitted

to the electors of the state at any election not a general election pursuant to � 17-1-2(2) shall be

held on the first Tuesday next after the first Monday of any month and shall be voted upon at

town, ward, and district meetings, in accordance with the following procedure:

     (1) When an act of the general assembly is passed authorizing the submission of a

question to all of the electors of the state, the secretary of state is authorized to rephrase the

question to appear on the ballot in a manner that would clearly apprise the voters of the question

to be voted upon and to cause the ballot to contain a concise caption of the question, and the full

text of the question as adopted by the general assembly need not appear on the ballot except for

proposed amendments to the Constitution of the state of Rhode Island. The secretary of state shall

cause each question appearing on the ballot prepared by him or her to be designated by number,

the first question to be designated by the numeral I and additional questions shall follow

numbered so that all questions submitted to all the electors of the state and appearing upon the

ballot are numbered consecutively; provided that local questions shall be printed on a distinctive

colored background.

     (2) Prior to the election at which public questions are to be submitted, the secretary of

state shall cause to be printed and shall send one copy of the full text of each legislative act to be

acted upon and applicable to the state at large, or the secretary of state may substitute a

description of the text of each act in lieu of the full text, to each residential unit in Rhode Island

together with the following information:

     (i) The designated number of the question appearing on the ballot;

     (ii) A brief caption of the question appearing on the ballot; and

     (iii) A brief explanation of the measure being the subject matter of the question.

     (3) Voting on a proposition of amendment of the Constitution or of a public question of

statewide impact shall be by means of optical-scan voting equipment and computer ballots

authorized pursuant to this title.


 

150)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

17-9.1-17.1

42 and 46

 

 

17-9.1-17.1. Registration - Notice to jurisdiction of previous out-of-state address.

The secretary of state shall, upon receiving a voter's new registration, notify the appropriate

election official of the newly registered voter's last place of residence, only if it is located outside

the state of Rhode Island.


 

151)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-12-13

50 and 52

 

 

17-12-13. State conventions.

     There shall be held not later than October 14 of every even year a state convention for

each political party. The nominees of a party for senator and for representatives in congress, for

the five (5) general offices, and for membership in the general assembly shall be delegates to the

state convention of that party. In presidential election years, these conventions shall select the

party nominees for presidential electors and their names shall be placed on the ballot for the

forthcoming election. The state convention shall be for the purpose of adopting a platform for its

party and for the transaction of any other business that may properly come before the convention.


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

152)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-12-14

182 and 279

 

 

17-12-14. Election of delegates to national conventions.

     The local boards of the several cities and towns of the state are authorized and directed to

furnish for the use of any political party in this state, upon written request of the chairperson of

the state central committee, acting under a resolution of the committee, voting places in which

primary meetings may be held to elect delegates to the national convention of the political party.

The boards shall have the voting places open on the date and during the hours requested by the

chairperson of the committee, so long as that election of delegates is scheduled on the first

Tuesday next after the first Monday of any month, and shall furnish to the officers appointed to

act at the primary meetings any paraphernalia, including check lists, that are generally required

and used in elective meetings; provided, that the political party first requesting the use of the

voting places on and for a certain date shall be entitled to the use of them on that date; and if the

date is one requested by some other political party, the other political party, through the

chairperson of the committee, may request another date. In cities a voting place and paraphernalia

for voting shall be furnished and provided for each ward into which the cities may be divided;

and in each of the towns of Burrillville, Cumberland, and Lincoln, at least two (2) voting places

and the paraphernalia for voting, and in every other town at least one voting place and the

paraphernalia for voting, shall be furnished and provided. The local boards shall not be required

to provide for the compensation for services of the officers appointed to act at the primary

meetings, nor shall anything contained in this section be held to affect the method of holding

elections already provided for by law.


 

153)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-14-7

151 and 313

 

 

17-14-7. Number of signers required for nomination papers.

     (a) United States senator or governor. The nomination papers of a candidate for the party

nomination or an independent candidate for presidential elector, United States senator, or

governor shall be signed, in the aggregate, by at least one thousand (1,000) voters.

     (b) Representative in Congress. The nomination papers of a candidate for the party

nomination or an independent candidate for representative in congress shall be signed, in the

aggregate, by at least five hundred (500) voters.

     (c) General state offices. The nomination papers of a candidate for the party nomination

or an independent candidate for any of the general offices of the state, excluding governor, shall

be signed, in the aggregate, by at least five hundred (500) voters.

     (d) State senator. The nomination papers of a candidate for a party nomination or

independent candidate for senator in any senatorial district shall be signed, in the aggregate, by at

least one hundred (100) voters of the senatorial district.

     (e) State representative. The nomination papers of a candidate for party nomination or an

independent candidate for a member of the house of representatives from any representative

district shall be signed, in the aggregate, by at least fifty (50) voters of the representative district.

     (f) City offices. The nomination papers of a candidate for party nomination or an

independent candidate for any local office to be filled by the voters of any city at large shall be

signed, in the aggregate, by at least two hundred (200) voters of the city, provided that the city of

Newport, for at-large candidates or candidates for school committee, at least one hundred (100)

signatures shall be required; provided, further, that in the city of Woonsocket, for candidates for

citywide nonpartisan office, including city council, mayor, and candidates for school committee,

if elected, at least one hundred (100) signatures shall be required; and provided, further that in

the city of Providence, at least five hundred (500) signatures shall be required.

     (g) Voting district moderator or clerk. The nomination papers for a candidate for voting

district moderator or clerk in any town shall be signed, in the aggregate, by at least ten (10) voters

of the voting district.

     (h) Other offices. The nomination papers of a candidate for party nomination for other

offices covered by � 17-15-7, or for the election of delegates or for unendorsed party committee

candidates, shall be signed, in the aggregate, by fifty (50) voters.


 

 

154)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-15-3

182 and 279

 

 

17-15-3. Special election primaries.

     Party primary elections shall also be held for the purpose of nominating candidates for an

office or offices to be elected at any special election. In the event of a special election, the state

board shall fix the date or dates on which the various party primary elections shall be held;

provided, that all the party primary elections shall have been held by the thirtieth (30th) day

preceding the date fixed for the special election; and provided, further, that the date or dates fixed

by the state board shall not be a religious holiday or Saturday and shall be held on the first

Tuesday next after the first Monday of any month.


 

155)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-5-4

182 and 279

 

 

17-15-4. Municipal primaries other than at time of general primaries.

     In those cities and towns which that now by law hold elections for city or town officers

on a day other than the Tuesday after the first Monday in November biennially in each even year,

a primary election for the nomination of the city or town officials shall be held and the local

board shall fix the date of the election; provided, that the primary election shall have been held by

the thirtieth (30th) day preceding the date fixed for the election; and provided, further, that the

date fixed by the local board shall not be a religious holiday or Saturday and shall be held on the

first Tuesday next after the first Monday of any month.


 

156)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-20-8

55 and 58

 

 

17-20-8. Application for ballot.

     (a) Whenever any person is unable to sign his or her name because of physical incapacity

or otherwise, that person shall make his or her mark "X".

     (b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter as to time and manner thereof, it

shall be the duty of the applicant to cause the mail ballot application or the emergency mail ballot

application, as the case may be, to be processed by the local board so that the applicant may

receive the ballot, cast it, and cause delivery thereof to be made to the state board not later than

nine o'clock (9:00) eight o'clock (8:00) p.m. on the date of election.

     (c) The local board shall maintain a separate list of names and addresses of all applicants

and their subscribing witnesses and a copy of the list shall be made available for inspection to any

person upon request.

     (d) Any person knowingly and willfully making a false application or certification or

knowingly and willfully aiding and abetting in the making of a false application or certification

shall be guilty of a felony.


 

157)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-20-25

55 and 58

 

 

17-20-25. Return of unused ballots.

     Every voter who has received a mail ballot and has not cast it shall nevertheless return the

unvoted ballot and its uncertified enclosing envelope to the state board or local board with a

statement that the voter is not using the mail ballot, before nine o'clock (9:00) eight o'clock (8:00)

p.m. on election day.


 

158)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

17-22-1

55 and 58

 

 

17-22-1. Commencement and continuance of tabulations.

     The state board shall commence the counting, canvassing, and tabulating of all votes cast,

including mail ballots, at nine o'clock (9:00) eight o'clock (8:00) p.m. on any election day at

which mail ballots may be cast and within twenty-four (24) hours after any other election or

primary, and shall continue and complete the tabulation with all reasonable expedition by using

an optical scan count system.


 

159)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

20-2-2

317 and 350

 

 

20-2-2. Issuance of licenses.

     The authorized agent of any city or town and any Any person or corporation appointed by

the director as provided in � 20-2-1 shall, upon the application of any person entitled to receive a

license under this chapter and upon payment of the specified license fee, register and issue to that

person a license, either printed or displayed electronically on a mobile device, so long as the

certificate provides all of the information requested in the data fields identified by the department.

The certificate shall bear the name, age, occupation, place of residence, signature, and identifying

description of the registrant and shall authorize the registrant to fish or shellfish, or to pursue,

hunt, and kill game in the state of Rhode Island during those seasons and in those manners and

according to those conditions, as shall be provided by law; provided, however, that these

authorized agents shall not have authority to issue lobster, commercial shellfish, or commercial

fishing licenses of any kind.


 

160)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

20-2-31

317 and 350

 

 

20-2-31. Hunting and fishing licenses -- Exceptions.

     (a) Every valid license to hunt or fish in this state that is held by any resident of this state

upon joining the armed forces or the merchant marine of the United States is hereby extended and

is in force and valid until six (6) months following the termination of his or her service.

     (b) Every member of the armed forces or of the merchant marine of the United States

may hunt or fish in this state if that person procures a hunting or fishing license issued by the

state of Rhode Island, the fee for which is that charged for a resident civilian.

     (c) Every man or woman who was a part of the armed forces of the United States

government and is now a one hundred percent (100%) disabled veteran, and any man or woman

who is one hundred percent (100%) permanently disabled, is entitled, subject to the provisions of

this title, to receive a license to hunt and/or fish in this state; and upon the presentation of his or

her necessary military discharge identification and/or disability papers, as prescribed by the

department of environmental management, shall, at the discretion of the licensing authority,

receive, without the payment of any license fee, a continuing special form of license authorizing

the man or woman to hunt and/or fish in this state in accordance with the provisions of this title

and regulations issued pursuant to this title for so long as he or she so desires; provided, however,

that the man or woman, having once made application for this license, shall not again be required

to appear before the licensing authority to present his or her papers.

     (d) A freshwater fishing license is not required of any blind person. For the purposes of

this section, a person is blind only if his or her central visual acuity does not exceed 20/200 in the

better eye with correcting lenses or if his or her visual acuity is greater than 20/200 but is

accompanied by a limitation in the fields of vision such that the widest diameter of the visual

field subtends an angle no greater than twenty degrees (20�).

     (e) Every resident man or woman over the age of sixty-five (65) years is entitled, subject

to the provisions of this title and the regulations issued pursuant to this title, to receive a special

permanent license to hunt and/or fish in this state for which there is no fee.

     (f) Any man or woman who is one hundred percent (100%) permanently disabled may

apply to the clerk of any city or town to receive a license to fish in this state, and upon

presentation of a proof of his or her disability as prescribed by the department of environmental

management, receive, without the payment of any license fee, a continuing special form of

license authorizing the man or woman to fish in this state for so long as he or she so desires;

provided, however, that the man or woman, having once made application for this license, shall

not again be required to appear before the licensing authority to present his or her papers.

     (g) The director may, by regulation, designate no more than two (2) days in each year,

which may or may not be consecutive, during which residents and nonresidents may, without

having a license and without payment of any fee, exercise the privileges of a holder of a

freshwater fishing license. These persons are subject to all other limitations, restrictions,

conditions, laws, rules, and regulations applicable to the holder of a freshwater fishing license.

     (h) For the purpose of this section, "man or woman who is one hundred percent (100%)

permanently disabled" means an individual who has a physical or mental impairment and is

receiving:

     (1) Social Security Disability Insurance Benefits (SSDI);

     (2) Supplemental Security Income benefits (SSI).

     All licenses that are issued to persons who qualify pursuant to this subsection shall be

issued without the requirement of the payment of a fee and shall expire annually on February 28

of each year. Persons seeking the issuance or reissuance of licenses shall be required to present

documentation establishing that the applicant is qualified, or remains qualified, pursuant to this

subsection.


 

161)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

20-8.1-4

168 and 250

 

 

20-8.1-4. Factors considered in determining polluted areas.

     In making a determination that an area is polluted, the director shall take into

consideration ensure consistency with the requirements of the National Shellfish Sanitation

Program one or more of the following matters as they apply: the volume of sewage that may

affect the area; the dilution of that sewage by clean water; the distance of the area from sources of

pollution; the "most probable number" of fecal coliform bacteria found upon examining the water

from the area, in accordance with the National Shellfish Sanitation Programs Manual of

Operations exceeds 14 per one hundred milliliters (100 ml) of water, for a three-tube (3) decimal

dilution test, or exceeds 49 per 100 ml of water for a three-tube (3) decimal dilution test for more

than ten percent (10%) of the samplesWhen necessary, for consistency with National Shellfish

Sanitation Program requirements, The the director may declare an area to be polluted in the

absence of a "most probable number" of fecal coliforms monitoring data if the director has

evidence that significant volumes of raw sewage or inadequately purified sewage may reach the

area the area may become polluted. A review of the status of all the areas in the state shall be

made by the director on at least an annual basis.


 

162)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

21-28-1.02

183 and 277

 

 

21-28-1.02. Definitions.

     Unless the context otherwise requires, the words and phrases as defined in this section are

used in this chapter in the sense given them in the following definitions:

     (1) "Administer" refers to the direct application of controlled substances to the body of a

patient or research subject by:

     (i) A practitioner, or, in his or her presence by his or her authorized agent; or

     (ii) The patient or research subject at the direction and in the presence of the practitioner

whether the application is by injection, inhalation, ingestion, or any other means.

     (2) "Agent" means an authorized person who acts on behalf of, or at the direction of, a

manufacturer, wholesaler, distributor, or dispenser; except that these terms do not include a

common or contract carrier or warehouse operator, when acting in the usual and lawful course of

the carrier's or warehouse operator's business.

     (3) "Apothecary" means a registered pharmacist as defined by the laws of this state and,

where the context requires, the owner of a licensed pharmacy or other place of business where

controlled substances are compounded or dispensed by a registered pharmacist; and includes

registered assistant pharmacists as defined by existing law, but nothing in this chapter shall be

construed as conferring on a person who is not registered as a pharmacist any authority, right, or

privilege that is not granted to him or her by the pharmacy laws of the state.

     (4) "Automated data processing system" means a system utilizing computer software and

hardware for the purposes of record keeping.

     (5) "Certified law enforcement prescription drug diversion investigator" means a certified

law enforcement officer assigned by his or her qualified law enforcement agency to investigate

prescription drug diversion.

     (6) "Computer" means programmable electronic device capable of multi-functions,

including, but not limited to: storage, retrieval, and processing of information.

     (7) "Control" means to add a drug or other substance or immediate precursor to a

schedule under this chapter, whether by transfer from another schedule or otherwise.

     (8) "Controlled substance" means a drug, substance, immediate precursor, or synthetic

drug in schedules I -- V of this chapter. The term shall not include distilled spirits, wine, or malt

beverages, as those terms are defined or used in chapter 1 of title 3, nor tobacco.

     (9) "Co-prescribing" means issuing a prescription for an opioid antagonist along with a

prescription for an opioid analgesic.

     (9)(10) "Counterfeit substance" means a controlled substance that, or the container or

labeling of which, without authorization bears the trademark, trade name, or other identifying

mark, imprint, number, or device, or any likeness of them, of a manufacturer, distributor, or

dispenser, other than the person or persons who in fact manufactured, distributed, or dispensed

the substance and that thereby falsely purports or is represented to be the product of, or to have

been distributed by, the other manufacturer, distributor, or dispenser, or which substance is

falsely purported to be or represented to be one of the controlled substances by a manufacturer,

distributor, or dispenser.

     (10)(11) "CRT" means cathode ray tube used to impose visual information on a screen.

     (11)(12) "Deliver" or "delivery" means the actual, constructive, or attempted transfer of a

controlled substance or imitation controlled substance, whether or not there exists an agency

relationship.

     (12)(13) "Department" means the department of health of this state.

     (13)(14) "Depressant or stimulant drug" means:

     (i) A drug that contains any quantity of:

     (A) Barbituric acid or derivatives, compounds, mixtures, or preparations of barbituric

acid; and

     (B) "Barbiturate" or "barbiturates" includes all hypnotic and/or somnifacient drugs,

whether or not derivatives of barbituric acid, except that this definition shall not include bromides

and narcotics.

     (ii) A drug that contains any quantity of:

     (A) Amphetamine or any of its optical isomers;

     (B) Any salt of amphetamine and/or desoxyephedrine or any salt of an optical isomer of

amphetamine and/or desoxyephedrine, or any compound, mixture, or preparation of them.

     (iii) A drug that contains any quantity of coca leaves. "Coca leaves" includes cocaine, or

any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of coca leaves, except

derivatives of coca leaves, that do not contain cocaine, ecgonine, or substance from which

cocaine or ecgonine may be synthesized or made.

     (iv) Any other drug or substance that contains any quantity of a substance that the

attorney general of the United States, or the director of health, after investigation, has found to

have, or by regulation designates as having, a potential for abuse because of its depressant or

stimulant effect on the central nervous system.

     (14)(15) "Director" means the director of health.

     (15)(16) "Dispense" means to deliver, distribute, leave with, give away, or dispose of a

controlled substance to the ultimate user or human research subject by or pursuant to the lawful

order of a practitioner, including the packaging, labeling, or compounding necessary to prepare

the substance for that delivery.

     (16)(17)"Dispenser" is a practitioner who delivers a controlled substance to the ultimate

user or human research subject.

     (17)(18) "Distribute" means to deliver (other than by administering or dispensing) a

controlled substance or an imitation controlled substance and includes actual constructive, or

attempted transfer. "Distributor" means a person who so delivers a controlled substance or an

imitation controlled substance.

     (18)(19) "Downtime" means that period of time when a computer is not operable.

     (19)(20) "Drug addicted person" means a person who exhibits a maladaptive pattern of

behavior resulting from drug use, including one or more of the following: impaired control over

drug use; compulsive use; and/or continued use despite harm, and craving.

     (20)(21) "Drug Enforcement Administration" means the Drug Enforcement

Administration United States Department of Justice or its successor.

     (21)(22) "Federal law" means the Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control

Act of 1970, (84 stat. 1236) (see generally 21 U.S.C. � 801 et seq.), and all regulations pertaining

to that federal act.

     (22)(23) "Hardware" means the fixed component parts of a computer.

     (23)(24) "Hospital" means an institution as defined in chapter 17 of title 23.

     (24)(25) "Imitation controlled substance" means a substance that is not a controlled

substance, that by dosage unit, appearance (including color, shape, size, and markings), or by

representations made, would lead a reasonable person to believe that the substance is a controlled

substance and, which imitation controlled substances contain substances which that if ingested,

could be injurious to the health of a person. In those cases when the appearance of the dosage unit

is not reasonably sufficient to establish that the substance is an "imitation controlled substance"

(for example in the case of powder or liquid), the court or authority concerned should consider, in

addition to all other logically relevant factors, the following factors as related to "representations

made" in determining whether the substance is an "imitation controlled substance":

     (i) Statement made by an owner, possessor, transferor, recipient, or by anyone else in

control of the substance concerning the nature of the substance, or its use or effect.

     (ii) Statements made by the owner, possessor, or transferor, to the recipient that the

substance may be resold for substantial profit.

     (iii) Whether the substance is packaged in a manner reasonably similar to packaging of

illicit controlled substances.

     (iv) Whether the distribution or attempted distribution included an exchange of or

demand for money or other property as consideration, and whether the amount of the

consideration was substantially greater than the reasonable value of the non-controlled substance.

     (25)(26) "Immediate precursor" means a substance:

     (i) That the director of health has found to be and by regulation designated as being the

principal compound used, or produced primarily for use, in the manufacture of a controlled

substance;

     (ii) That is an immediate chemical intermediary used or likely to be used in the

manufacture of those controlled substances; and

     (iii) The control of which is necessary to prevent, curtail, or limit the manufacture of that

controlled substance.

     (26)(27) "Laboratory" means a laboratory approved by the department of health as proper

to be entrusted with controlled substances and the use of controlled substances for scientific and

medical purposes and for the purposes of instruction.

     (27)(28) "Manufacture" means the production, preparation, propagation, cultivation,

compounding, or processing of a drug or other substance, including an imitation controlled

substance, either directly or indirectly or by extraction from substances of natural origin, or

independently by means of chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical

synthesis and includes any packaging or repackaging of the substance or labeling or relabeling of

its container in conformity with the general laws of this state except by a practitioner as an

incident to his or her administration or dispensing of the drug or substance in the course of his or

her professional practice.

     (28)(29) "Manufacturer" means a person who manufactures but does not include an

apothecary who compounds controlled substances to be sold or dispensed on prescriptions.

     (29)(30) "Marijuana" means all parts of the plant cannabis sativa L., whether growing or

not; the seeds of the plant; the resin extracted from any part of the plant; and every compound,

manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of the plant, its seeds or resin, but shall not

include the mature stalks of the plant, fiber produced from the stalks, oil or cake made from the

seeds of the plant, any other compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, mixture, or preparation of

mature stalks, (except the resin extracted from it), fiber, oil or cake, or the sterilized seed from the

plant which is incapable of germination.

     (30)(31) "Narcotic drug" means any of the following, whether produced directly or

indirectly by extraction from substances of vegetable origin, or independently by means of

chemical synthesis or by a combination of extraction and chemical synthesis:

     (i) Opium and opiates.

     (ii) A compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, or preparation of opium or opiates.

     (iii) A substance (and any compound, manufacture, salt, derivative, or preparation of it)

that is chemically identical with any of the substances referred to in paragraphs (i) and (ii) of this

subdivision.

     (iv) Any other substance that the attorney general of the United States, or his or her

successor, or the director of health, after investigation, has found to have, and by regulation

designates as having, a potential for abuse similar to opium and opiates.

     (31)(32) "Official written order" means an order written on a form provided for that

purpose by the Drug Enforcement Administration under any laws of the United States making

provision for an official form, if order forms are authorized and required by federal law, and if no

order form is provided then on an official form provided for that purpose by the director of health.

     (32)(33) "Opiate" means any substance having an addiction-forming or addiction-

sustaining liability similar to morphine or being capable of conversion into a drug having

addiction-forming or addiction-sustaining liability.

     (34) "Opioid analgesics" means and includes, but is not limited to, the medicines

buprenophine, butorphanol, codeine, hydrocodone, hydromorphone, levorphanol, meperidine,

methadone, morphine, nalbuphine, oxycodone, oxymorphone, pentazocine, propoxyphene as well

as their brand names, isomers, and combinations, or other medications approved by the

department.

     (35) "Opioid antagonist" means naloxone hydrochloride and any other drug approved by

the United States Food and Drug Administration for the treatment of opioid overdose.

     (33)(36) "Opium poppy" means the plant of the species papaver somniferum L., except

the seeds of the plant.

     (34)(37) "Ounce" means an avoirdupois ounce as applied to solids and semi-solids, and a

fluid ounce as applied to liquids.

     (35)(38) "Person" means any corporation, association, partnership, or one or more

individuals.

     (36)(39) "Physical dependence" means a state of adaptation that is manifested by a drug

class specific withdrawal syndrome that can be produced by abrupt cessation, rapid dose

reduction, decreasing blood level of the drug, and/or administration of an antagonist.

     (37)(40) "Poppy straw" means all parts, except the seeds, of the opium poppy, after

mowing.

     (38)(41) "Practitioner" means:

     (i) A physician, osteopath, dentist, chiropodist, veterinarian, scientific investigator, or

other person licensed, registered or permitted to distribute, dispense, conduct research with

respect to or to administer a controlled substance in the course of professional practice or research

in this state.

     (ii) A pharmacy, hospital, or other institution licensed, registered or permitted to

distribute, dispense, conduct research with respect to, or to administer a controlled substance in

the course of professional practice or research in this state.

     (39)(42) "Printout" means a hard copy produced by computer that is readable without the

aid of any special device.

     (40)(43) "Production" includes the manufacture, planting, cultivation, growing, or

harvesting of a controlled substance.

     (41)(44) "Qualified law enforcement agency" means the U.S. Food and Drug

Administration, Drug Enforcement Administration, Federal Bureau of Investigation, Office of

Inspector General of the U.S. Department of Health & Human Services, or the Medicaid Fraud

and Patient Abuse Unit in the Office of the Attorney General.

     (42)(45) "Researcher" means a person authorized by the director of health to conduct a

laboratory as defined in this chapter.

     (43)(46) "Sell" includes sale, barter, gift, transfer, or delivery in any manner to another,

or to offer or agree to do the same.

     (44)(47) "Software" means programs, procedures and storage of required information

data.

     (45)(48) "Synthetic drugs" means any synthetic cannabinoids or piperazines or any

synthetic cathinones as provided for in schedule I.

     (46)(49) "Ultimate user" means a person who lawfully possesses a controlled substance

for his or her own use or for the use of a member of his or her household, or for administering to

an animal owned by him or her or by a member of his or her household.

     (47)(50) "Wholesaler" means a person who sells, vends, or distributes at wholesale, or as

a jobber, broker agent, or distributor, or for resale in any manner in this state any controlled

substance.


 

 

 

 

 

 

163)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

21-28-3.18

56 and 59

 

 

21-28-3.18. Prescriptions.

     (a) An apothecary in good faith may sell and dispense controlled substances in schedules

II, III, IV, and V to any person upon a valid prescription by a practitioner licensed by law to

prescribe or administer those substances,; dated and signed by the person prescribing on the day

when issued and bearing the full name and address of the patient to whom, or of the owner of the

animal for which, the substance is dispensed; and the full name, address, and registration number

under the federal law of the person prescribing, if he or she is required by that law to be

registered. If the prescription is for an animal, it shall state the species of the animal for which the

substance is prescribed.

     (b) When filling a hard-copy prescription for a schedule II controlled substance, the

apothecary filling the prescription shall sign his or her full name and shall write the date of filling

on the face of the prescription.

     (c) The prescription shall be retained on file by the proprietor of the pharmacy in which it

was filled for a period of two (2) years so as to be readily accessible for inspection by any public

officer or employee engaged in the enforcement of this chapter.

     (d) (1) Hard-copy prescriptions for controlled substances in schedule II shall be filed

separately and shall not be refilled.

     (2) The director of health shall, after appropriate notice and hearing pursuant to � 42-35-

3, promulgate rules and regulations for the purpose of adopting a system for electronic data

transmission of prescriptions for controlled substances in schedules II, III, IV, and V. Opioid

antagonists, including, but not limited to, naloxone, as may be further determined by rules and

regulations, shall be transmitted with controlled substances in schedules II, III, IV, and V.

Provided, information collected regarding dispensing of opioid antagonists shall be for statistical,

research, or educational purposes only. The department's rules and regulations shall require the

removal of patient, recipient, or prescriber information that could be used to identify individual

patients or recipients of opioid antagonists.

     (3) A practitioner shall sign and transmit electronic prescriptions for controlled

substances in schedules II, III, IV, and V to a pharmacy in accordance with rules and regulations

as shall be promulgated by the department and which shall require electronic transmission no

sooner than January 1, 2020, and a pharmacy may dispense an electronically transmitted

prescription for these controlled substances in accordance with the code of federal regulations, 21

C.F.R., pt. 1300, et seq.

     (e) Subject to the rules and regulations promulgated by the department pursuant to

subsection (d)(3) of this section, a prescription for a schedule II narcotic substance to be

compounded for the direct administration to a patient by parenteral, intravenous, intramuscular,

subcutaneous, or intraspinal infusion may be transmitted by the practitioner, or practitioner's

agent, to the pharmacy by facsimile. The facsimile will serve as the original prescription.

     (f) Subject to the rules and regulations promulgated by the department pursuant to

subsection (d)(3) of this section, a prescription for a schedule II substance for a resident of a long-

term-care facility may be transmitted by the practitioner, or the practitioner's agent, to the

dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The facsimile serves as the original prescription.

     (g) Subject to the rules and regulations promulgated by the department pursuant to

subsection (d)(3) of this section, a prescription for a schedule II narcotic substance for a patient

residing in a hospice certified by Medicare under title XVIII of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C.

� 1395 et seq., or licensed by the state, may be transmitted by the practitioner, or practitioner's

agent, to the dispensing pharmacy by facsimile. The practitioner, or the practitioner's agent, will

note on the prescription that the patient is a hospice patient. The facsimile serves as the original,

written prescription.

     (h) An apothecary, in lieu of a written prescription, may sell and dispense controlled

substances in schedules III, IV, and V to any person upon an oral prescription of a practitioner. In

issuing an oral prescription, the prescriber shall furnish the apothecary with the same information

as is required by subsection (a) of this section and the apothecary who fills the prescription shall

immediately reduce the oral prescription to writing and shall inscribe the information on the

written record of the prescription made. This record shall be filed and preserved by the proprietor

of the pharmacy in which it is filled in accordance with the provisions of subsection (c) of this

section. In no case may a prescription for a controlled substance listed in schedules III, IV, or V

be filled or refilled more than six (6) months after the date on which the prescription was issued

and no prescription shall be authorized to be refilled more than five (5) times. Each refilling shall

be entered on the face or back of the prescription and note the date and amount of controlled

substance dispensed and the initials or identity of the dispensing apothecary.

     (i) In the case of an emergency situation as defined in federal law, an apothecary may

dispense a controlled substance listed in schedule II upon receiving an oral authorization of a

prescribing practitioner provided that:

     (1) The quantity prescribed and dispensed is limited to the amount adequate to treat the

patient during the emergency period and dispensing beyond the emergency period must be

pursuant to a written prescription signed by the prescribing practitioner.

     (2) The prescription shall be immediately reduced to writing and shall contain all the

information required in subsection (a).

     (3) The prescription must be dispensed in good faith in the normal course of professional

practice.

     (4) Within seven (7) days after authorizing an emergency oral prescription, the

prescribing practitioner shall cause a prescription for the emergency quantity prescribed to be

delivered to the dispensing apothecary. The prescription shall have written on its face

"authorization for emergency dispensing" and the date of the oral order. The prescription, upon

receipt by the apothecary, shall be attached to the oral emergency prescription that had earlier

been reduced to writing.

     (j) (1) The partial filling of a prescription for a controlled substance listed in schedule II

is permissible, if the apothecary is unable to supply the full quantity called for in a prescription or

emergency oral prescription and he or she makes a notation of the quantity supplied on the face of

the prescription or oral emergency prescription that has been reduced to writing. The remaining

portion of the prescription may be filled within seventy-two (72) hours of the first partial filling,

however, if the remaining portion is not, or cannot be, filled within seventy-two (72) hours, the

apothecary shall notify the prescribing practitioner. No further quantity may be supplied beyond

seventy-two (72) hours without a new prescription.

     (2) (i) A prescription for a schedule II controlled substance written for a patient in a long-

term-care facility (LTCF), or for a patient with a medical diagnosis documenting a terminal

illness, may be filled in partial quantities to include individual dosage units. If there is a question

whether a patient may be classified as having a terminal illness, the pharmacist must contact the

practitioner prior to partially filling the prescription. Both the pharmacist and the prescribing

practitioner have a corresponding responsibility to assure that the controlled substance is for a

terminally ill patient.

     (ii) The pharmacist must record on the prescription whether the patient is "terminally ill"

or an "LTCF patient." A prescription that is partially filled, and does not contain the notation

"terminally ill" or "LTCF patient", shall be deemed to have been filled in violation of this chapter.

     (iii) For each partial filling, the dispensing pharmacist shall record on the back of the

prescription (or on another appropriate record, uniformly maintained, and readily retrievable),

the:

     (A) Date of the partial filling;

     (B) Quantity dispensed;

     (C) Remaining quantity authorized to be dispensed; and

     (D) Identification of the dispensing pharmacist.

     (iv) The total quantity of schedule II controlled substances dispensed in all partial fillings

must not exceed the total quantity prescribed.

     (v) Schedule II prescriptions for patients in a LTCF, or patients with a medical diagnosis

documenting a terminal illness, are valid for a period not to exceed sixty (60) days from the issue

date, unless sooner terminated by the discontinuance of medication.

     (k) Automated, data-processing systems. As an alternative to the prescription record

keeping provision of subsection (h) of this section, an automated, data-processing system may be

employed for the record-keeping system if the following conditions have been met:

     (1) The system shall have the capability of producing sight-readable documents of all

original and refilled prescription information. The term "sight readable" means that an authorized

agent shall be able to examine the record and read the information. During the course of an on-

site inspection, the record may be read from the CRT, microfiche, microfilm, printout, or other

method acceptable to the director. In the case of administrative proceedings, records must be

provided in a paper printout form.

     (2) The information shall include, but not be limited to, the prescription requirements and

records of dispensing as indicated in subsection (h) of this section.

     (3) The individual pharmacist responsible for completeness and accuracy of the entries to

the system must provide documentation of the fact that prescription information entered into the

computer is correct. In documenting this information, the pharmacy shall have the option to

either:

     (i) Maintain a bound logbook, or separate file, in which each individual pharmacist

involved in the dispensing shall sign a statement each day attesting to the fact that the prescription

information entered into the computer that day has been reviewed and is correct as shown. The

book or file must be maintained at the pharmacy employing that system for a period of at least

two (2) years after the date of last dispensing; or

     (ii) Provide a printout of each day's prescription information. That printout shall be

verified, dated, and signed by the individual pharmacist verifying that the information indicated is

correct. The printout must be maintained at least two (2) years from the date of last dispensing.

     (4) An auxiliary, record-keeping system shall be established for the documentation of

refills if the automated, data-processing system is inoperative for any reason. The auxiliary

system shall ensure that all refills are authorized by the original prescription and that the

maximum number of refills is not exceeded. When this automated, data-processing system is

restored to operation, the information regarding prescriptions filled and refilled during the

inoperative period shall be entered into the automated, data-processing system within ninety-six

(96) hours.

     (5) Any pharmacy using an automated, data-processing system must comply with all

applicable state and federal laws and regulations.

     (6) A pharmacy shall make arrangements with the supplier of data-processing services or

materials to ensure that the pharmacy continues to have adequate and complete prescription and

dispensing records if the relationship with the supplier terminates for any reason. A pharmacy

shall ensure continuity in the maintenance of records.

     (7) The automated, data-processing system shall contain adequate safeguards for security

of the records to maintain the confidentiality and accuracy of the prescription information.

Safeguards against unauthorized changes in data after the information has been entered and

verified by the registered pharmacist shall be provided by the system.

     (l) Prescriptions for controlled substances as found in schedule II will become void unless

dispensed within ninety (90) days of the original date of the prescription and in no event shall

more than a thirty-day (30) supply be dispensed at any one time.

     (1) In prescribing controlled substances in schedule II, practitioners may write up to three

(3) separate prescriptions, each for up to a one-month supply, each signed and dated on the date

written. For those prescriptions for the second and/or third month, the practitioner must write the

earliest date each of those subsequent prescriptions may be filled, with directions to the

pharmacist to fill no earlier than the date specified on the face of the prescription.

     (m) The prescriptions in schedules III, IV, and V will become void unless dispensed

within one hundred eighty (180) days of the original date of the prescription. For purposes of this

section, a "dosage unit" shall be defined as a single capsule, tablet, or suppository, or not more

than one five (5) ml. of an oral liquid.

     (1) Prescriptions in schedule III cannot be written for more than one hundred (100)

dosage units and not more than one hundred (100) dosage units may be dispensed at one time.

Provided, however, manufacturer prepackaged steroids and hormones in Schedule schedule III

shall be exempt from this subsection.

     (2) Prescriptions in schedules IV and V may be written for up to a ninety-day (90) supply

based on directions. No more than three hundred and sixty (360) dosage units may be dispensed

at one time.

     (n) A pharmacy shall transmit prescription information to the prescription-monitoring

database at the department of health within one business day following the dispensing of an

opioid prescription.

     (o) The pharmacist shall inform patients verbally or in writing about the proper disposal

of expired, unused, or unwanted medications, including the location of local disposal sites as

listed on the department of health website.

     (p) The pharmacist shall inform patients verbally or in writing in the proper use of any

devices necessary for the administration of controlled substances.

     (q) (1) A health care professional authorized to issue prescriptions shall, prior to issuing

an initial prescription for an opioid drug, specifically discuss with the patient who is eighteen (18)

years of age or older, or the patient's parent or guardian if the patient is under eighteen (18) years

of age, the risks of developing a dependence or addiction to the prescription opioid drug and

potential of overdose or death; the adverse risks of concurrent use of alcohol or other

psychoactive medications and the patient's or the minor patient's parent or guardian's

responsibility to safeguard all medications; and, if the prescriber deems it appropriate, discuss

such alternative treatments as may be available. For patients in recovery from substance

dependence, education shall be focused on relapse risk factors. This discussion shall be noted in

the patient's record.

     (2) The director of the department of health shall develop and make available to

prescribers guidelines for the discussion required pursuant to this subsection.

     (3) The discussion required under this subsection shall not be required prior to issuing a

prescription to any patient who is currently receiving hospice care from a licensed hospice.


 

164)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

21-28-3.20

183 and 277

 

 

21-28-3.20. Authority of practitioner to prescribe, administer, and dispense.

     (a) A practitioner, in good faith and in the course of his or her professional practice only,

may prescribe, administer, and dispense controlled substances, or he or she may cause the

controlled substances to be administered by a nurse or intern under his or her direction and

supervision.

     (b) The prescription-monitoring program shall be reviewed prior to starting any opioid. A

prescribing practitioner, or designee as authorized by � 21-28-3.32(a)(3), shall review the

prescription-monitoring program prior to refilling or initiating opioid therapy with an intrathecal

pump. For patients the prescribing practitioner is maintaining on continuous opioid therapy for

pain for three (3) months or longer, the prescribing practitioner shall review information from the

prescription-monitoring program at least every three (3) months. Documentation of that review

shall be noted in the patient's medical record.

     (c) The director of health shall develop regulations for prescribing practitioners on

appropriate limits of opioid use in acute pain management. Initial prescriptions of opioids for

acute pain management of outpatient adults shall not exceed thirty (30) morphine milligram

equivalents (MMEs) total daily dose per day for a maximum total of twenty (20) doses, and, for

pediatric patients, the appropriate opioid dosage maximum per the department of health.

     (d) For the purposes of this section, acute pain management shall not include chronic pain

management, pain associated with a cancer diagnosis, palliative or nursing home care, or other

exception in accordance with department of health regulations.

     (e) Subsection (c) shall not apply to medications designed for the treatment of substance

abuse or opioid dependence.

     (f) On or before September 1, 2018, the director of health shall develop, and make

available to health-care practitioners, information on best practices for co-prescribing opioid

antagonists to patients. The best practices information shall identify situations in which co-

prescribing an opioid antagonist may be appropriate, including, but not limited to:

     (1) In conjunction with a prescription for an opioid medication, under circumstances in

which the health-care practitioner determines the patient is at an elevated risk for an opioid drug

overdose;

     (2) In conjunction with medications prescribed pursuant to a course of medication

therapy management for the treatment of a substance use disorder involving opioids; or

     (3) Under any other circumstances in which a health-care practitioner identifies a patient

as being at an elevated risk for an opioid drug overdose.

     (g) The best practices information developed pursuant to subsection (f) of this section

shall include guidelines for determining when a patient is at an elevated risk for an opioid drug

overdose, including, but not limited to, situations in which the patient:

     (1) Meets the criteria provided in the opioid overdose toolkit published by the federal

substance abuse and mental health service administration;

     (2) Is receiving high-dose, extended-release, or long-acting opioid medications;

     (3) Has a documented history of an alcohol or substance use disorder, or a mental health

disorder;

     (4) Has a respiratory ailment or other co-morbidity that may be exacerbated by the use of

opioid medications;

     (5) Has a known history of intravenous drug use or misuse of prescription opioids;

     (6) Has received emergency medical care or been hospitalized for an opioid overdose; or

     (7) Uses opioids with antidepressants, benzodiazepines, alcohol, or other drugs.

     (h) On or before September 1, 2018, the director of health and the secretary of the

executive office of health and human services shall develop strategies that include:

     (1) Allowing practitioners in non-pharmacy settings to prescribe and dispense opioid

antagonists; and

     (2) Ensuring that opioid antagonists that are distributed in a non-pharmacy setting are

eligible for reimbursement from any health insurance carrier, as defined under chapters 18, 19,

20, and 41 of title 27, and the Rhode Island medical assistance program, as defined under chapter

7.2 of title 42.


 

165)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

21-28-3.33

152 and 252

 

 

21-28-3.33. Voluntary non-opiate directive form.

     (a) The department shall establish a voluntary non-opiate directive form. The form shall

indicate to all practitioners that an individual shall not be administered or offered a prescription or

medication order for an opiate. The form shall be posted on the department's searchable website.

An individual may execute and file a voluntary non-opiate directive form with a practitioner

licensed under chapter 37 of title 5 or other authority authorized by the director to accept the

voluntary non-opiate directive form for filing. An individual may revoke the voluntary non-opiate

directive form for any reason and may do so by written or oral means.

     (b) The department shall promulgate regulations for the implementation of the voluntary

non-opiate directive form which that shall include, but not be limited to:

     (1) The procedures to record the voluntary non-opiate directive form in the individual's

electronic health record and in the prescription drug monitoring program established pursuant to �

21-28-3.18;

     (2) A standard form for the recording and transmission of the voluntary non-opiate

directive form, which that shall include verification by a practitioner registered under chapter 37

of title 5 and which that shall comply with the written consent requirements of the Public Health

Service Act, 42 U.S.C. � 290dd-2(b), and 42 CFR Part 2; provided, however, that the voluntary

non-opiate directive form shall also provide the basic procedures necessary to revoke the

voluntary non-opiate directive form;

     (3) The requirements for an individual to appoint a duly authorized guardian or health

care proxy to override a previously recorded voluntary non-opiate directive form;

     (4) The procedures to ensure that any recording, sharing, or distribution of data relative to

the voluntary non-opiate directive form complies with all state and federal confidentiality laws;

and

     (5) Appropriate exemptions for pre-hospital emergency medical services providers and

other medical personnel.

     (c) A written prescription that is presented at an outpatient pharmacy or a prescription

that is electronically transmitted to an outpatient pharmacy shall be presumed to be valid for the

purposes of this section and a pharmacist in an outpatient setting shall not be held in violation of

this section for dispensing a controlled substance in contradiction to a voluntary non-opiate

directive form, except upon evidence that the pharmacist acted knowingly against the voluntary

non-opiate directive form.

     (d) No health care provider or employee of a health care provider acting in good faith

shall be subject to criminal or civil liability or be considered to have engaged in unprofessional

conduct for failing to offer or administer a prescription or medication order for an opiate under

the voluntary non-opiate directive form.

     (e) No person acting as an agent pursuant to a health care proxy shall be subject to

criminal or civil liability for making a decision under subsection (b)(3) of this section in good

faith.

     (f) The board of medical licensure and discipline may limit, condition, or suspend the

license of or assess fines against a licensed health care provider who recklessly or negligently

fails to comply with a person's voluntary non-opiate directive form.


 

166)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

21-28.9-3

184 and 288

 

 

21-28.9-3. Authority to administer opioid antagonists -- Release from liability.

     (a) A person may administer an opioid antagonist to another person if:

     (1) They, in good faith, believe the other person is experiencing a drug overdose; and

     (2) They act with reasonable care in administering the drug to the other person.

     (b) A person who administers an opioid antagonist to another person pursuant to this

section shall not be subject to civil liability or criminal prosecution as a result of the

administration of the drug.

     (c) State and municipal law enforcement personnel and emergency medical personnel to

include, but not limited to, emergency medical technicians (EMTs), paramedics, and fire

department personnel may provide and transfer an opioid antagonist to an individual or to their

his or her responsible family member, friend, of or other person, along with instructions on

administration and use of the opioid antagonist, to provide opioid overdose protection to the

individual, in the good-faith judgment of the law enforcement or emergency medical personnel,

who is at substantial risk of experiencing an opioid-related overdose event. Law enforcement

and/or emergency medical personnel may exercise their good-faith judgment based on their

experience, training, knowledge, observations, and information provided by the individual at

substantial risk of experiencing an opioid-related overdose event or from the individual's family,

friend, or others with knowledge of the individual's prior opioid use.


 

167)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

21-28.9-4

138 and 195

 

 

21-28.9-4. Emergency overdose care -- Immunity from legal repercussions.

     (a) Any person who, in good faith, without malice and in the absence of evidence of an

intent to defraud, seeks medical assistance for someone experiencing a drug or alcohol overdose

or other drug- or alcohol-related medical emergency shall not be charged or prosecuted for any

crime related to the possession of a controlled substance or drug paraphernalia, or the operation of

a drug-involved premises, if the evidence for the charge was gained as a result of the seeking of

medical assistance.

     (b) A person who experiences a drug or alcohol overdose or other drug- or alcohol-

related medical emergency and is in need of medical assistance shall not be charged or prosecuted

for any crime related to the possession of a controlled substance or drug paraphernalia, possession

or transportation of alcohol by an underage person, or the operation of a drug-involved premises,

if the evidence for the charge was gained as a result of the overdose and the need for medical

assistance.

     (c) The act of providing first aid or other medical assistance to someone who is

experiencing a drug or alcohol overdose or other drug- or alcohol-related medical emergency may

be used as a mitigating factor in a criminal prosecution pursuant to the controlled substances act.

     (d) The immunity related to the possession of a controlled substance or drug

paraphernalia, possession or transportation of alcohol by an underage person, or the operation of a

drug-involved premises afforded under this section shall also extend to a violation of probation

and/or parole on those grounds.


 

168)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

21-28.9-5

138 and 195

 

 

21-28.9-5. Law enforcement reports.

     In the first week of January, 2017, and each year thereafter, the attorney general shall, in

cooperation with local law enforcement agencies and the state police, submit to the general

assembly a report summarizing the impact of this chapter on law enforcement. The report shall

include any incidents in which a law enforcement agency was barred, due to the immunity

provisions of � 21-28.9-4, from charging or prosecuting a person under chapters 28 and 28.5 of

this title, and under �3-8-9 or �3-8-10, who would have otherwise been so charged or prosecuted,

and indicating whether the person was charged with, or prosecuted for, any other criminal offense

resulting from the agency's response to the request for medical assistance.


 

169)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

22-7.4-137

16 and 26

 

 

22-7.4-137. Michael Andrade Memorial Recreation Room.

     The recreation room in the new Rhode Island Veterans Home veterans home in Bristol

shall be named and known as the "Michael Andrade Memorial Recreation Room".


 

 

 

 

170)

Section

Chapter Numbers:

 

22-7.4-138

32 and 34

 

 

22-7.4-138. Robert J. Higgins Welcome Center.

     The new welcome center located on Upper College Road at the University university of

Rhode Island in Kingston, shall hereafter be named and known as the "Robert J. Higgins

Welcome Center welcome center."


 

171)

Section

Chapter Numbers:

 

22-7.4-139

216 and 269

 

 

22-7.4-139. Attorney General Julius C. Michaelson Customer Service Center.

     The building at 4 Howard Avenue in the city of Cranston shall hereafter be named and

known as the "Attorney General Julius C. Michaelson Customer Service Center customer service

center."


 

172)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-3-16

85 and 93

 

 

23-3-16. Death registration.

     (a) A death certificate for each death which that occurs in this state shall be filed with the

state registrar of vital records or as otherwise directed by the state registrar within seven (7)

calendar days after death and prior to removal of the body from the state, and shall be registered

if it has been completed and filed in accordance with this section;, provided:

     (1) That if the place of death is unknown, a death certificate shall be filed with the state

registrar of vital records or as otherwise directed by the state registrar within seven (7) calendar

days after the occurrence; and

     (2) That if death occurs in a moving conveyance, a death certificate shall be filed with the

state registrar of vital records or as otherwise directed by the state registrar.

     (b) The funeral director, his or her duly authorized agent, or person acting as agent, who

first assumes custody of a dead body, shall file the death certificate. He or she shall obtain the

personal data from the next of kin or the best qualified person or source available. He or she shall

obtain the medical certification of cause of death from the person responsible for certification.

The death certificate shall indicate the following:

     (1) The sex of the decedent shall be recorded to reflect the decedent's gender identity, as

reported by the next of kin or the best qualified person available, unless the person completing the

death certificate is presented with a document that memorializes the decedent's gender transition.

In case of conflicting information on the sex of the decedent from the sources, the death

certificate shall be based on documentation that memorializes the decedent's gender transition.

Documents that may memorialize a gender transition include: written instructions from the

decedent; a court order approving a name or gender change; an advance health care directive;

documentation of an appropriate course of treatment for the purpose of gender transition;

documentation of a change to the gender marker on a birth certificate; or a state or federally

issued identification card, or any additional document as authorized by the Rhode Island

department of health. If more than one document is presented and the documents are in conflict

regarding the decedent's gender identity, the most recent document that memorializes the

decedent's gender transition shall prevail. If documentation is not available, it shall be based on

information from individuals most familiar with the decedent's gender identity at the time of

death.

     (c) A physician, after the death of a person whom he or she has attended during his or her

last illness, or the physician declaring that person dead, or if the death occurred in a hospital, a

registered hospital medical officer duly appointed by the hospital director or administrator, shall

immediately furnish for registration a standard certificate of death to a funeral director or other

authorized person or any member of the family of the deceased, stating to the best of his or her

knowledge and belief the name of the deceased,; the disease of which he or she died,; where it

was contracted,; the duration of the illness from which he or she died,; when last seen alive by the

physician, or, if death occurs in a hospital, when last seen alive by a physician; and the date of

death.

     (d) When death occurred without medical attendance as set forth in subsection (c) or

when inquiry is required by chapter 4 of this title, the medical examiner shall investigate the

cause of death and shall complete and sign the medical certification within forty-eight (48) hours

after taking charge of the case.


 

173)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-4-1

82 and 92

 

 

23-4-1. Definitions.

     (a) "Assistant medical examiner" means a duly licensed doctor of medicine or osteopathy

appointed to assist the office of state medical examiners on a part-time basis.

     (b) "Autopsy" means the dissection of a dead body and the removal and examination of

bone, tissue, organs, and foreign objects for the purpose of determining the condition of the body

and the cause and the manner of the death.

     (c) "Cause of death" means the agent that has directly or indirectly resulted in a death.

     (d) "Inquest" means an official judicial inquiry before a medical examiner and/or medical

examiners jury for the purpose of determining the manner of death.

     (e) "Manner of death" means the means or fatal agency that caused a death.

     (f) "Postmortem examination" means examination after death and includes an

examination of the dead body and surroundings by an agent of the office of state medical

examiners but does not include dissection of the body for any purpose.

     (g) "Work product" means preliminary drafts, notes, impressions, memoranda, working

papers, and similar documents of a governmental entity, whether in electronic or other format.


 

174)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-4-3

82 and 92

 

 

23-4-3. Functions.

     The office of state medical examiners shall be responsible for:

     (1) The investigation of deaths within the state that, in its judgment, might reasonably be

expected to involve causes of death enumerated in this chapter;

     (2) For the conduct of inquests when requested by the attorney general;

     (3) For the performance of autopsies, including the retention, examination, and

appropriate disposal of tissue, when appropriate, for deaths that, in its judgment, might

reasonably be expected to involve causes of deaths enumerated in this chapter;

     (4) For the written determination of the causes of death investigated pursuant to this

chapter;

     (5) For the presentation to the courts of Rhode Island of expert testimony relating to the

cause of death;

     (6) For the keeping of complete records, including names, places, circumstances, and

causes of deaths, of deaths investigated and reported, copies of which shall be delivered to the

attorney general and of which written determinations of causes of death shall be made available

for public inspection;

     (7) For the burial of bodies for which there is no other existing legal responsibility to do

so;

     (8) For the development and enforcement of procedures for the pronouncement of death

and for the transplantation of organs from bodies of persons who have died within the state;

     (9) For a multi-disciplinary team review of child fatalities with the goal to decrease the

prevalence of preventable child deaths and report recommendations for community- and systems-

intervention strategies. A child death-review team shall include, but is not limited to,

representation from state agencies, health care, child welfare, and law enforcement; and

     (10) The department shall work with the department of children, youth and families and

the office of the child advocate to develop a process to ensure the timely availability of autopsy

reports on child deaths; and

     (11)(i) For a multi-disciplinary team review of drug-related overdose deaths with the goal

of reducing the prevalence of such these deaths by examining emerging trends in overdose,

identifying potential demographic, geographic, and structural points for prevention and other

factors. The multi-disciplinary team for review of drug-related overdose deaths may include, as

determined by the director, representatives from the department of health; the department of the

attorney general; the Rhode Island state police; the department of corrections; the department of

behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and hospitals; the Rhode Island Police Chiefs

Association; the Hospital Association of Rhode Island; an emergency department physician; a

primary care physician; an addiction medicine/treatment provider; a mental health clinician; a

toxicologist; a recovery coach or other representative of the recovery community; and others as

may be determined by the director; and

     (ii) The work product of the multi-disciplinary team for review of drug-related overdose

deaths shall be confidential and protected under all applicable laws, including the federal Health

Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 and the Rhode Island confidentiality of

health care information act (chapter 37.3 of title 5), and shall be exempt from the provisions of

chapter 2 of title 38, not subject to subpoena, discovery, or introduction into evidence in any civil

or criminal proceeding, and not subject to disclosure beyond such the team members (except to

authorized employees of the department of health as necessary to perform official duties of the

department pursuant to � 23-4-3(11)) this subsection (11).

     (iii) The multidisciplinary team shall report on or before December 1 of each year to the

governor, the speaker of the house, and president of the senate, which report shall summarize the

activities of the team, as well as the team's findings, progress towards reaching its goals, and

recommendations for any needed changes in legislation or otherwise.

     (iv) The provisions of � 23-4-3 subsection (11)(i) shall sunset and be repealed effective

December 31, 2020.


 

175)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

23-4-3.1

82 and 92

 

 

23-4-3.1. Immunity.

     No member of the multi-disciplinary team for review of drug-related overdose deaths

shall be subject to arrest, prosecution, or penalty in any manner, or denied any right or privilege,

including, but not limited to, civil penalty or disciplinary action by a business, occupational, or

professional licensing board or entity (and, for members who are state employees, termination,

loss of employee or pension benefits), for acting in accordance with � 23-4-3.


 

 

 

 

 

 

176)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-4.6-1

132 and 251

 

 

23-4.6-1. Consent to medical and surgical care.

     (a) Any person of the age of sixteen (16) or over or married may consent to routine,

emergency, medical or surgical care. A minor parent may consent to treatment of his or her child.

     (b) In addition to the provisions of subsection (a) of this section, any person, including,

but not limited to, a minor who is pregnant, may give effective consent for medical, dental,

health, and hospital services relating to prenatal, delivery, and post-delivery care. The attending

physician shall comply with � 40-11-3. Consent shall not be given pursuant to this subsection for

abortion or sterilization.


 

177)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

23-17-49.1

18 and 25

 

 

23-17-49.1. Workplace and patient safety - evacuation of surgical smoke plume

required in operating rooms.

     (a) As used in this section, the following definitions shall apply:

      (1) "Smoke-evacuation system" means smoke evacuators, laser plume evacuators, or

local exhaust ventilators that capture and neutralize plume at the site of origin and before plume

can make ocular contact or contact with the respiratory tract of employees.

     (2) "Surgical smoke" means the by-product of use of energy-generating devices,

including surgical plume, smoke plume, bio-aerosols, laser-generated airborne contaminants, and

lung-damaging dust.

     (b) In order to protect patient and health workers from the hazards of surgical smoke,

each hospital and freestanding ambulatory surgical facility licensed in the state of Rhode Island

pursuant to this chapter shall adopt policies to ensure the elimination of surgical smoke by use of

a smoke-evacuation system for each procedure that generates surgical smoke from the use of

energy-based devices such as, but not limited to, electrosurgery and lasers.

     (c) Each hospital and freestanding ambulatory surgical center shall report to the

department of health within ninety days (90) of the effective date of this act that policies pursuant

to this section have been adopted.


 

178)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

23-17-64

158 and 206

 

 

23-17-64. Influenza immunization.

     Between October 1 and March 1 of each year, each hospital shall offer, prior to

discharge, immunizations against influenza virus to all inpatients sixty-five (65) years of age and

older, unless contraindicated, and contingent upon the availability of the vaccine, in accordance

with the latest recommendations of the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices of the

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.


 

 

 

 

 

 

179)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

23-17.14-14

190 and 284

 

 

23-17.14-14. Investigations -- Notice to attend -- Court order to appear -- Contempt.

     (a) The director or the attorney general may shall conduct investigations in discharging

the duties required under this chapter. For purposes of this investigation, the director or the

attorney general may require any person, agent, trustee, fiduciary, consultant, institution,

association, or corporation directly related to the proposed conversion to appear at any time and

place that the director or the attorney general may shall designate, then and there under oath and

conducted with a stenographic record to produce for the use of the director and/or the attorney

general any and all documents and any other information relating directly to the proposed

conversion that the director or the attorney general may require, including, but not limited to,

interviews, testimony, or statements.

     (b) Whenever the director or the attorney general may require the attendance of any

person as provided in subsection (a), the director and/or the attorney general shall issue a notice

setting the time and place when the attendance is required and shall cause the notice to be

delivered or sent by registered or certified mail to the person at least fourteen (14) days before the

date fixed in the notice for the attendance.

     (c) If any person receiving notice pursuant to this provision neglects to attend or remain

in attendance so long as may be necessary for the purposes which that the notice was issued, or

refuses to produce information requested, any justice of the superior court for the county within

which the inquiry is carried on or within which the person resides or transacts business, upon

application by the director, the attorney general, or any transacting party shall have jurisdiction to

hear and consider on an expedited basis the request, and if appropriate and relevant to the

consideration of proposed conversion, may issue to the person an order requiring the person to

appear before the director or the attorney general there to produce for the use of the director or the

attorney general evidence in accordance with the terms of the order of the court, and any failure

to obey the order of the superior court may be punished by the court as contempt of court.


 

180)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

23-17.14-35

62 and 63

 

 

23-17.14-35. Court-approved settlements.

     The following provisions apply solely and exclusively to judicially approved good-faith

settlements of claims relating to the St. Joseph Health Services of Rhode Island Retirement Plan

retirement plan, also sometimes known as the St. Joseph Health Services of Rhode Island

pension plan:

     (1) A release by a claimant of one joint tortfeasor, whether before or after judgment, does

not discharge the other joint tortfeasors unless the release so provides, but such the release shall

reduce the claim against the other joint tortfeasors in the amount of the consideration paid for the

release.

     (2) A release by a claimant of one joint tortfeasor relieves them from liability to make

contribution to another joint tortfeasor.

     (3) For purposes of this section, a good-faith settlement is one that does not exhibit

collusion, fraud, dishonesty, or other wrongful or tortious conduct intended to prejudice the non-

settling tortfeasor(s), irrespective of the settling or non-settling tortfeasors' proportionate share of

liability.


 

181)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

23-18.3-6

217 and 271

 

 

23-18.3-6. Marking of governors' graves.

     (a) The commission is authorized and directed to continue the program previously

conducted by the Rhode Island graves registration committee of placing a bronze plaque bearing

the name and dates of service of each deceased former governor together with the national and

state flags on the grave of each such governor.

     (b) It is also authorized by the general assembly that the department of administration

shall administer the funding for the plaque.


 

182)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-18.9-8

54 and 61

 

 

23-18.9-8. Licenses.

     (a) (1) No person shall operate any solid waste management facility or construction and

demolition (C&D) debris processing facility or expand an existing facility unless a license is

obtained from the director except as authorized by � 23-18.9-8 this section. The director shall

have full power to make all rules and regulations establishing standards to be met for the issuance

of the licenses with those standards affording great weight to the detrimental impact that the

placement of such a facility shall have on its surrounding communities.

     (2) The director shall promulgate rules and regulations governing the uses and content of

materials accepted and generated by a construction and demolition debris processing facility. Any

costs associated with testing these materials by the facility or by the department to verify the

results of the facility's tests shall be borne by the facility. Each facility shall be required to

establish a fund with the department to cover the cost of these tests.

     (b) Any person who desires to construct a solid waste management facility or install any

equipment in a solid waste management facility must first submit to the director for approval

plans and specifications and other related data required by the director.

     (c) No construction and demolition debris processing facility shall be issued a license or

be able to operate unless it has:

     (1) Received a letter of compliance from the host municipality that all applicable zoning

requirements and local ordinances of the host municipality have been complied with.;

     (2) Submitted a fire protection plan that has been approved by the local fire chief, or his

or her designee, in which the facility is located; and

     (3) For the purposes of this subsection, the letter of compliance from the host

municipality shall issue from either:

     (i) The town or city manager with town or city council approval in a municipality with a

managerial form of government; or

     (ii) The elected mayor with town or city council approval in a municipality with a non-

managerial from of government.

     (4) If, after thirty (30) days of receipt of a written request to the city or town by the

applicant for a license requesting a letter of compliance, the letter of compliance is not issued

because the host municipality finds that the requirements of the applicable zoning requirements or

other ordinances have not been met, a letter of non-compliance must be issued setting forth the

particular requirements that have not been met. If, after a license is issued, the host community

finds that all applicable zoning or other applicable ordinances are no longer complied with, they

are authorized to issue a non-compliance letter.

     (5) Upon issuance of a letter of non-compliance, the applicant for a license shall have all

rights of appeal under the provisions of chapter 24 of title 45 as to zoning issues and any other

rights to appeal that may be applicable as to the determination of non-compliance with other

ordinances.

     (i) In the case of an application or renewal of an existing license for an increase in the

acceptance and processing of the amount of (C&D) debris per day, the letter of non-compliance

shall stay the issuance of the license allowing said the increase until the appeal process provided

for herein is final.

     (ii) In the case of an application or renewal of an existing license that does not request an

increase in the acceptance and/or processing of the amount of (C&D) debris per day where the

applicant for renewal has timely filed an appeal as contained herein, the letter of non-compliance

shall not be used as grounds for denial of the approval of the renewable license; however, if, upon

final determination by a zoning board or court of competent jurisdiction upon appeal, it is found

that the facility is in non-compliance, the license shall be revoked by the director.

     (d) The local fire chief, or his or her designee, is authorized to conduct random,

unannounced inspections of facilities licensed under this section to ensure continued compliance

with the approved fire protection plan. If any facility at the time of inspection is found not to be in

compliance with the approved plan, that facility shall immediately cease operation until the time

that it corrects any deficiency and the local fire chief, or his or her designee, finds the facility is in

compliance with the approved fire protection plan.

     (e) Any facility that is found to be in violation of the fire protection plan under this

section on three (3) separate inspections, within any three-year (3) time period, shall have its

license to operate under this section revoked.

     (f) A municipality that desires to evaluate available technologies, equipment, or

methodologies for managing solid waste may request approval from the director to perform a

limited demonstration pilot project prior to submission of an application for a license.

Demonstration projects shall not exceed fifty (50) tons per day maximum capacity. The

municipality must first submit to the director, for approval, plans and specifications, including

fire protection plans and other related data as required by the director. The municipality shall also

give public notice of the request and allow a thirty-day (30) period for the director to receive

public comment on the proposed project. After the close of the public comment period, the

director is authorized to approve or deny the request. Approval for a demonstration pilot project

shall be granted for a period not exceeding six (6) months.

     (g) Any facility that is licensed or registered by the department under this chapter as of

July 1, 2006, that accepts greater than three (3) cubic yards of tree waste as defined by � 23-18.9-

7(14), shall be considered an existing tree waste management facility. Existing tree waste

management facilities shall notify the department and the local fire chief of the existence and

scope of their tree waste management activities in writing no later than August 30, 2006, and

shall incorporate tree waste management activities in a revised operating plan as part of the next

renewal of their license or registration.

     (h) Any construction and demolition (C&D) debris processing facility under this section

that is within a one thousand feet (1000') radius of a residential zone district shall conduct all

operations covered under the license inside the confines of an enclosed, permanent building.

     (i) Granting of a license, license renewal, or permission for an equipment addition under

this section shall in no way affect the applicant's responsibility to comply with all zoning and

other local ordinances, nor the applicant's responsibility to obtain any local permits, except as

specifically provided by Rhode Island General Law. When multiple uses are in place on a site

with a licensed solid waste facility, the terms and conditions of the license are only applicable to

the activities and operations subject to the license and not the other uses of the property.


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

183)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-18.9-9

54 and 61

 

 

23-18.9-9. Application, approval and fees for licenses.

     (a) (1) Any person who desires to construct and/or operate a solid waste management

facility or expand an existing facility shall apply to the director for all licenses and/or permits to

do so; provided, however, that the application shall state all licenses and/or permits for which

application is made. Any person who desires to construct and/or operate a private solid waste

disposal facility shall submit to the director simultaneously with the application a certificate of

final determination from the municipality in which it is proposed to site the facility that the site

conforms with all applicable local land use and control ordinances or on appeal a final judgment

of a court that the proposed site for the facility conforms with all applicable land use and control

ordinances of the municipality. The applicant shall also submit simultaneously with the

application a certificate of approval of the proposed site issued by the state planning council,

except for statutorily mandated facilities. The council shall only approve a site after great weight

has been afforded to the detrimental impact that the placement of such a facility shall have on its

surrounding communities and only after evaluation of alternative sites and assessment of

comparative environmental impact at the sites in accordance with law and state planning council

rules, and in the absence of these, the council shall promulgate rules for the evaluation and/or

assessment, and distribution of location of sites for waste facilities among the regions of this

state. The council shall not issue its certificate prior to the publication of public notice and the

expiration of the public comment period regarding the proposed site. The director shall review

and decide all applications.

     (2) (i) Notwithstanding the provisions of � 42-35-14 to the contrary, the director shall

immediately review the application and shall give public notice of the intention to issue a draft

license or the intention to deny the application.

     (ii) The draft license and/or tentative denial, including all supporting documentation,

shall be made available for public comment.

     (3) Within fifteen (15) days of the date of the public notice to issue the draft license, the

director shall hold an informational workshop. The purpose of the informational workshop shall

be to discuss the type of facility or activity which that is the subject of the draft license; the type

and quantity of wastes, which that are proposed to be managed, processed, and/or disposed; a

brief summary for the basis for the draft license; conditions, including references to applicable

statutory or regulatory provisions; reasons why any requested variances or alternatives to required

standards do or do not appear justified; a description of the procedures for reaching a final

decision on the draft license, which shall include the beginning and ending dates for the comment

period hereafter, the address where comments will be received, procedures for requesting a

hearing and the nature of that hearing, any other procedures by which the public may participate

in the final decision;, and the name and telephone number of a person to contact for further

information.

     (4) No earlier than sixty (60) days nor later than seventy-five (75) days following the

initial public notice of the issuance of the draft license or tentative denial, a hearing shall be held

for public comment. Comments from the applicant and/or any interested persons shall be

recorded at the public hearing. Written comments, which shall be considered part of the record,

may be submitted for thirty (30) days following the close of the public comment hearing.

     (5) Within ninety (90) days of the close of the public comment period, the director shall

issue the license or the final denial. The license or the final denial shall be in writing and shall

include a response to each substantive public comment. In the event that the director shall fail to

issue the license or final denial within the ninety-(90) day (90) period, then the applicant may

petition the superior court to issue its writ of mandamus ordering the director or some suitable

person to immediately issue the license or denial. Any person refusing to obey the writ of

mandamus shall be subject to penalties for contempt of court. The writ of mandamus shall be the

exclusive remedy for failure of the director to comply under this section.

     (6) The applicant, and/or any person who provided substantive comment at any time

during the public comment period, may appeal the decision of the director; provided, however,

any person who shall demonstrate good cause for failure to so participate and demonstrate that his

or her interests shall be substantially impacted if prohibited from appearance in the appeal, may,

in the discretion of the hearing officer, be permitted to participate in the appeal process.

     (7) The appeal shall be limited to those issues raised by the parties; provided, however,

that upon good cause shown, the director shall allow additional issues to be raised.

     (8) All appeals shall be pursuant to the rules and regulations established by the director

and the rules and regulations established by the administrative adjudication division of the

department of environmental management; provided, however, that all appeals shall contain

precise statements of the issues presented on appeal and the specific part or parts of the decision

of the director that are challenged.

     (9) All appeals shall be heard before administrative adjudication hearing officers. All

hearings shall be evidentiary hearings. All witnesses shall testify under oath and shall be subject

to cross-examination.

     (10) The hearing officer shall determine and apportion to the applicant the actual costs of

the appeal process, exclusive of attorneys' fees. These costs shall not be considered administrative

penalties.

     (b) The director shall publish a schedule of fees to be paid to file an application for a

license. These fees shall be reasonable and shall account for the size and complexity of the

proposed project and any other criteria as the director may determine; provided, however, that no

application fee shall exceed one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000).

     (c) Licenses shall expire three (3) years from the date of issuance unless sooner

suspended or revoked. The provisions in this section for issuance of a license shall not apply to

the renewal of a license and any facility shall be relicensed if it meets the criteria in effect when

the facility was licensed; provided, however, that any renewal application which that

substantially deviates from the use or purpose of the license shall be subject to the provisions of

this chapter and further provided that any facility shall be relicensed if it meets the criteria in

effect when the facility was licensed. The director is authorized to promulgate by regulation

procedures for license renewals. The director shall publish a schedule of fees to be paid to renew

a license. These fees shall be reasonable and shall account for the size and complexity of the

project, and costs incurred to monitor the project, and any other criteria that the director may

determine; provided, however, that no renewal license fees shall exceed one hundred thousand

dollars ($100,000). All licensed solid waste disposal facilities shall be deemed to comply with all

local ordinances.

     (d) All application fees and license fees shall be directed to the department of

environmental management and shall be held in a separate account and appropriated for review of

applications, renewals of, and compliance with, licenses.

     (e) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section or any other provision of law to the

contrary, cities and towns which that own and operate landfills shall be exempt from any

application fees relative to applications it files to expand its existing landfill.


 

184)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-19-13.6

12 and 20

 

 

23-19-13.6. Cover materials not permitted.

     (a) No resource recovery system or facility made available by the corporation shall use

the following as material to cover compacted solid waste at a sanitary landfill:

     (1) Construction and demolition debris, whole, shredded, or pulverized, including, wood

(including painted, treated, and coated wood and wood products), land-clearing debris, wall

coverings, plaster, drywall, plumbing fixtures, non-asbestos insulation, roofing shingles, and

other roof coverings, and glass; or

     (2) Organic materials, including materials that contain carbon-to-carbon bonds and are

bio-degradable biodegradable, such as paper, wood, food waste, leaves, and yard waste. Organic

materials may be used only as a final landfill cover with approval of the department of

environmental management.

     (b) Any facility violating the provisions of this section shall be fined not less than two

thousand five hundred dollars ($2,500), nor more than five thousand dollars ($5,000). The fine

shall be paid to the city or town in which the facility is located.


 

185)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-20.8-5

176 and 289

 

 

23-20.8-5. Application for license � Issuance or denial of license � Minimum

qualifications.

     (a) Every person desiring to begin the practice of massage therapy, except exempt

persons as provided in this chapter, shall present satisfactory evidence to the division of

professional regulation of the department of health, verified by oath, that he or she is:

     (1) Over eighteen (18) years of age; (2) Of good moral character (via background check

in accordance with � 23-20.8-3); (3) Has successfully completed an educational program, meeting

minimum requirements established by the board, including at least five hundred (500) hours of

in-class, hands-on and supervised coursework and clinical work; and

     (4) Has successfully completed an examination approved by the board. Any examination

approved by the board must meet generally recognized standards including development through

the use of a job-task analysis and must meet appropriate psychometric standards.

     (b) The department may grant a license to any applicant satisfying the requirements of

subdivisions 23-20.8-subsections 5(a)(1) and (2)(a)(2), has completed all appropriate forms, paid

all appropriate fees and has met substantially equivalent standards in obtaining a valid license,

permit, certificate or registration issued by any other state or territory of the United States or by a

foreign country.

     (c) The department shall, within sixty (60) days from the time any application for a

license is received, grant the applications and issue a license to practice massage for a year from

that date if the department is satisfied that the applicant complies with the rules and regulations

promulgated in accordance with this chapter. An applicant, whose criminal records check reveals

a conviction for any sexual offense, including, but not limited to, those offenses defined in

chapters 34 and 37 of title 11, shall be denied a license under this chapter.

     (d) The fee for original application for licensure as a massage therapist and the fee for

annual license renewal shall be determined by the board and shall not exceed one hundred dollars

($100).


 

186)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-20.10-2

207 and 222

 

 

23-20.10-2. Definitions.

     The following words and phrases, whenever used in this chapter, shall be construed as

defined in this section:

     (1) "Assisted-living residence" means a residence that provides personal assistance and

meals to adults in accordance with chapter 17.4 of this title.

     (2) "Bar" means an establishment that is devoted to the serving of alcoholic beverages for

consumption by guests on the premises and in which the serving of food is only incidental to the

consumption of those beverages, including, but not limited to, taverns, nightclubs, cocktail

lounges, and cabarets.

     (3) "Business" means a sole proprietorship, partnership, joint venture, corporation, or

other business entity formed for profit-making purposes, including retail establishments where

goods or services are sold as well as professional corporations and other entities where legal,

medial medical, dental, engineering, architectural, or other professional services are delivered.

     (13)(4) �Principal or core business� means a business whose majority of customers are

utilizing electronic nicotine delivery systems during normal business hours.

     (4)(5) "Electronic nicotine delivery system" means an electronic device that may be used

to simulate smoking in the delivery of nicotine or other substance to a person inhaling from the

device, and includes, but is not limited to, an electronic cigarette, electronic cigar, electronic

cigarillo, electronic pipe, or electronic hookah and any related device and any cartridge or other

component of such that device.

     (5)(6) �Electronic nicotine delivery system store� means a retail store, excluding mall

kiosks, utilized primarily for the sale of electronic nicotine delivery system products and

accessories.

     (6)(7) "Electronic smoking device establishment" means any business which that sells

food or alcohol and for which the principal or core business is selling electronic nicotine delivery

system devices and where combustible substances are prohibited.

     (i) Effective July l, 2018, all establishments that open thereafter must demonstrate

quarterly, for a period of one year and annually thereafter, that the annual revenue generated from

the serving of electronic nicotine delivery system devices is thirty-three percent (33%) or more of

the total revenue for the establishment. Every such owner of an electronic smoking device

establishment shall register no later than January 1 of each year with the division of taxation and

shall provide, at a minimum, the owner's name and address and the name and address of the

electronic smoking device establishment. The division of taxation in the department of

administration shall be responsible for the determination under this section and shall promulgate

any rules or forms necessary for the implementation of this section. The division of taxation in

the department of administration shall be responsible for the determination under this section and

shall promulgate any rules or forms necessary for the implementation of this section.

     (7)(4)(8) "Employee" means a person who is employed by an employer in consideration

for direct or indirect monetary wages or profit and a person who volunteers his or her services for

a nonprofit entity.

     (8)(5)(9) "Employer" means a person, business, partnership, association, corporation,

including a municipal corporation, trust, or nonprofit entity that employs the services of one or

more individual persons.

     (9)(6)(10) "Enclosed area" means all space between a floor and ceiling that is enclosed on

all sides by solid walls or windows (exclusive of doorways) that extend from the floor to the

ceiling.

     (10)(7)(11) "Health-care facility" means an office or institution providing care or

treatment of diseases, whether physical, mental, emotional, or other medical, physiological, or

psychological conditions, including, but not limited to, hospitals, rehabilitation hospitals or other

clinics, including weight control clinics, nursing homes, homes for the aging or chronically ill,

laboratories, and offices of surgeons, chiropractors, physical therapists, physicians, dentists, and

all specialists within these professions. This definition shall include all waiting rooms, hallways,

private rooms, semi-private rooms, and wards within health-care facilities.

     (8)(12) "Place of employment" means an area under the control of a public or private

employer that employees normally frequent during the course of employment, including, but not

limited to, work areas, employees lounges, restrooms, conference rooms, meeting rooms,

classrooms, employee cafeterias, and hallways. Vehicles owned by a public or private employer

are covered under this definition provided that the vehicle is used by more than one person. A

private residence is not a "place of employment" unless it is used as a child-care, adult day-care,

or health-care facility.

     (14)(9)(13) "Public place" means an enclosed area to which the public is invited or in

which the public is permitted, including, but not limited to, banks, bars, educational facilities,

health- care facilities, laundromats, public transportation facilities, reception areas, restaurants,

retail food production and marketing establishments, retail service establishments, retail stores,

shopping malls, sports arenas, the state house, theaters, and waiting rooms. A private residence is

not a "public place" unless it is used as a child-care, adult day-care, or health-care facility.

     (15)(10)(14) "Restaurant" means an eating establishment, including, but not limited to,

coffee shops, cafeterias, and private and public school cafeterias, that gives or offers for sale food

to the public, guests, or employees, as well as kitchens and catering facilities in which food is

prepared on the premises for serving elsewhere. The term "restaurant" shall include a bar area

within the restaurant.

     (16)(11)(15) "Retail tobacco store" means a retail store utilized primarily for the sale of

tobacco, electronic cigarette products and accessories, or electronic nicotine delivery system

products in which the total annual revenues generated by the sale of other products are no greater

than twenty-five percent (25%) of the total revenue for the establishment. The division of taxation

shall be responsible for the determination under this section and shall promulgate any rules or

forms necessary for the implementation of this section.

     (17)(12)(16) "Service line" means an indoor line in which one or more persons are

waiting for or receiving service of any kind, whether or not the service involves the exchange of

money.

     (18)(13)(17) "Shopping mall" means an enclosed public walkway or hall area that serves

to connect retail or professional establishments.

     (19)(14)(18) "Smoking" or "smoke" means inhaling, exhaling, burning, or carrying any

lighted or heated cigar, cigarette, pipe, weed, plant, other tobacco product or plant product, or

other combustible substance in any manner or in any form intended for inhalation in any manner

or form. "Smoking" or "smoke" also includes the use of electronic cigarettes, electronic cigars,

electronic pipes, electronic nicotine delivery system products, or other similar products that rely

on vaporization or aerosolization; provided, however, that smoking shall not include burning

during a religious ceremony.

     (20)(15)(19) (a)(i) "Smoking bar" means an establishment whose business is primarily

devoted to the serving of tobacco products for consumption on the premises, in which the annual

revenues generated by tobacco sales are greater than fifty percent (50%) of the total revenue for

the establishment and the serving of food or alcohol is only incidental to the consumption of such

the tobacco products. Effective July 1, 2015, all existing establishments and establishments that

open thereafter must demonstrate quarterly, for a period of one year and annually thereafter, that

the annual revenue generated from the serving of tobacco products is greater than fifty percent

(50%) of the total revenue for the establishment, and the serving of food, alcohol, or beverages is

only incidental to the consumption of such the tobacco products. Every owner of a smoking bar

shall register no later than January 1 of each year with the division of taxation and shall provide,

at a minimum, the owner's name and address and the name and address of the smoking bar. The

division of taxation in the department of administration shall be responsible for the determination

under this section and shall promulgate any rules or forms necessary for the implementation of

this section. The division of taxation in the department of administration shall be responsible for

the determination under this section and shall promulgate any rules or forms necessary for the

implementation of this section.

     (b)(ii) Smoking bars shall only allow consumption of food and beverages sold by the

establishment on the premises and the establishment shall have public access only from the street.

     (c)(iii) Any smoking bar, as defined herein, is required to provide a proper ventilation

system that will prevent the migration of smoke into the street.

     (21)(16)(20) "Sports arena" means sports pavilions, stadiums, (indoor or outdoor)

organized sports fields, gymnasiums, health spas, boxing arenas, swimming pools, roller and ice

rinks, bowling alleys, and other similar places where members of the general public assemble to

engage in physical exercise, participate in athletic competition, or witness sports or other events.

     (11)(17)(21) "Legislature" means the general assembly of the state of Rhode Island.


 

 

187)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-20.10-6

207 and 222

 

 

23-20.10-6. Where smoking not regulated.

     (a) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter to the contrary, the following

areas shall be exempt from the provisions of this chapter:

     (1) Private residences, except when used as a licensed child-care, adult day-care or

health-care facility;

     (2) Hotel and motel rooms that are rented to guests and are designated as smoking rooms;

provided, however, that not more than fifty percent (50%) of rooms rented to guests in a hotel or

motel may be so designated;

     (3) Retail tobacco stores; provided that smoke from these places does not infiltrate into

areas where smoking is prohibited under the provisions of this chapter;

     (4) Private and semi-private rooms or designated areas in assisted-living residences and

nursing facilities as allowed by regulation of the department of health under chapters 17.4 and 17

of this title;

     (5) Outdoor areas of places of employment, except those covered by the provisions of

�23-20.10-5;

     (6) Any smoking bar as defined in �23-20.10-2(15) � 23-20.10-2(19);

     (7) [Deleted by P.L. 2005, ch. 22, �1 and P.L. 2005, ch. 23, �1].

     (8) [Deleted by P.L. 2005, ch. 22, �1 and P.L. 2005, ch. 23, �1].

     (9) Any electronic nicotine delivery system store as defined in � 23-20.10-2(6) and any

electronic smoking device establishment as defined in) � 23-20.10-2 (7).

     (b) The provisions of this chapter shall not apply to any stage performance provided that

smoking is part of a theatrical production.


 

188)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

23-68-4

77 and 88

 

 

23-68-4. Safety standards established.

     The director of the department of health shall, by regulation, establish minimum safety

standards for tanning facilities. The standards shall include, but not be limited to:

     (1) Establishment of a maximum safe time of exposure to radiation and a maximum safe

temperature at which tanning devices may be operated;

     (2) A requirement that a timer device be incorporated into each tanning device;

     (3) A requirement that a patron at a tanning facility wear protective eye glasses when

using tanning equipment and that a patron be supervised as to the length of time the patron uses

tanning equipment at the facility;

     (4) Requiring that the facility operator post easily legible, permanent warning signs near

the tanning equipment which states that state: "Danger -- Ultra-violet radiation. Follow all

instructions. Avoid overexposure"; as well as a list, prepared by the director of the department of

health, of prescription and non-prescription drugs which that may cause photosensitivity in

patients using a tanning center;

     (5) Require that the facility have protective shielding for tanning equipment in the

facility; and

     (6) A prohibition on the use of tanning facilities by a person younger than eighteen (18)

years of age, unless:.

     (a) Such person presents a prescription for receiving ultra-violet radiation treatments

written by a physician licensed to practice medicine pursuant to chapter 5-37; or

     (b) For every two (2) uses of a tanning facility, the parent or legal guardian of such

person signs a written consent form in the presence of a tanning facility staff member. The

written consent form shall contain, at a minimum, the following language: "I understand that the

world health organization has classified the ultraviolet radiation used in tanning facilities as a

Class 1 carcinogen, the same category as tobacco products. By exposing my child to ultraviolet

radiation in this tanning facility, the possibility of my child developing melanoma (skin cancer)

will increase. I also understand that there are safe alternatives available to achieve the same

cosmetic effect as exposing my child's skin to ultraviolet radiation, such as spray tanning or

bronzing creams."


 

189)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

25-2-59

136 and 285

 

 

25-2-59. Historical Cemetery Restoration/Awareness Day.

     The second Saturday in the month of April shall annually be set apart as a day to be

known as "Historical Cemetery Restoration/Awareness Day." The day shall be observed by the

people of this state with appropriate ceremonies and activities that raise awareness of the many

historical cemeteries in our state.


 

190)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

27-4-10.1

126 and 196

 

 

27-4.10-1. Definitions.

     (a) As used in this chapter, the term:

     (1) "Agent" means a person who is the agent of record of a policy or who has a business

relationship with the policyholder or insured.

     (2) "Commissioner" means the director of the department of business regulation and any

assistant to the director.

     (3) "Insured" means an individual who is covered by a policy.

     (4) "Insurer" means the insurance company that issued or currently insures the policy.

     (5) "Policy" means an individual life insurance policy owned by an individual who is a

resident of this state, regardless of whether such the policy has been issued, delivered, or renewed

in this state.



 

191)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

27-4.10-2

126 and 196

 

 

27-4.10-2. Notice.

     (a) The commissioner shall develop, and post on its website, a written notice to inform a

policyholder of alternatives to the lapse or surrender of a policy, and of the policyholder's rights,

as an owner of the policy, which that are related to the disposition of a policy. The notice must be

developed at no cost to insurers, agents, or other licensees and must be written in lay terms.

     (b) The written notice must contain all of the following:

     (1) A statement explaining that life insurance is a critical part of a broader financial plan.;

     (2) A statement explaining that there are alternatives to the lapse or surrender of a

policy.;

     (3) A general description of the following alternatives to the lapse or surrender of a

policy:

     (i) Accelerated death benefits available under the policy or as a rider to the policy;

     (ii) The assignment of the policy as a gift;

     (iii) The sale and assignment of the policy pursuant to a life settlement contract, including

that a life settlement is a regulated transaction in this state pursuant to chapter 72 of title 27;

     (iv) The replacement of the policy;

     (v) The maintenance of the policy pursuant to the terms of the policy or a rider to the

policy, or through a life settlement contract;

     (vi) The maintenance of the policy through loans issued by an insurer or a third party,

using the policy or the cash surrender value of the policy as collateral for the loan;

     (vii) Conversion of the policy from a term policy to a permanent policy;

     (viii) Conversion of the policy in order to obtain long-term-care health insurance

coverage or a long-term-care benefit plan; and

     (4) A statement explaining that life insurance, life settlements, or other alternatives to the

lapse or surrender of the policy described in the notice may not be available to a particular

policyholder depending on a number of circumstances, including the age and health status of the

insured or the terms of a life insurance policy, and that the policyholder should contact their his

or her financial advisor, insurance agent, broker, or attorney to obtain further advice and

assistance.

     (c) An insurer, an agent, or an insurer and its agent must advise a policyholder with the

annual benefit statement or otherwise that policy holders policyholders considering making

changes in the status of the policy should consult a licensed insurance agent or financial advisor

and that important information related to policy options, including information about an

accelerated death benefit, nursing home benefit, critical illness benefit, and additional benefits

may be found on the department of business regulation (DBR) website.


 

192)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

27-5-3.9

78 and 100

 

 

27-5-3.9. Vacant property.

     No residential property insurance policy shall exclude coverage for vandalism or

malicious mischief unless the dwelling has been vacant for more than sixty (60) consecutive days

immediately before the loss.


 

193)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-10.2-1

298 and 321

 

 

27-10.2-1. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter:

     (1) "Aftermarket part" means a motor vehicle body replacement part that is not an

original equipment manufacturer part; and

     (2) "Original equipment manufacturer part" or "OEM part" means a motor vehicle body

replacement part manufactured by the manufacturer of the motor vehicle being repaired.


 

 

 

 

 

194)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-10.2-2

298 and 321

 

 

27-10.2-2. Aftermarket parts -- Time limit prohibition.

     (a) Whenever an insurance company, in adjusting a first party claim for motor vehicle

physical damage, intends to specify the use of aftermarket parts, it shall notify the insured vehicle

owner in writing. Any auto body repair shop conducting business in the state of Rhode Island

shall not use non-original equipment manufactured (OEM) parts, also referred to as aftermarket

parts, in the repair of any person's automobile, without that person giving the repairer his or her

express written consent.

     (b) No insurance company may require the use of aftermarket parts when negotiating

repairs with any repairer unless the repairer has written consent from the vehicle owner to install

aftermarket parts. The provisions of this section shall apply only to automobiles which that are

less than thirty (30) forty-eight (48) months beyond the date of manufacture.

     (c) For any automobile which that is less than thirty (30) forty-eight (48) months beyond

the date of manufacture, the insurer and the auto body repairs shop must provide a written notice

to the vehicle owner that: (i) he He or she may require the insurer to pay for and the auto body

shop to install "original equipment manufacturer parts" or "OEM parts" in the repair of a motor

vehicle body replacement; or (ii) he He or she may require the insurer to pay for and the auto

body shop to install "non-original equipment manufacturer parts" (non-"OEM parts") in the repair

of a motor vehicle body replacement. To comply with this provision, written notice may be

provided on the appraisal written on behalf of the insurer and the estimate prepared by the auto

body repair shop.

     (d) When "OEM part(s)" are used in the repair of a motor vehicle, no insurance company

may require any repairer to use repair procedures that are not in compliance with the

recommendations of the original equipment manufacturer.

     (e) This chapter shall not apply to the repair or replacement of motor vehicle glass

performed by licensed motor vehicle glass repair shops pursuant to chapter 38.5 of title 5.


 

195)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-14.5-1

218 and 290

 

 

27-14.5-1. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter:

     (1) "Applicant" means a commercial run-off insurer applying under � 27-14.5-4.

     (2) "Assessment deficit" means the amount that the assessment for the previous year

under � 27-14.5-5 is less than, and "assessment surplus" is the amount that the assessment for the

previous year exceeds:

     (i) The run-off insurer's proportionate share of regulatory expenditure for the previous

year, if the run-off insurer was domiciled in Rhode Island on March 15 of the previous year; or

     (ii) The redomestication expenditure for the previous year attributable to the run-off

insurer, if the run-off insurer was not domiciled in Rhode Island on March 15 of the previous

year.

     (3) "Assumption policyholder" means a policyholder whose policy is reinsured under an

assumption reinsurance agreement between the applicant and a reinsurer.

     (4) "Assumption reinsurance agreement" has the meaning given in � 27-53.1-3(b),

subject to the following:

     (i) The agreement may be conditioned upon the court's entry of an implementation order.

     (ii) If any policy subject to the agreement is protected through a guarantee association,

then the assuming insurer must have been and be licensed, and must have been and be a member

of the guarantee association, in all states known to the applicant in which either: (A) any Any

property covered under the policy has a permanent situs; or (B) the The policyholder resided

while the policy was in force.

     (5) "Class of creditors" means:

     (i) All voting policyholders, including those without known claims;

     (ii) Voting creditors, other than policyholders; or

     (iii) Any separate class of creditors as the court may in its discretion determine should

approve the commutation plan.

     (6) "Commercial run-off insurer" means:

     (i) A run-off insurer domiciled in Rhode Island, or the protected cell of such the insurer,

whose business, excluding all business subject to an assumption reinsurance agreement, includes

only the reinsuring of any line(s) of business other than life and/or the insuring of any line(s) of

business other than life, workers' compensation, and personal lines insurance; or

     (ii) A Rhode Island domestic insurance company, or the protected cell of such that

insurer, meeting the requirements of subsection (i) hereof and formed or re-activated for the sole

purpose of entering into a voluntary restructuring under this chapter and whose liabilities consist

of commercial liabilities transferred to said company with the approval of the commissioners

commissioner and pursuant to the regulations issued by the department under this chapter. The

amount of the commercial liabilities transferred must be less than or equal to the amount of assets

transferred to the newly formed or re-activated company.

     (7) "Commissioner" means the director of the department.

     (8) "Commutation plan" means a plan for extinguishing the outstanding liabilities of a

commercial run-off insurer.

     (9) "Creditor" means:

     (i) Any person that who has a claim against the applicant; or

     (ii) A policyholder other than an assumption policyholder.

     (10) "Department" means the department of business regulation.

     (11) "Guarantee association" means a guarantee association or foreign guarantee

association, as those terms are defined in � 27-14.3-3(10), that is potentially obligated with

respect to the applicant's policies.

     (12) "Implementation order" means an order under � 27-14.5-4(c).

     (13) "Insurer" has the meaning given in � 27-14.3-3(12).

     (14) "Person" means an individual, corporation, partnership, association, joint stock

company, trust, unincorporated organization, or any similar entity or any combination of the

foregoing acting in concert.

     (15) "Personal lines insurance" means insurance issued for personal, family, or household

purposes.

     (16) "Policy" means a contract of insurance or a contract of reinsurance.

     (17) "Policyholder" means an insured or a reinsured of the insurer.

     (18) "Proportionate share" means, for a particular run-off insurer as of December 31 of

the previous year, the ratio of:

     (i) The gross assets of that run-off insurer; to

     (ii) The gross assets of all run-off insurers, other than those that were not domiciled in

Rhode Island on March 15 of that calendar year.

     (19) "Redomestication expenditure" means, for any calendar year:

     (i) The amount that the department's expenditures attributable to the regulation of run-off

insurers increases as a result of any run-off insurer redomiciling to Rhode Island on or after

March 15 of that year; less

     (ii) Filing fees, examination costs, and any other fees in relation to insurance regulation in

this state paid to this state by run-off insurers that redomiciled to Rhode Island on or after March

15 of that year, but excluding any premium taxes.

     (20) "Regulatory expenditure" means, for any calendar year:

     (i) The amount of the department's expenditures attributable to the regulation of run-off

insurers domiciled in Rhode Island on March 15 of that year; less

     (ii) Filing fees, examination costs, and any other fees in relation to insurance regulation in

this state paid to this state by run-off insurers domiciled in Rhode Island on March 15 of that

year, but excluding any premium taxes.

     (21) "Run-off insurer" means an insurer that:

     (i) Is domiciled in Rhode Island;

     (ii) Has liabilities under policies for property and casualty lines of business;

     (iii) Has ceased underwriting new business; and

     (iv) Is only renewing ongoing business to the extent required by law or by contract.

     (22) "Voluntary restructuring" means the act of reorganizing the legal ownership,

operational, governance, or other structures of a solvent insurer, for the purpose of enhancing

organization and maximizing efficiencies, and shall include the transfer of assets and liabilities to

or from an insurer, or the protected cell of an insurer pursuant to an insurance business transfer

plan. A voluntary restructuring under this chapter may be approved by the commissioner only if,

in the commissioner's opinion, it would have no material adverse impact on the insurer's

policyholders, reinsureds, or claimants of policies subject to the restructuring.


 

196)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-14.5-3

218 and 290

 

 

27-14.5-3. Notice.

     (a) Wherever in this chapter notice is required, the applicant shall, within ten (10) days of

the event triggering the requirement, cause transmittal of the notice:

     (1) By first class mail and facsimile to To the insurance regulator in each jurisdiction in

which the applicant is doing business;

     (2) By first class mail to To the national conference of insurance guaranty funds and all

guaranty associations for the states in which the applicant is doing business;

     (3) Pursuant To all reinsurers of the applicant pursuant to the notice provisions of

reinsurance agreements or, where an agreement has no provision for notice, by first class mail in

a manner reasonably designed to provide actual notice to all reinsures reinsurers of the applicant;

     (4) By first class mail to To all insurance agents or insurance producers of the applicant;

     (5) By first class mail to To all persons known or reasonably expected to have claims

against the applicant including all policyholders, at their last known address as indicated by the

records of the applicant;

     (6) By first class mail to To federal, state, and local government agencies and

instrumentalities as their interests may arise; and

     (7) By publication in a newspaper of general circulation in the state in which the

applicant has its principal place of business and in any other locations that the court overseeing

the proceeding deems appropriate.

     (b) Notice under this section shall be given in a manner designed to provide actual notice

to the intended recipient. Depending upon the circumstances, that notice may take the form of

first-class mail, facsimile, and/or electronic notice.

     (b)(c) If notice is given in accordance with this section, any orders under this chapter

shall be conclusive with respect to all claimants and policyholders, whether or not they received

notice.

     (c)(d) Where this chapter requires that the applicant provide notice but the commissioner

has been named receiver of the applicant, the commissioner shall provide the required notice.


 

197)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-14.5-4

218 and 290

 

 

27-14.5-4. Commutation plans.

     (a) Application. Any commercial run-off insurer may apply to the court for an order

implementing a commutation plan.

     (b) Procedure.

     (1) The applicant shall give notice of the application and proposed commutation plan.

     (2) All creditors shall be given the opportunity to vote on the plan.

     (3) All creditors, assumption policyholders, reinsurers, and guaranty associations shall be

provided with access to the same information relating to the proposed plan and shall be given the

opportunity to file comments or objections with the court.

     (4) Approval of a commutation plan requires consent of: (i) fifty Fifty percent (50%) of

each class of creditors; and (ii) the The holders of seventy-five percent (75%) in value of the

liabilities owed to each class of creditors.

     (c) Implementation order.

     (1) The court shall enter an implementation order if: (i) the The plan is approved under

subdivision subsection (b)(4) of this section; and (ii) the The court determines that

implementation of the commutation plan would not materially adversely affect either the interests

of objecting creditors or the interests of assumption policyholders.

     (2) The implementation order shall:

     (i) Order implementation of the commutation plan;

     (ii) Subject to any limitations in the commutation plan, enjoin all litigation in all

jurisdictions between the applicant and creditors other than with the leave of the court;

     (iii) Require all creditors to submit information requested by the bar date specified in the

plan;

     (iv) Require that upon a noticed application, the applicant obtain court approval before

making any payments to creditors other than, to the extent permitted under the commutation plan,

payments in the ordinary course of business, this approval to be based upon a showing that the

applicant's assets exceed the payments required under the terms of the commutation plan as

determined based upon the information submitted by creditors under paragraph (iii) of this

subdivision subsection (c)(2)(iii);

     (v) Release the applicant of all obligations to its creditors upon payment of the amounts

specified in the commutation plan;

     (vi) Require quarterly reports from the applicant to the court and commissioner regarding

progress in implementing the plan; and

     (vii) Be binding upon the applicant and upon all creditors and owners of the applicant,

whether or not a particular creditor or owner is affected by the commutation plan or has accepted

it or has filed any information on or before the bar date, and whether or not a creditor or owner

ultimately receives any payments under the plan.

     (3) The applicant shall give notice of entry of the order.

     (d) Applicable law and procedure with respect to dispute resolution procedures.

     (1) Any dispute resolution procedure in any commutation plan brought by a ceding

insurance creditor to challenge the value of its claim assessed in any commutation plan will be

consistent with the provisions of title 9, United States code;

     (2) The adjudicator and the court, if applicable, hearing any appeal from an adjudication

proceeding where the ceding insurance creditor challenges the value of its claim assessed by the

applicant in its commutation plan, shall:

     (i) Not attempt to enforce a reinsurance contract on terms different than those set forth in

the reinsurance contract;

     (ii) Not apply the laws of Rhode Island to reinsurance agreements of ceding insurers not

domiciled in Rhode Island unless the reinsurance contract provides that Rhode Island law shall

apply;

     (iii) Apply the law applicable to the underlying contract between the ceding insurer and

the applicant or, if the underlying reinsurance contract has no choice of law provision, the law of

the state of domicile of the ceding insurer shall apply.

     (e) Order of dissolution or discharge.

     (1) Upon completion of the commutation plan, the applicant shall advise the court.

     (2) The court shall then enter an order that:

     (i) Is effective upon filing with the court proof that the applicant has provided notice of

entry of the order;

     (ii) Transfers those liabilities subject to an assumption reinsurance agreement to the

assumption reinsurer, thereby notating novating the original policy by substituting the assumption

reinsurer for the applicant and releasing the applicant of any liability relating to the transferred

liabilities;

     (iii) Assigns each assumption reinsurer the benefit of reinsurance on transferred

liabilities, except that the assignment shall only be effective upon the consent of the reinsurer if

either:

     (A) The reinsurance contract requires that consent; or

     (B) The consent would otherwise be required under applicable law; and

     (iv) Either:

     (A) The applicant be discharged from the proceeding without any liabilities; or

     (B) The applicant be dissolved.

     (3) The applicant shall provide notice of entry of the order.

     (f) Reinsurance. Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as authorizing the applicant, or

any other entity, to compel payment from a reinsurer on the basis of estimated incurred but not

reported losses or loss expenses, or case reserves for unpaid losses and loss expenses.

     (g) Modifications to plan. After provision of notice and an opportunity to object, and

upon a showing that some material factor in approving the plan has changed, the court may

modify or change a commutation plan, except that upon entry of an order under subdivision

subsection (e)(2) of this section, there shall be no recourse against the applicant's owners absent a

showing of fraud.

     (h) Role of commissioner and guaranty funds; relationship to rehabilitation/liquidation

statutes.

     (1) The commissioner and guaranty funds shall have the right to intervene in any and all

proceedings under this section; provided, that notwithstanding any provision of this title 27, any

action taken by a commercial run-off insurer to restructure pursuant to this chapter 14.5,

including the formation or re-activation of an insurance company for the sole purpose of entering

into a voluntary restructuring shall not affect the guaranty fund coverage existing on the business

of such commercial run-off insurer prior to the taking of such action.

     (2) If, at any time, the conditions for placing an insurer in rehabilitation or liquidation

specified in chapter 14.3 of this title exist, the commissioner may request and, upon a proper

showing, the court shall order that the commissioner be named statutory receiver of the applicant.

     (3) If no implementation order has been entered, then upon being named receiver, the

commissioner may request, and if requested, the court shall order, that the proceeding under this

chapter be converted to a rehabilitation or liquidation pursuant to chapter 14.3 of this title. If an

implementation order has already been entered, then the court may order a conversion upon a

showing that some material factor in approving the original order has changed.

     (4) The commissioner, any creditor, or the court on its own motion may move to have the

commissioner named as receiver. The court may enter such an order only upon finding either that

one or more grounds for rehabilitation or liquidation specified in chapter 14.3 of this title exist or

that the applicant has materially failed to follow the commutation plan or any other court

instructions.

     (5) Unless and until the commissioner is named receiver, the board of directors or other

controlling body of the applicant shall remain in control of the applicant.


 

 

 

198)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

27-14.5-4.1

218 and 290

 

 

27-14.5-4.1. Insurance business transfer plans.

     The commissioner shall promulgate rules and regulations establishing standards by which

liabilities may be novated to a new or existing domestic insurer pursuant to an Insurance Business

Transfer Plan.


 

199)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-14.5-6

218 and 290

 

 

27-14.5-6. Rules and regulations.

     The commissioner shall promulgate rules and regulations that may be necessary to

effectuate the purposes of this chapter no later than January 1, 2003. The department shall not

accept applications under � 27-14.5-4 until the time that these regulations have been promulgated

including, but not limited to, procedures for transferring commercial liabilities to a new or

existing domestic insurer and standards for commutation plans.


 

200)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-18-39

114 and 204

 

 

27-18-39. Mastectomy treatment.

     (a) All individual or group health-insurance coverage and health-benefit plans delivered,

issued for delivery, or renewed in this state on or after January 1, 2005, which that provides

provide medical and surgical benefits with respect to mastectomy, excluding supplemental

policies which that only provide coverage for specified diseases or other supplemental policies,

shall provide, in a case of any person covered in the individual market or covered by a group

health plan, coverage for:

     (1) Reconstruction of the breast on which the mastectomy has been performed;

     (2) Surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to produce a symmetrical appearance;

and

     (3) Prostheses and treatment of physical complications, including lymphademas, at all

stages of mastectomy; in a manner determined in consultation with the attending physician,

physician assistant as defined in � 5-54-2, or an advance practice registered nurse as defined in �

5-34-3, and the patient. Such coverage may be subject to annual deductibles and coinsurance

provisions applied to the mastectomy and consistent with those established for other benefits

under the plan or coverage. As used in this section, "mastectomy" means the removal of all or

part of a breast. Written notice of the availability of such this coverage shall be delivered to the

participant upon enrollment and annually thereafter.

     (b) As used in this section, "prosthetic devices" means and includes the provision of

initial and subsequent prosthetic devices pursuant to an order of the patient's physician, physician

assistant, advance practice registered nurse, or surgeon.

     (c) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require an individual or group policy to

cover the surgical procedure known as mastectomy or to prevent application of deductible or co-

payment provisions contained in the policy or plan, nor shall this section be construed to require

that coverage under an individual or group policy be extended to any other procedures.

     (d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent a group health plan or a health-

insurance carrier offering health-insurance coverage from negotiating the level and type of

reimbursement with a provider for care provided in accordance with this section.

     (e) Nothing in this section shall preclude the conducting of managed-care reviews and

medical-necessity reviews, by an insurer, hospital or medical-service corporation or health-

maintenance organization.

     (f) Notice. A group health plan, and a health-insurance issuer providing health-insurance

coverage in connection with a group health plan, shall provide notice to each participant and

beneficiary under such the plan regarding the coverage required by this section in accordance

with regulations promulgated by the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services. Such

The notice shall be in writing and prominently positioned in any literature or correspondence

made available or distributed by the plan or issuer and shall be transmitted as part of any yearly

informational packet sent to the participant or beneficiary.

     (g) Prohibitions. A group health plan and a health-insurance carrier offering group or

individual health-insurance coverage may not:

     (1) Deny to a patient eligibility, or continued eligibility, to enroll or renew coverage

under the terms of the plan, solely for the purpose of avoiding the requirements of this section;

nor

     (2) Penalize or otherwise reduce or limit the reimbursement of an attending provider, or

provide incentives (monetary or otherwise) to an attending provider, to induce such the provider

to provide care to an individual participant or beneficiary in a manner inconsistent with this

section.


 

201)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-18-57

230 and 234

 

 

27-18-57. F.D.A. approved prescription contraceptive drugs and devices.

     (a) Every individual or group health-insurance contract, plan, or policy that provides

prescription coverage and is delivered, issued for delivery, or renewed in this state shall provide

coverage for F.D.A. approved contraceptive drugs and devices requiring a prescription. Provided,

that nothing in this subsection shall be deemed to mandate or require coverage for the

prescription drug RU 486.

     (b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, any insurance company may

issue to a religious employer an individual or group health-insurance contract, plan, or policy that

excludes coverage for prescription contraceptive methods which that are contrary to the religious

employer's bona fide religious tenets.

     (c) As used in this section, "religious employer" means an employer that is a "church or a

qualified church-controlled organization" as defined in 26 U.S.C. � 3121.

     (d) This section does not apply to insurance coverage providing benefits for: (1) hospital

Hospital confinement indemnity; (2) disability Disability income; (3) accident Accident only;

(4) long term Long-term care; (5) Medicare supplement; (6) limited Limited benefit health; (7)

specified Specified diseased indemnity; (8) sickness Sickness of or bodily injury or death by

accident or both; and (9) other Other limited-benefit policies.

     (e) Every religious employer that invokes the exemption provided under this section shall

provide written notice to prospective enrollees prior to enrollment with the plan, listing the

contraceptive health-care services the employer refuses to cover for religious reasons.

     (f) Beginning on the first day of each plan year after April 1, 2019, every health-

insurance issuer offering group or individual health-insurance coverage that covers prescription

contraception shall not restrict reimbursement for dispensing a covered prescription contraceptive

up to three hundred sixty-five (365) days at a time.


 

202)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

27-18-84

230 and 234

 

 

27-18-84. Health insurance contracts - Full year coverage for contraception.

     Beginning on the first day of each plan year after April 1, 2019, every health-insurance

issuer offering group or individual health-insurance coverage that covers prescription

contraception shall not restrict reimbursement for dispensing a covered prescription contraceptive

up to three hundred sixty-five (365) days at a time.


 

 

 

203)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-19-34

114 and 204

 

 

27-19-34. Mastectomy treatment.

     (a) All individual or group health-insurance coverage and health-benefit plans delivered,

issued for delivery, or renewed in this state on or after January 1, 2005, which provides that

provide medical and surgical benefits with respect to mastectomy shall provide, in a case of any

person covered in the individual market or covered by a group health plan, coverage for:

     (1) Reconstruction of the breast on which the mastectomy has been performed;

     (2) Surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to produce a symmetrical appearance;

and

     (3) Prostheses and treatment of physical complications, including lymphademas, at all

stages of mastectomy; in a manner determined in consultation with the attending physician and

the patient. Such coverage may be subject to annual deductibles and coinsurance provisions

applied to the mastectomy and consistent with those established for other benefits under the plan

or coverage. As used in this section, "mastectomy" means the removal of all or part of a breast.

Written notice of the availability of such this coverage shall be delivered to the participant upon

enrollment and annually thereafter.

     (b) Notice. A group health plan, and a health-insurance issuer providing health-insurance

coverage in connection with a group health plan, shall provide notice to each participant and

beneficiary under such the plan regarding the coverage required by this section in accordance

with regulations promulgated by the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services. Such

The notice shall be in writing and prominently positioned in any literature or correspondence

made available or distributed by the plan or issuer and shall be transmitted as part of any yearly

informational packet sent to the participant or beneficiary.

     (c) As used in this section, "prosthetic devices" means and includes the provisions

provision of initial and subsequent prosthetic devices pursuant to an order of the patient's

physician or surgeon.

     (d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require an individual or group policy to

cover the surgical procedure known as mastectomy or to prevent the application of deductible or

copayment provisions contained in the policy or plan, nor shall this section be construed to

require that coverage under an individual or group policy be extended to any other procedures.

     (e) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent a group health plan or a health-

insurance carrier offering health-insurance coverage from negotiating the level and type of

reimbursement with a provider for care provided in accordance with this section.

     (f) Nothing in this section shall preclude the conducting of managed-care reviews and

medical-necessity reviews by an insurer, hospital or medical-service corporation or health-

maintenance organization.

     (g) Prohibitions. A group health plan and a health-insurance carrier offering group or

individual health-insurance coverage may not:

     (1) Deny to a patient eligibility, or continued eligibility, to enroll or renew coverage

under the terms of the plan, solely for the purpose of avoiding the requirements of this section;

nor

     (2) Penalize or otherwise reduce or limit the reimbursement of an attending provider, or

provide incentives (monetary or otherwise) to an attending provider, to induce such the provider

to provide care to an individual participant or beneficiary in a manner inconsistent with this

section.


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

204)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-19-48

230 and 234

 

 

27-19-48. F.D.A. approved prescription contraceptive drugs and devices.

     (a) Every individual or group health-insurance contract, plan, or policy that provides

prescription coverage and is delivered, issued for delivery, or renewed in this state shall provide

coverage for F.D.A. approved contraceptive drugs and devices requiring a prescription. Provided,

that nothing in this subsection shall be deemed to mandate or require coverage for the

prescription drug RU 486.

     (b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, any hospital service corporation

may issue to a religious employer an individual or group health-insurance contract, plan, or policy

that excludes coverage for prescription contraceptive methods which that are contrary to the

religious employer's bona fide religious tenets.

     (c) As used in this section, "religious employer" means an employer that is a "church or a

qualified church-controlled organization" as defined in 26 U.S.C. � 3121.

     (d) Every religious employer that invokes the exemption provided under this section shall

provide written notice to prospective enrollees prior to enrollment with the plan, listing the

contraceptive health-care services the employer refuses to cover for religious reasons.

     (e) Beginning on the first day of each plan year after April 1, 2019, every health-

insurance issuer offering group or individual health-insurance coverage that covers prescription

contraception shall not restrict reimbursement for dispensing a covered prescription contraceptive

up to three hundred sixty-five (365) days at a time.


 

205)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

27-19-76

230 and 234

 

 

27-19-76. Health insurance contracts - Full year coverage for contraception.

     Beginning on the first day of each plan year after April 1, 2019, every health-insurance

issuer offering group or individual health-insurance coverage that covers prescription

contraception shall not restrict reimbursement for dispensing a covered prescription contraceptive

up to three hundred sixty-five (365) days at a time.


 

206)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-20-29

114 and 204

 

 

27-20-29. Mastectomy treatment.

     (a) All individual or group health-insurance coverage and health-benefit plans delivered,

issued for delivery, or renewed in this state on or after January 1, 2005, which provides that

provide medical and surgical benefits with respect to mastectomy shall provide, in a case of any

person covered in the individual market or covered by a group health plan, coverage for:

     (1) Reconstruction of the breast on which the mastectomy has been performed;

     (2) Surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to produce a symmetrical appearance;

and

     (3) Prostheses and treatment of physical complications, including lymphademas, at all

stages of mastectomy; in a manner determined in consultation with the attending physician and

the patient. Such coverage may be subject to annual deductibles and coinsurance provisions

applied to the mastectomy and consistent with those established for other benefits under the plan

or coverage. As used in this section, "mastectomy" means the removal of all or part of a breast.

Written notice of the availability of such coverage shall be delivered to the participant upon

enrollment and annually thereafter.

     (b) Notice. A group health plan, and a health-insurance issuer providing health-insurance

coverage in connection with a group health plan, shall provide notice to each participant and

beneficiary under such the plan regarding the coverage required by this section in accordance

with regulations promulgated by the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services. Such

The notice shall be in writing and prominently positioned in any literature or correspondence

made available or distributed by the plan or issuer and shall be transmitted as part of any yearly

informational packet sent to the participant or beneficiary.

     (c) As used in this section, "prosthetic devices" means and includes the provision of

initial and subsequent prosthetic devices pursuant to an order of the patient's physician or

surgeon.

     (d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require an individual or group policy to

cover the surgical procedure known as mastectomy or to prevent the application of deductible or

copayment provisions contained in the policy or plan, nor shall this section be construed to

require that coverage under an individual or group policy be extended to any other procedures.

     (e) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent a group health plan or a health-

insurance carrier offering health-insurance coverage from negotiating the level and type of

reimbursement with a provider for care provided in accordance with this section.

     (f) Nothing in this section shall preclude the conducting of managed-care reviews and

medical-necessity reviews by an insurer, hospital or medical-service corporation or health-

maintenance organization.

     (g) Prohibitions. A group health plan and a health-insurance carrier offering group or

individual health-insurance coverage may not:

     (1) Deny to a patient eligibility, or continued eligibility, to enroll or renew coverage

under the terms of the plan, solely for the purpose of avoiding the requirements of this section;

nor

     (2) Penalize or otherwise reduce or limit the reimbursement of an attending provider, or

provide incentives (monetary or otherwise) to an attending provider, to induce such the provider

to provide care to an individual participant or beneficiary in a manner inconsistent with this

section.


 

207)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-20-43

230 and 234

 

 

27-20-43. F.D.A. approved prescription contraceptive drugs and devices.

     (a) Every individual or group health-insurance contract, plan, or policy that provides

prescription coverage and is delivered, issued for delivery, or renewed in this state shall provide

coverage for F.D.A. approved contraceptive drugs and devices requiring a prescription. Provided,

that nothing in this subsection shall be deemed to mandate or require coverage for the

prescription drug RU 486.

     (b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, any medical service corporation

may issue to a religious employer an individual or group health-insurance contract, plan, or policy

that excludes coverage for prescription contraceptive methods which are contrary to the religious

employer's bona fide religious tenets.

     (c) As used in this section, "religious employer" means an employer that is a "church or a

qualified church-controlled organization" as defined in 26 U.S.C. � 3121.

     (d) Every religious employer that invokes the exemption provided under this section shall

provide written notice to prospective enrollees prior to enrollment with the plan, listing the

contraceptive health-care services the employer refuses to cover for religious reasons.

     (e) Beginning on the first day of each plan year after April 1, 2019, every health-

insurance issuer offering group or individual health-insurance coverage that covers prescription

contraception shall not restrict reimbursement for dispensing a covered prescription contraceptive

up to three hundred sixty-five (365) days at a time.


 

208)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

27-20-72

230 and 234

 

 

27-20-72. Health insurance contracts - Full year coverage for contraception.

     Beginning on the first day of each plan year after April 1, 2019, every health-insurance

issuer offering group or individual health-insurance coverage that covers prescription

contraception shall not restrict reimbursement for dispensing a covered prescription contraceptive

up to three hundred sixty-five (365) days at a time.


 

209)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-38.2-1

169 and 253

 

 

27-38.2-1. Coverage for treatment of mental health and substance use disorders.

[Effective April 1, 2018.].

     (a) A group health plan and an individual or group health insurance plan shall provide

coverage for the treatment of mental-health and substance-use disorders under the same terms and

conditions as that coverage is provided for other illnesses and diseases.

     (b) Coverage for the treatment of mental-health and substance-use disorders shall not

impose any annual or lifetime dollar limitation.

     (c) Financial requirements and quantitative treatment limitations on coverage for the

treatment of mental-health and substance-use disorders shall be no more restrictive than the

predominant financial requirements applied to substantially all coverage for medical conditions in

each treatment classification.

     (d) Coverage shall not impose non-quantitative treatment limitations for the treatment of

mental health and substance-use disorders unless the processes, strategies, evidentiary standards,

or other factors used in applying the non-quantitative treatment limitation, as written and in

operation, are comparable to, and are applied no more stringently than, the processes, strategies,

evidentiary standards, or other factors used in applying the limitation with respect to

medical/surgical benefits in the classification.

     (e) The following classifications shall be used to apply the coverage requirements of this

chapter: (1) Inpatient, in-network; (2) Inpatient, out-of-network; (3) Outpatient, in-network; (4)

Outpatient, out-of-network; (5) Emergency care; and (6) Prescription drugs.

     (f) Medication-assisted treatment or medication-assisted maintenance services of

substance-use disorders, opioid overdoses, and chronic addiction, including methadone,

buprenorphine, naltrexone, or other clinically appropriate medications, is included within the

appropriate classification based on the site of the service.

     (g) Payors shall rely upon the criteria of the American Society of Addiction Medicine

when developing coverage for levels of care for substance-use disorder treatment.

     (h) Patients with substance-use disorders shall have access to evidence-based, non-opioid

treatment for pain, therefore coverage shall apply to medically necessary chiropractic care and

osteopathic manipulative treatment performed by an individual licensed under � 5-37-2.

     (i) Parity of cost-sharing requirements. Regardless of the professional license of the

provider of care, if that care is consistent with the provider's scope of practice and the health

plan's credentialing and contracting provisions, cost-sharing for behavioral health counseling

visits and medication maintenance visits shall be consistent with the cost-sharing applied to

primary care office visits.


 

210)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-41-43

114 and 204

 

 

27-41-43. Mastectomy treatment.

     (a) All individual or group health-insurance coverage and health-benefit plans delivered,

issued for delivery, or renewed in this state on or after January 1, 2005, which provides that

provide medical and surgical benefits with respect to mastectomy shall provide, in a case of any

person covered in the individual market or covered by a group health plan, coverage for:

     (1) Reconstruction of the breast on which the mastectomy has been performed;

     (2) Surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to produce a symmetrical appearance;

and

     (3) Prostheses and treatment of physical complications, including lymphademas, at all

stages of mastectomy; in a manner determined in consultation with the attending physician,

physician assistant as defined in � 5-54-2, or an advance practice registered nurse as defined in �

5-34-3, and the patient. Such coverage may be subject to annual deductibles and coinsurance

provisions applied to the mastectomy and consistent with those established for other benefits

under the plan or coverage. As used in this section, "mastectomy" means the removal of all or

part of a breast. Written notice of the availability of such coverage shall be delivered to the

participant upon enrollment and annually thereafter.

     (b) Notice. A group health plan, and a health-insurance issuer providing health-insurance

coverage in connection with a group health plan, shall provide notice to each participant and

beneficiary under such the plan regarding the coverage required by this section in accordance

with regulations promulgated by the United States Secretary of Health and Human Services. Such

The notice shall be in writing and prominently positioned in any literature or correspondence

made available or distributed by the plan or issuer and shall be transmitted as part of any yearly

informational packet sent to the participant or beneficiary.

     (c) As used in this section, "prosthetic devices" means and includes the provision of

initial and subsequent prosthetic devices pursuant to an order of the patient's physician, physician

assistant, advance practice registered nurse, or surgeon.

     (d) (1) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require an individual or group policy

to cover the surgical procedure known as mastectomy or to prevent application of deductible or

copayment provisions contained in the policy or plan, nor shall this section be construed to

require that coverage under an individual or group policy be extended to any other procedures.

     (2) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent a group health plan or a health-

insurance carrier offering health-insurance coverage from negotiating the level and type of

reimbursement with a provider for care provided in accordance with this section.

     (3) Nothing in this section shall preclude the conducting of managed-care reviews and

medical-necessity reviews, by an insurer, hospital or medical-service corporation or health-

maintenance organization.

     (4) Prohibitions. A group health plan and a health-insurance carrier offering group or

individual health-insurance coverage may not:

     (i) Deny to a patient eligibility, or continued eligibility, to enroll or renew coverage under

the terms of the plan, solely for the purpose of avoiding the requirements of this section; nor

     (ii) Penalize or otherwise reduce or limit the reimbursement of an attending provider, or

provide incentives (monetary or otherwise) to an attending provider, to induce such the provider

to provide care to an individual participant or beneficiary in a manner inconsistent with this

section.


�����������

 

 

 

211)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-41-59

230 and 234

 

 

27-41-59. F.D.A. approved prescription contraceptive drugs and devices.

     (a) Every individual or group health-insurance contract, plan, or policy that provides

prescription coverage and is delivered, issued for delivery, or renewed in this state shall provide

coverage for F.D.A. approved contraceptive drugs and devices requiring a prescription; provided,

that nothing in this subsection shall be deemed to mandate or require coverage for the

prescription drug RU 486.

     (b) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, any health-maintenance

corporation may issue to a religious employer an individual or group health-insurance contract,

plan, or policy that excludes coverage for prescription contraceptive methods which that are

contrary to the religious employer's bona fide religious tenets.

     (c) As used in this section, "religious employer" means an employer that is a "church or a

qualified church-controlled organization" as defined in 26 U.S.C. � 3121.

     (d) Every religious employer that invokes the exemption provided under this section shall

provide written notice to prospective enrollees prior to enrollment with the plan, listing the

contraceptive health-care services the employer refuses to cover for religious reasons.

     (e) Beginning on the first day of each plan year after April 1, 2019, every health-

insurance issuer offering group or individual health-insurance coverage that covers prescription

contraception shall not restrict reimbursement for dispensing a covered prescription contraceptive

up to three hundred sixty-five (365) days at a time.


 

212)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

27-41-89

230 and 234

 

 

27-41-89. Health insurance contracts - Full year coverage for contraception.

     Beginning on the first day of each plan year after April 1, 2019, every health-insurance

issuer offering group or individual health-insurance coverage that covers prescription

contraception shall not restrict reimbursement for dispensing a covered prescription contraceptive

up to three hundred sixty-five (365) days at a time.


 

213

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

27-64-2

218 and 290

 

 

27-64-2. Purpose.

     This act is adopted to provide a basis for the creation of protected cells by a domestic

insurer as one means of accessing alternative sources of capital and achieving the benefits of

insurance securitization or voluntary restructuring as contemplated under chapter 14.5 of this title,

including through effectuating insurance business transfers in accordance with the procedures

promulgated by the commissioner under � 27-14.5-6. Investors in fully funded insurance

securitization transactions provide funds that are available to pay the insurer's insurance

obligations or to repay the investors or both. The creation of protected cells is intended to be a

means to achieve more efficiencies in conducting insurance securitizations or voluntary

restructurings.


 

 

 

214)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

28-9.2-18

144 and 210

 

 

28-9.2-18. Exclusive bargaining representative obligations.

     (a) The exclusive representative shall have the right to act for and negotiate agreements

covering all employees in the bargaining unit. Nothing in the provision shall require the exclusive

representative to provide representation at any level of the grievance process, including

arbitration, in any case on behalf of an employee who has elected not to maintain membership in

the employee organization for a period of at least ninety (90) days prior to the events giving rise

to the grievance.

     (b) An employee who has elected not to maintain membership in the employee

organization may, at their his or her own expense, pursue a grievance against the employer and

have such the grievance heard, without intervention by the exclusive representative, provided that

the exclusive representative is afforded the opportunity to be present at such the

grievance/arbitration hearing and that any resolution of the grievance shall not be inconsistent

with the terms of the collective bargaining agreement then in effect between the employer and the

exclusive representative. The exclusive representative shall have no obligation to incur expenses

related to a grievance initiated by an employee who has elected not to maintain membership in

the employee organization for a period of at least ninety (90) days prior to the events giving rise

to the grievance.


 

215)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-14-2.1

84 and 96

 

 

28-14-2.1. Statement of earnings.

     (a) On every regular payday, every employer shall furnish to any employee the following:

     (1) A statement of the hours worked by that employee during the applicable pay period;

provided, that the statement need not be furnished to an employee described in � 28-12-4.3;

     (2) A record of all deductions made from that employee's gross earnings during the pay

period together with an explanation of the basis or reason for the deductions; and

     (3) For employers engaged only in the commercial construction industry, a record of the

employee's hourly regular rate of pay. As used in this subsection, "commercial construction

industry" includes a business which that engages in the doing of work or the furnishing of

materials, or both, in the building, erection, alteration, or preparation of an improvement on

commercial real property.

     (b) All statements and records required to be furnished to an employee by this section

may be furnished as an electronic record. The employer shall furnish to an employee a printed or

handwritten record, in lieu of an electronic record, at no cost to the employee, when a written

authorization from such employee is provided to the employer.


 

216)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

 

28-29-19

86 and 98

 

 

 

28-29-19. Waiver of claim of common law rights.

     (a) Any employee, or corporate officer, or manager, managing member or member of a

limited liability company, or the parent or guardian of any minor employee, who has given notice

to the employer that he or she claimed his or her right of action at common law may waive that

claim by filing a notice in writing with the director and the employer, or his or her agent, which

shall take effect five (5) days after the filing with the director.

     (b) Any corporate officer, or manager, managing member, or member of a limited-

liability company who has given notice to the employer and its workers' compensation insurance

carrier that they claimed their right of action at common law may waive that claim by filing a

notice in writing with the director and the employer, or their agent, and its workers' compensation

insurance carrier which shall take effect five (5) days after the filing with the director. The

insurance carrier shall keep a copy of the notice consistent with the rules and regulations of the

department.

     (b)(c) Any person who is appointed a corporate officer between January 1, 1999, and

December 31, 2001, and was not previously an employee of the corporation may elect to become

subject to chapters 29 -- 38 of this title upon filing a notice in writing with the director and his or

her employer and its workers' compensation insurance carrier which notice takes effect five (5)

days after the filing of his or her notice.


 

217)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-29-30

86 and 98

 

 

 28-29-30. Advisory council.

     (a) There is created a workers' compensation advisory council consisting of sixteen (16)

seventeen (17) members as follows:

     (1) The chief judge of the workers' compensation court and one two (2) additional judge

judges of the workers' compensation court and one member of the Bar who primarily represents

injured workers before the workers' compensation court, both to be selected by the chief judge;

     (2) The director of business regulation;

     (3) The director of administration;

     (4) Three (3) representatives from labor appointed by the governor, one of whom shall be

an injured worker;

     (5) Three (3) representatives from business appointed by the governor, one of whom shall

be a self-insured employer, and one of whom shall represent cities and towns;

     (6) One representative from the general public appointed by the governor;

     (7) The chairperson of the senate labor committee, or his or her designee;

     (8) The chairperson of the house labor committee, or his or her designee;

     (9) The director of labor and training; and

     (10) The chief executive officer of the workers' compensation insurance fund, or his or

her designee.

     (b) It shall be the duty of the council to advise the governor and the general assembly, on

an annual basis, on the administration of the workers' compensation system.


 

218)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-30-4

86 and 98

 

 

28-30-4. Workers' compensation administrator -- Appointment -- Powers and

duties.

     (a) There shall be a workers' compensation administrator who shall be appointed by the

chief judge of the workers' compensation court with the advice and consent of the senate. The

chief judge of the workers' compensation court, with the advice and consent of the senate, shall

appoint a workers' compensation administrator to serve for a period of five (5) years, and

thereafter until his or her successor is appointed and qualified.

     (b) The administrator shall:

     (1) Supervise the preparation of an annual budget for the workers' compensation court;

     (2) Formulate procedures governing the administration of workers' compensation court

services;

     (3) Make recommendations to the workers' compensation court for improvement in court

services;

     (4) Collect necessary statistics and prepare the annual report of the work of the workers'

compensation court;

     (5) Provide supervision and consultation to the staff of the workers' compensation court

concerning administration of court services, training and supervision of personnel, and fiscal

management;

     (6) Perform any other duties that the workers' compensation court specifies.; and

     (7) Have the power to act as a notary public as provided in � 42-30-14.


 

219)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-36-15

86 and 98

 

 

28-36-15. Penalty for failure to secure compensation -- Personal liability of

corporate officers.

     (a) Any employer required to secure the payment of compensation under chapters 29 --

38 of this title who knowingly fails to secure that compensation shall be guilty of a felony and

shall be subject to imprisonment for up to two (2) years. In addition to the foregoing, the

employer shall be subject to a civil penalty punished by a fine not to exceed one thousand dollars

($1,000) for each day of noncompliance with the requirements of this title. The director shall

institute any and all reasonable measures to comprehensively monitor, investigate, and otherwise

discover all employer noncompliance with this section and shall establish rules and regulations

governing these measures. Each day shall constitute a separate and distinct offense for calculation

of the penalty. Where that employer is a corporation, the president, vice president, secretary,

treasurer, and other officers of the corporation, shall be severally liable for the fine, penalty, or

imprisonment as provided in this section for the failure of that corporation to secure the payment

of compensation. The president, vice president, secretary, treasurer, and other officers of the

corporation shall also be severally personally liable, jointly with the corporation for any

compensation or other benefit which that may accrue under those chapters in respect to any

injury which that may occur to any employee of that corporation while it fails to secure the

payment of compensation as required by those chapters.

     (b) Where the employer is a limited-liability company, the managers and managing

members who knowingly fail to secure the payment of compensation under chapters 29 -- 38 of

this title shall be guilty of a felony and shall be subject to imprisonment for up to two (2) years.

The managers and managing members shall also be severally liable for the fine, penalty, or

imprisonment as provided in this section for the failure of that company to secure the payment of

compensation. The managers and managing members shall be severally personally liable, jointly

with the company, for any compensation or other benefit which that may accrue under those

chapters in respect to any injury which that may occur to any employee of that company while it

fails to secure the payment of compensation as required by those chapters.

     (c) Where the employer is a partnership, or a registered limited-liability partnership, the

partners who knowingly fail to secure the payment of compensation under chapters 29 -- 38 of

this title shall be guilty of a felony and shall be subject to imprisonment for up to two (2) years.

The partners shall also be severally liable for the fine, penalty, or imprisonment as provided in

this section for the failure of that partnership to secure the payment of compensation. The partners

shall be severally personally liable, jointly with the partnership, for any compensation or other

benefit which that may accrue under those chapters in respect to any injury which that may

occur to any employee of that partnership while it fails to secure the payment as required by those

chapters.

     (d) Where the employer is a limited partnership or a registered limited-liability limited

partnership, the general partners who knowingly fail to secure the payment of compensation

under chapters 29 -- 38 of this title shall be guilty of a felony and shall be subject to

imprisonment for up to two (2) years. The general partners shall also be severally liable for the

fine, penalty, or imprisonment as provided in this section for the failure of that limited partnership

to secure the payment of compensation. The general partners shall be severally personally liable,

jointly with the limited partnership, for any compensation or other benefit which that may accrue

under those chapters in respect to any injury which that may occur to any employee of that

partnership while it fails to secure the payment of compensation as required by those chapters.

     (e) All criminal actions for any violation of this section shall be prosecuted by the

attorney general. The attorney general shall prosecute actions to enforce the payment of penalties

and fines at the request of the director. The workers' compensation court shall have jurisdiction

over all civil actions filed pursuant to this section.

     The court shall consider the following factors in assessing a civil penalty: gravity of

offense,; resources of the employer,; effect of the penalty on employees of the company,; the

reason for the lapse in coverage,; and the recommendation of the director. Following a review of

the factors set forth above, the court may suspend all or a part of a civil penalty or shall establish

a time table for compliance with any court order.

     (f) (1) As soon as practicable after the director receives notice of noncompliance under

this section, the director shall determine whether cause exists for the imposition of a civil penalty.

Unless the director determines that the noncompliance was unintentional or the result of a clerical

error and subject to the administrative proceedings under subsection (g) of this section, the

director shall commence an action in the workers' compensation court to assess a civil penalty

against the employer as set forth in subsection (a) of this section and shall refer the matter to the

attorney general for prosecution of criminal charges.

     (2) The director shall bring a civil action in the workers' compensation court to collect all

payments and penalties ordered and not paid. All civil actions for any violations of this chapter or

of any of the rules or regulations promulgated by the director, or for the collection of payments in

accordance with � 28-37-13, 28-33-17.3(a)(2), or 28-33-17.3(a)(3), or civil penalties under this

chapter, shall be prosecuted by any qualified member of the Rhode Island bar whom the director

may designate, in the name of the director, and the director is exempt from giving surety for costs

in any proceedings.

     (g) In the case of unintentional noncompliance or noncompliance resulting from clerical

error where the uninsured period is less than one year from the date of discovery and there were

no employees injured during the uninsured period and the employer has not been subject to any

other findings of noncompliance with these chapters, the director shall assess an administrative

penalty of not less than the estimated annual workers' compensation insurance premium for that

employer and not more than triple that amount. Any party has the right to appeal the orders of the

director. Such The appeal shall be to the workers' compensation court in the first instance and

thereafter from the workers' compensation court to the Rhode Island supreme court in accordance

with � 28-35-30.

     (h) The director shall collect all payments under this chapter under the rules and

regulations that may be set forth by the director. All fines collected pursuant to this section shall

be deposited to a restricted receipt account to be administered by the director of the department of

labor and training in his or her sole discretion to carry out chapters 29 -- 38 of this title.

     (i) (1) In that the operation of a commercial enterprise without the required workers'

compensation insurance is a crime and creates a clear and present danger of irreparable harm to

employees who are injured while the employer is uninsured, the director shall suspend the

operation of the business immediately and until workers' compensation and employers' liability

insurance is secured consistent with these chapters. The director shall lift the suspension upon

receipt of satisfactory proof of insurance and evidence sufficient to satisfy the director that the

employer is in full compliance with these chapters. Any party has the right to appeal the

suspension to the workers' compensation court where the matter shall proceed pursuant to the

workers' compensation court rules of procedure.

     (2) In the event that the employer shall fail to comply with the director's order of

suspension, the director may apply immediately to the workers' compensation court for an order

directing the employer to comply with the director's prior orders.

     (3) Actions filed with the workers' compensation court pursuant to this section shall not

be subject to a pretrial conference in accordance with � 28-35-20 but and shall be assigned

consistent with the workers' compensation court rules of practice.

     (4) Interest shall accrue on unpaid penalties during the pendency of any appeal at the rate

per annum provided in � 9-21-10.

     (j) These provisions shall take effect upon passage except � 28-29-2(6)(iv) which shall

take effect on January 1, 2006.


 

220)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-44-57

318 and 345

 

 

28-44-57. Fees and costs chargeable.

     (a) No individual claiming benefits shall be charged fees of any kind by the director or

his or her representative, or by the board of review or its representatives, in any proceeding under

chapters 42 -- 44 of this title. Any individual claiming benefits in any proceeding or court action

may be represented by counsel or other duly authorized agent. The director shall have the

authority to fix the fees of that counsel or other duly authorized agent, but no counsel or agent

shall together be allowed to charge or receive for those services more than ten percent (10%) of

the maximum benefits at issue in that proceeding or court action but not less than fifty dollars

($50.00) except as specifically allowed by the superior court.

     (b) In any case in which either an employer appeals from a determination in favor of the

claimant or a claimant successfully appeals a decision unfavorable to the claimant to an appeals

body other than a court of law and the claimant retains an attorney-at-law to represent him or her,

the attorney shall be entitled to a counsel fee of ten percent (10%) of the amount of benefits at

issue before the appeals body but not less than fifty dollars ($50.00) two hundred fifty dollars

($250), which shall be paid by the director out of the employment security administrative funds,

within thirty (30) days of the date of his or her appearance.

     (c) (1) An attorney-at-law who represents an individual claiming benefits on an appeal to

the courts shall be entitled to counsel fees upon final disposition of the case and necessary court

costs and printing disbursements as fixed by the court.

     (2) The director shall pay those counsel fees, costs, and disbursements, out of the

employment security administrative funds in each of the following cases:

     (i) Any court appeal taken by a party other than the claimant from an administrative or

judicial decision favorable in whole or in part to the claimant;

     (ii) Any court appeal by a claimant from a decision denying or reducing benefits awarded

under a prior administrative or judicial decision;

     (iii) Any court appeal as a result of which the claimant is awarded benefits.


 

221)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-53

86 and 98

 

 

CHAPTER 28-53

RHODE ISLAND UNINSURED PROTECTION FUND


 

222)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-53-1

86 and 98

 

 

28-53-1. Preamble and legislative findings.

     WHEREAS, The system of workers' compensation in the state of Rhode Island was once

in a state of acute crisis until legislative intervention and oversight produced what is now a

nationally recognized model of a well-managed economical program that provides injured

workers with appropriate compensation, health care, and rehabilitative services without unduly

burdening employers, insurers, and the citizens of Rhode Island; and

     WHEREAS, Legislative and policy changes have corrected the abuses and misuse of the

workers' compensation system while assisting injured workers, restoring fiscal stability, and

eliminating waste and unnecessary costs; and

     WHEREAS, Professionals providing services covered under the provisions of the

Workers' Compensation Act workers' compensation act have taken into account, in the

performance of their service, the important public policy benefit of a sound and properly

functioning workers' compensation system in this state, and have tirelessly committed themselves

to protect and maintained maintain the integrity of this system; and

     WHEREAS, Abuse and misuse of the workers' compensation system by non-complying

noncomplying employers has been reduced through the state's mandatory requirement that

employers subject to the law either self-insure or maintain a policy of workers' compensation

insurance to ensure that legitimately injured workers receive all the rights and benefits provided

in the Workers' Compensation Act workers' compensation act; and

     WHEREAS, Substantive efforts have already been undertaken by the general assembly,

the workers' compensation court, and the department of labor and training to eliminate the illegal,

irresponsible, and unscrupulous behavior of employers who openly and deliberately operate

businesses in Rhode Island without workers' compensation insurance for their employees; and

     WHEREAS, The actions of non-complying noncomplying employers are illegal and

deprive not only injured employees of the workers' compensation benefits to which they are

entitled but also cause greater social and financial costs to all citizens of Rhode Island including

employers and health care providers who incur uncompensated expenses in treating the victims of

the uninsured employer; and

     WHEREAS, Additional reform is required to provide appropriate compensation, health

care and rehabilitative services payments to employees who are injured while in the service of

uninsured employers and to eliminate the flagrant abuse of the system by illegally uninsured

employers by requiring them to accept their legal responsibility to pay the appropriate benefits to

their insured employees; now, therefore be it

     RESOLVED, That it is declared to be the intent of the legislature that an uninsured

employers protection fund be created to ensure that injured workers who are employed by

illegally uninsured employers are not deprived of workers' compensation benefits payments. The

fund shall have enforcement mechanisms as are necessary to induce illegally uninsured

employers to acknowledge their malfeasance, provide legally mandated benefits payments for

injured workers; and to assure that all participants in the system recognize their obligation to

conduct themselves in a manner consistent with the overall integrity of the compensation system.

All amounts owed to the uninsured employers protection fund from illegally uninsured employers

are intended to be excise taxes and as such, all ambiguities and uncertainties are to be resolved in

favor of a determination that such assessments are excise taxes.


 

223)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-53-2

86 and 98

 

 

28-53-2. Establishment -- Sources -- Administration.

     (a)(1) There shall be established within the department of labor and training a special

restricted receipt account to be known as the Rhode Island uninsured employers protection fund.

The department shall maintain the fund for the exclusive purpose of making payments to an

injured employee otherwise entitled to benefits pursuant to chapters 29 through 38 of this title 28,

or in the case of death of the injured employee, to person(s) presumed wholly dependent for

support upon the deceased employee, as defined in � 28-33-13, and any costs specifically

associated therewith, where the employer required to secure payment of such the compensation

failed to insure or self-insure its liability at the time the injury took place as determined by the

director and the workers' compensation court.

     (2) The fund shall be capitalized from excise taxes assessed against uninsured employers

pursuant to the provisions of � 28-53-9 and from general revenues appropriated by the legislature.

Beginning in state fiscal year ending June 30, 2018 June 30, 2019, the legislature may appropriate

up to two million dollars ($2,000,000) in general revenue funds annually for deposit into the

Rhode Island uninsured employers protection fund.

     (b) All moneys in the fund shall be mingled and undivided. The fund shall be

administered by the director of the department of labor and training, or his or her designee, but in

no case shall the director incur any liability beyond the amounts paid into and earned by the fund.

     (c) All amounts owed to the uninsured employers protection fund from illegally

uninsured employers are intended to be excise taxes and as such, all ambiguities and uncertainties

are to be resolved in favor of a determination that such assessments are excise taxes.


 

224)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-53-3

86 and 98

 

 

28-53-3. Powers and duties of the fund.

     The fund shall:

     (a) Be obligated authorized to pay covered claims as determined by the director or and

the workers' compensation court pursuant to the provisions of this section and promulgate all

rules and regulations necessary to effectuate the provisions and overall purpose of this chapter.

The rules and regulations shall be promulgated in accordance with the administrative procedures

act, chapter 35 of title 42, and shall include, but not be limited to, the filing of claim forms and

other documentation supporting the claim, and proof of dependency, if relevant. All claims must

contain a release necessary to allow the director to investigate the claim;

     (b) Investigate claims brought against the fund and adjust, compromise, settle, and pay

covered claims to the extent of the fund's allocation;

     (c) Establish procedures for managing the assets of the fund;

     (d) Sue or be sued; and

     (e) Perform any and all acts necessary to effectuate the humanitarian purposes of this

chapter.


 

225)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-53-7

86 and 98

 

 

28-53-7. Payments to employees of uninsured employers.

     (a) Where it is determined that the employee was injured in the course of employment

while working for an employer who fails to maintain a policy of workers' compensation insurance

as required by � 28-36-1 et seq., in accordance with the provisions of this chapter, the uninsured

employers protection fund shall is authorized to pay the benefits to which the injured employee

would be entitled pursuant to chapters 29 to 38 of this title subject to the limitations set forth

herein.

     (b) The workers' compensation court shall hear all petitions for payment from the fund

pursuant to � 28-30-1 et seq.; provided, however, that the uninsured employers protection fund

and the employer shall be named as parties to any petition seeking payment of benefits from the

fund.

     (c) Where an employee is deemed to be entitled to benefits from the uninsured employers

protection fund, the fund shall pay benefits for disability and medical expenses incapacity as

provided pursuant to chapters 29 to 38 of this title except that the employee shall not be entitled

to receive benefits for medical expenses pursuant to the provisions of � 28-33-5 or loss of

function and disfigurement pursuant to the provisions of � 28-33-19.

     (d) The fund shall pay costs, counsel, and witness fees, as provided in � 28-35-32, to any

employee who successfully prosecutes any petitions for compensation; petitions for medical

expenses payment; petitions to amend a pretrial order or memorandum of agreement; and all

other employee petitions; and to employees who successfully defend, in whole or in part,

proceedings seeking to reduce or terminate any and all workers' compensation benefits payments;

provided, however, that the attorney's fees awarded to counsel who represent the employee in

petitions for lump-sum commutation filed pursuant to � 28-33-25, or in the settlement of disputed

cases pursuant to � 28-33-25.1, shall be limited to the maximum amount paid to counsel who

serve as court-appointed attorneys in workers' compensation proceedings as established by rule or

order of the Rhode Island supreme court. Any payment ordered by the court or due under this

section shall not be subject to liens set forth in � 28-33-27(b), nor shall such payments be

assignable or subject to assignment in any way.

     (e) In the event that the uninsured employer makes payment of any monies to the

employee to compensate the employee for lost wages or medical expenses, the fund shall be

entitled to a credit for all such monies received by, or on behalf of, the employee against any

future benefits payable directly to the employee. The fund shall be entitled to full reimbursement

from the uninsured employer for any and all payments made to the employee, as well as all costs,

counsel, and witness fees paid out by the fund in connection with any claim and/or petition, plus

any and all costs and attorney attorney�s fees associated with collection and reimbursement of

the fund.

     (f) This section shall apply to injuries that occur on or after July 1, 2018 February 1,

2019.


 

226)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-53-8

86 and 98

 

 

28-53-8. Limitations on payments to injured employees.

     (a) Where the director determines by experience or other appropriate accounting and

actuarial methods that the reserves in the fund are insufficient to pay all claims presented or

pending, the director shall petition the workers' compensation court for an order to make

appropriate, proportionate reductions in the payments being made to injured employees by the

fund or to suspend all payments to injured employees until such time as the reserves maintained

by the fund are sufficient to resume the payment of benefits. The matter shall be heard by the

chief judge. If the court determines that the monies held by the fund are insufficient to fully pay

all claims make payments as they fall due, the court shall issue an order directing that a

proportionate reduction be made in the payments made to those employees receiving benefits

payments from the fund. In considering the fund's request for relief, the court shall give due

weight to the policy of the workers' compensation act that benefits payments are to be paid

weekly and that the unwarranted reduction or interruption in the employee's weekly

compensation benefit payment will impose financial hardship upon the injured worker.

     (b) The chief judge shall hear the director's petition within twenty-one (21) days of the

date the matter is filed with the court. The petition shall set forth the names and addresses of each

employee who may be affected by the reduction in benefits and the court shall provide notice to

each employee. The attorney general shall appear on behalf of the employees receiving benefits

from the fund and shall take such action as he or she feels is necessary to protect the rights of the

injured employees.

     (c) In the event that the court determines that a reduction or suspension of payments is

necessary to maintain the fiscal integrity of the fund, the court shall schedule a mandatory review

date to determine whether the financial status of the fund warrants a continuation of the order

reducing such payments and shall reinstitute payments only upon finding that the reserves

maintained by the fund are sufficient to pay all future claims as they fall due.

     (d) Payments under this chapter shall not be awarded to any injured employee or

dependent if the award would directly or indirectly inure to the benefit of the uninsured employer.

     (e) No payment shall be awarded when the director or the court, in its discretion,

determines that unjust enrichment to or on behalf of the illegally uninsured employer would

result.

     (f) No interest shall be included in or added to payments under this chapter.

     (g) No payments will be awarded under this chapter to an injured employee, or in the

case of death of the injured employee, to person(s) presumed wholly dependent for support upon

the deceased employee, as defined in � 28-33-13, in a total amount in excess of fifty thousand

dollars ($50,000) plus any attorneys' fees awarded in connection with petitions for payment from

the fund.

     (h) Applications for payment under this chapter shall be filed with the director within the

time limits set forth in � 28-35-57.


 

227)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

28-53-9

86 and 98

 

 

28-53-9. Penalties, taxes and assessments against noncomplying employers.

     (a) Where it is determined that an employer has failed to maintain a policy of workers'

compensation insurance as required by Rhode Island general laws � 28-36-1 et seq. and that while

the employer was uninsured in violation of the statute, an employee suffered a compensable

injury, the uninsured employers protection fund shall commence the payment of weekly benefits

and medical expenses necessary to cure, relieve or rehabilitate the employee from the effects of

the work related injury payment to the employee as set forth herein, subject to fund availability.

The On behalf of the fund, the director shall acquire a lien against the goods and chattels of the

uninsured employer to the extent of any payments made by it to the injured employee. The lien(s)

shall arise and attach as of the date on which the fund makes payment to the injured employee

without further action by the fund or the court. The lien shall have priority over all subsequently

perfected liens and security interests.

     (b) Prior to the lien being filed with the office of the secretary of state, the employer shall

be notified by certified mail, return receipt requested, that a lien will be filed against all goods

situated in the state if the outstanding tax is not paid within seven (7) business days of receipt of

the notice.

     (c) The liens shall become perfected at the time when a notice of lien is filed pursuant to

the filing provisions of Rhode Island general laws � 6A-9-501. The notice of lien shall include the

following:

     (1) The name of the debtor, as governed by Rhode Island general laws � 6A-9-503;

     (2) The name of the director of the department of labor and training as the party claiming

the lien; and

     (3) A description of the property so encumbered as governed by the Rhode Island general

laws � 6A-9-504.

     (d) The director shall be entitled to effectively file the lien and to amend the lien quarterly

as additional payments are made or terminate it as necessary.

     (e) No filing fee shall be charged for the filing of a lien authorized by this section.

     (f) Where the employer is a corporation, the president, vice president, secretary, and

treasurer of the corporation shall be severally personally liable, jointly with a corporation for any

payments made to the injured employee by the fund, and the fund shall acquire a lien against the

goods and chattels of said the president, vice president, secretary, and treasurer to the extent of

any payments so made.

     (g) Where the employer is a limited-liability company, the managers and managing

members shall be severally personally liable, jointly with the limited-liability company for any

payments made to the injured employee by the fund and the fund shall acquire a lien against the

goods and chattels of said the manager and managing member to the extent of any payments so

made.

     (h) The liens and excise taxes levied against the non-complying noncomplying party

pursuant to this section shall be in addition to any and all other fines, penalties and assessments,

to which the party would otherwise be liable in particular the penalties mandated by Rhode Island

general laws � 28-36-15.


 

228)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

30-25-14

75 and 95

 

 

30-25-14. Rhode Island veterans' memorial cemetery.

     (a) The Rhode Island veterans' memorial cemetery, located on the grounds of the Joseph

H. Ladd school in the town of Exeter, shall be under the management and control of the director

of the department of human services. The director of the department of human services shall

appoint an administrator for the Rhode Island veterans' memorial cemetery who shall be an

honorably discharged veteran of the United States Armed Forces and shall have the general

supervision over, and shall prescribe rules for, the government and management of the cemetery.

He or she shall make all needful rules and regulations governing the operation of the cemetery

and generally may do all things necessary to ensure the successful operation thereof. The director

shall promulgate rules and regulations, not inconsistent with the provisions of 38 U.S.C. � 2402,

to govern the eligibility for burial in the Rhode Island veterans' memorial cemetery. In addition to

all persons eligible for burial pursuant to rules and regulations established by the director, any

person who served in the army, navy, air force, or marine corps of the United States for a period

of not less than two (2) years and whose service was terminated honorably, shall be eligible for

burial in the Rhode Island veterans' memorial cemetery. The director shall appoint and employ all

subordinate officials and persons needed for the proper management of the cemetery. National

guard members who are killed in the line of duty or who are honorably discharged after

completion of at least twenty (20) years' of service in the Rhode Island national guard and their

spouse shall be eligible for interment in the Rhode Island veterans' memorial cemetery. For the

purpose of computing service under this section, honorable service in the active forces or reserves

shall be considered toward the twenty (20) years of national guard service. The general assembly

shall make an annual appropriation to the department of human services to provide for the

operation and maintenance for the cemetery. The director shall charge and collect a grave liner

fee per interment of the eligible spouse and/or eligible dependents of the qualified veteran equal

to the department's cost for the grave liner.

     (b) No domestic animal shall be allowed on the grounds of the Rhode Island veterans'

memorial cemetery, whether at large or under restraint, except for seeing eye guide dogs, hearing

ear signal dogs or any other service animal, as required by federal law or any personal assistance

animal, as required by chapter 9.1 of title 40. Any person who violates the provisions of this

section shall be subject to a fine of not less than five hundred dollars ($500).

     (c) The state of Rhode Island office of veteran veterans� affairs shall bear the cost of all

tolls incurred by any motor vehicles that are part of a veteran's funeral procession, originating

from Aquidneck Island ending at the Veterans' Memorial Cemetery veterans� memorial

cemetery, for burial or internment. The executive director of the Turnpike turnpike and Bridge

Authority bridge authority shall assist in the administration and coordination of this toll

reimbursement program.


 

 

229)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-1-3

39 and 45

 

 

31-1-3. Types of vehicles.

     (a) (1) "Antique motor car" means any motor vehicle that is more than twenty-five (25)

years old. Unless fully inspected and meeting inspection requirements, the vehicle may be

maintained solely for use in exhibitions, club activities, parades, and other functions of public

interest. The vehicle may also be used for limited enjoyment and purposes other than the

previously mentioned activities, but may not be used primarily for the transportation of

passengers or goods over any public highway.

     (2) After the vehicle has met the requirements of state inspection, a registration plate may

be issued to it on payment of the standard fee. The vehicle may be operated on the highways of

this and other states, and may, in addition to the registration plate, retain the designation "antique"

and display an "antique plate".

     (3) For any vehicle that is more than twenty-five (25) years old, the division of motor

vehicles may also issue or approve, subject to rules and regulations that may be promulgated by

the administrator, a "year of manufacture plate" for the vehicle that is an exact replica plate

designating the exact year of manufacture of the vehicle.

     (b) (1) "Antique motorcycle" means any motorcycle that is more than twenty-five (25)

years old. Unless fully inspected and meeting inspection requirements, the vehicle shall be

maintained solely for use in exhibitions, club activities, parades, and other functions of public

interest. The vehicle may also be used for limited enjoyment and purposes other than the

previously mentioned activities, but may not be used primarily for the transportation of

passengers or goods over any public highway; and

     (2) After the vehicle has met the requirements of state inspection, a registration plate may

be issued to it, on payment of the standard fee, and the vehicle may be operated on the highways

of this and other states, and may, in addition to the registration plate, retain the designation

"antique" and display an "antique plate".

     (c) "Authorized emergency vehicle" means vehicles of the fire department (fire patrol);

police vehicles; vehicles used by Rhode Island state marshals in the department of corrections;

vehicles used by the state bomb squad within the division of state fire marshal; vehicles of

municipal departments or public service corporations designated or authorized by the

administrator as ambulances and emergency vehicles; and privately owned motor vehicles of

volunteer firefighters or privately owned motor vehicles of volunteer ambulance drivers or

attendants, as authorized by the department chief or commander and permitted by the Rhode

Island Association of Fire Chiefs and Rhode Island Association of Police Chiefs Joint Committee

for Volunteer Warning Light Permits.

     (d) "Automobile" means, for registration purposes, every motor vehicle carrying

passengers other than for hire.

     (e) "Bicycle" means every vehicle having two (2) tandem wheels, except scooters and

similar devices, propelled exclusively by human power, and upon which a person may ride.

     (f) "Camping recreational vehicle" means a vehicular type camping unit, certified by the

manufacturer as complying with ANSI A119.2 Standards, designed primarily as temporary living

quarters for recreation that has either its own motor power or is mounted on, or towed by, another

vehicle. The basic units are tent trailers, fifth-wheel trailers, motorized campers, travel trailers,

and pick-up campers.

     (g) "Electric motorized bicycles bicycle" means a motorized bicycle that may be

propelled by human power or electric motor power, or by both, with an electric motor rated not

more than two (2) (S.A.E.) horsepower, that is capable of a maximum speed of not more than

twenty-five (25) miles per hour.

     (h) "Electric personal assistive mobility device" ("EPAMD") is a self-balancing, non-

tandem two-wheeled (2) device, designed to transport only one person, with an electric

propulsion system that limits the maximum speed of the device to fifteen (15) miles per hour.

     (i) Fifth-wheel trailer: A towable recreational vehicle, not exceeding four hundred

(400) square feet in area, designed to be towed by a motorized vehicle that contains a towing

mechanism that is mounted above or forward of the tow vehicle's rear axle and that is eligible to

be registered for highway use.

     (j) "Hearse" means every motor vehicle used for transporting human corpses. A hearse

shall be considered an automobile for registration purposes.

     (k) "Jitney or bus" means: (1) A "public bus" that includes every motor vehicle, trailer,

semi-trailer, tractor trailer, or tractor trailer combination, used for the transportation of passengers

for hire, and operated wholly or in part upon any street or highway as a means of transportation

similar to that afforded by a street railway company, by indiscriminately receiving or discharging

passengers, or running on a regular route or over any portion of one, or between fixed termini; or

(2) A "private bus" that includes every motor vehicle other than a public bus or passenger van

designed for carrying more than ten (10) passengers and used for the transportation of persons,

and every motor vehicle other than a taxicab designed and used for the transportation of persons

for compensation.

     (l) "Motorcycle" means only those motor vehicles having not more than three (3) wheels

in contact with the ground and a saddle on which the driver sits astride, except bicycles with

helper motors as defined in subsection (n) of this section.

     (m) "Motor-driven cycle" means every motorcycle, including every motor scooter, with a

motor of no greater than five (5) horsepower, except bicycles with helper motors as defined in

subsection (n) of this section.

     (n) "Motorized bicycles" means two-wheel (2) vehicles that may be propelled by human

power or helper power, or by both, with a motor rated not more than four and nine-tenths (4.9)

horsepower and not greater than fifty (50) cubic centimeters, that are capable of a maximum

speed of not more than thirty (30) miles per hour.

     (o) Motorized camper: A camping recreational vehicle, built on, or permanently

attached to, a self-propelled motor vehicle chassis cab or van that is an integral part of the

completed vehicle.

     (p) "Motorized tricycles" means tricycles that may be propelled by human power or

helper motor, or by both, with a motor rated no more than 1.5 brake horsepower that is capable of

a maximum speed of not more than thirty (30) miles per hour.

     (q) "Motorized wheelchair" means any self-propelled vehicle, designed for, and used by,

a person with a disability that is incapable of speed in excess of eight (8) miles per hour.

     (r) "Motor scooter" means a motor-driven cycle with a motor rated not more than four

and nine-tenths (4.9) horsepower and not greater than fifty (50) cubic centimeters that is capable

of a maximum speed of not more than thirty (30) miles per hour.

     (s) "Motor vehicle" means every vehicle that is self-propelled or propelled by electric

power obtained from overhead trolley wires, but not operated upon rails, except vehicles moved

exclusively by human power, an EPAMD and electric motorized bicycles as defined in subsection

(g) of this section, and motorized wheelchairs.

     (t) "Motor vehicle for hire" means every motor vehicle other than jitneys, public buses,

hearses, and motor vehicles used chiefly in connection with the conduct of funerals, to transport

persons for compensation in any form, or motor vehicles rented for transporting persons either

with or without furnishing an operator.

     (u) (v) Park trailer: A camping recreational vehicle that is eligible to be registered for

highway use and meets the following criteria: (1) Built on a single chassis mounted on wheels;

and (2) Certified by the manufacturer as complying with ANSI A119.5.

     (v) (w) "Passenger van" means every motor vehicle capable of carrying ten (10) to

fourteen (14) passengers plus an operator and used for personal use or on a not-for-hire basis.

Passenger vans may be used for vanpools, transporting passengers to and from work locations,

provided that the operator receives no remuneration other than free use of the vehicle.

     (w) (x) "Pedal carriages carriage" (also known as "quadricycles") means a nonmotorized

bicycle with four (4) or more wheels operated by one or more persons for the purpose of, or

capable of, transporting additional passengers in seats or on a platform made a part of or

otherwise attached to the pedal carriage. The term shall not include a bicycle with trainer or

beginner wheels affixed to it, nor shall it include a wheelchair or other vehicle with the purpose of

operation by or for the transportation of a handicapped person with a disability, nor shall it

include a tricycle built for a child or an adult with a seat for only one operator and no passenger.

     (x) (y) "Pick-up camper": A camping recreational vehicle consisting of a roof, floor, and

sides designed to be loaded onto and unloaded from the back of a pick-up truck.

     (y) (z) "Rickshaws Rickshaw" (also known as "pedi cabs cab") means a nonmotorized

bicycle with three (3) wheels operated by one person for the purpose of, or capable of,

transporting additional passengers in seats or on a platform made a part of, or otherwise attached

to, the rickshaw. This definition shall not include a bicycle built for two (2) where the operators

are seated one behind the other, nor shall it include the operation of a bicycle with trainer or

beginner wheels affixed thereto, nor shall it include a wheelchair or other vehicle with the

purpose of operation by or for the transportation of a handicapped person with a disability.

     (z) (aa) "School bus" means every motor vehicle owned by a public or governmental

agency, when operated for the transportation of children to or from school; or privately owned,

when operated for compensation for the transportation of children to or from school.

     (aa) (bb) "Suburban vehicle" means every motor vehicle with a convertible or

interchangeable body or with removable seats, usable for both passenger and delivery purposes,

and including motor vehicles commonly known as station or depot wagons or any vehicle into

which access can be gained through the rear by means of a hatch or trunk and where the rear seats

can be folded down to permit the carrying of articles as well as passengers.

     (bb) (cc) "Tent trailer": A towable recreational vehicle that is mounted on wheels and

constructed with collapsible partial side walls that fold for towing by another vehicle and unfold

for use and that is eligible to be registered for highway use.

     (cc) (dd) "Trackless trolley coach" means every motor vehicle that is propelled by

electric power obtained from overhead trolley wires, but not operated on rails.

     (dd) (ee) Travel trailer: A towable recreational vehicle, not exceeding three hundred

twenty (320) square feet (320�) in area, designed to be towed by a motorized vehicle containing a

towing mechanism that is mounted behind the tow vehicle's bumper and that is eligible to be

registered for highway use.

     (ee) (ff) "Vehicle" means every device in, upon, or by which any person or property is or

may be transported or drawn upon a highway, except devices used exclusively upon stationary

rails or tracks.

     (ff) (u) "Natural gas vehicle" means a vehicle operated by an engine fueled primarily by

natural gas.


 

230)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-1-4

39 and 45

 

 

31-1-4. Trucks and tractors.

     (a) "Farm tractor" means every motor vehicle designed and used primarily as a farm

implement, for drawing plows, mowing machines, and other implements of husbandry or farm

vehicles.

     (b) "Tow cars and tow trucks" means every motor vehicle ordinarily used for the purpose

of towing or removing motor vehicles or assisting disabled motor vehicles.

     (c) "Truck" means every motor vehicle designed, used, or maintained primarily for the

transportation of property. The administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall determine, in

case of doubt, if a motor vehicle is subject to registration as a truck.

     (d) "Truck tractor" means a non-cargo-carrying power unit that operates in combination

with a semi-trailer or trailer, except that a truck tractor and a semi-trailer or trailer engaged in the

transportation of automobiles may transport motor vehicles on part of the power unit.

     (e) "Covered heavy-duty tow and recovery vehicle" means a vehicle that is transporting a

disabled vehicle from the place where the vehicle became disabled to the nearest appropriate

repair facility; and, provided the vehicle has a gross vehicle weight that is equal to or exceeds the

gross vehicle weight of the disabled vehicle being transported.

     (f)(1) "Trailer transporter towing unit" means a power unit that is not used to carry

property when operating in a towaway trailer transporter combination.

     (2) "Towaway trailer transporter combination" means a combination of vehicles

consisting of a trailer transporter towing unit and two (2) trailers or semitrailers:

     (i) With a total weight that does not exceed twenty-six thousand pounds (26,000 lbs.);

and

     (ii) In which the trailers or semitrailers carry no property and constitute inventory

property of a manufacturer, distributor, or dealer of such the trailers or semitrailers.


 

231)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-1-5

39 and 45

 

 

31-1-5. Trailers.

     (a) "Automobile transporter" means any vehicle combination designed and used for the

transport of assembled highway vehicles, including truck camper units. An automobile

transporter shall not be prohibited from the transport of cargo or general freight on a backhaul,

provided it complies with weight limitations for a truck tractor and semitrailer combination.

     (a)(b) "Pole trailer" means every vehicle without motive power designed to be drawn by

another vehicle and attached to the towing vehicle by means of a reach, or pole, or by being

boomed or secured to the towing vehicle, and ordinarily used for transporting long or irregularly

shaped loads such as poles, pipes, or structural members capable, generally, of sustaining

themselves as beams between the supporting connections.

     (b)(c) "Semi-trailer" means every vehicle with or without motive power, other than a pole

trailer, designed for carrying persons or property and for being drawn by a motor vehicle,

constructed so that some of its weight and that of its load rests upon or is carried by another

vehicle.

     (c)(d) "Tractor-semi-trailer combination" means every combination of a tractor and a

semi-trailer properly attached to the tractor to form an articulated vehicle.

     (d)(e) "Tractor-trailer combination" means every combination of a tractor and a trailer,

properly attached to the tractor to form an articulated vehicle.

     (e)(f) "Trailer" means every vehicle without motive power, other than a pole trailer,

designed for carrying persons or property and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, constructed so

that none of its weight rests upon the towing vehicle.


 

232)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-3-6

175 and 293

 

 

31-3-6. List of vehicles on which taxes delinquent -- Denial of registration.

     (a) On or before October 31 in each year, the collector of taxes of each city or town shall

furnish the division of motor vehicles, with a listing showing the registration plate numbers,

names, and addresses of the taxpayers of the city or town whose personal property and/or excise

tax on motor vehicles, the assessment of which were made the prior December 31 in the case of

the property tax, and the tax levied in the current year in the case of the excise tax, remained

unpaid as of the date of the list. Subsequently, the collector of taxes in each city or town shall, at

the times and in the manner prescribed by the administrator of the division of motor vehicles,

furnish to the division of motor vehicles the names and addresses of those persons whose names

appeared on that list who have subsequently paid such the personal property, and/or excise taxes

on motor vehicles, and the division shall remove from the list the names and addresses of those

persons. No city or town treasurer or tax collector shall refuse to accept personal property, and/or

excise taxes on a motor vehicle, or refuse to remove the names and addresses of the owners of the

vehicle from the list because of any other taxes owing the city or town. No person, corporation,

partnership, joint stock company, or association whose name appears on the list and whose name

has not been subsequently removed from the list shall be permitted to register any motor vehicle

until all the excise and attendant penalties have been paid in full and the payment has been

certified to the division of motor vehicles by the tax collector. The provisions of this section shall

not be construed so as to prevent the payment of taxes on motor vehicles in quarterly installments

as provided in chapter 5 of title 44. The provisions of this section shall apply in all respects in the

case of taxes assessed upon motor vehicles by any fire district.

     (b) The division of motor vehicles (the "division") shall provide a written notice to those

persons or other taxpayers (the "person") whose name appears on the list generated in accordance

with the provisions of subsection (a) of this section. This notice shall include:

     (1) The name of the municipality or other entity providing the person's name to the

division; and

     (2) A statement that the person identified on the list shall not be permitted to register any

motor vehicle until the tax matter has been resolved and the person's name is removed from the

list as provided for under subsection (a) of this section.


 

233)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-3-17.1

134 and 249

 

 

31-3-17.1. Courtesy plates.

     (a) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall design and issue under

regulations that he or she deems appropriate, special courtesy automobile, motorcycle, and

commercial registration plates to be used on passenger motor vehicles, motorcycles, and all

commercial vehicles whose gross weight is not more than nine thousand pounds (9,000 lbs.) in

lieu of other number plates. Special plates shall be of such design and shall bear such letters or

combinations of letters and numbers as the administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall

prescribe, and shall be made of light-reflecting sheeting applied on a metal base, provided that no

automobile set of plates shall contain more than six (6) letters and numbers in a combination of

letters and numbers, or less than two (2) letters, and that no motorcycle plate shall contain more

than five (5) letters or more than five (5) letters and numbers in a combination or less than two (2)

letters, and that a commercial courtesy plate shall be marked "commercial," and shall contain no

more than six (6) letters or more than six (6) letters and numbers in a combination or less than

two (2) letters, and provided further, that there shall be no duplication of identification and the

administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall, in his or her discretion, refuse to issue any

letter or combination of letters and numbers which that might carry connotations offensive to

good taste and decency. A special automobile or commercial courtesy plate shall be issued upon

application using forms furnished by the administrator of the division of motor vehicles, and upon

payment, in addition to the regular prescribed motor vehicle registration fee, a service charge of

sixty dollars ($60.00) for each issue and for each registration renewal. For motorcycles, a special

courtesy plate shall be issued upon application using forms furnished by the division of motor

vehicles, and upon payment, in addition to the regular prescribed motor vehicle registration fee, a

service charge of thirty-four dollars ($34.00) for each issue and for each registration renewal. The

service charge shall be paid to the administrator of the division of motor vehicles prior to the

administrator's acceptance of the application. The Rhode Island state lottery commission shall not

be required to pay the service charge for any special courtesy plate issued pursuant to this section

for motor vehicles owned or used by the lottery commission, and may utilize the special courtesy

plates on all types of vehicles owned or operated by the lottery commission.

     (b) For any vehicle that is registered in accordance with � 31-1-3(a), the division of motor

vehicles may also issue or approve, subject to rules and regulations that may be promulgated by

the administrator, a courtesy registration plate in accordance with the provisions of this section.


 

234)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-3-86

115 and 227

 

 

31-3-86. Special plate for Friends of Plum Beach Lighthouse, Inc.

     (a) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles is empowered to make available

special motor vehicle registration plates for the not-for profit Friends of Plum Beach Lighthouse,

Inc. The plates shall be designed to reference Friends of Plum Beach Lighthouse, Inc.

     (b) The special plate shall be displayed upon the same registration number assigned to the

vehicle for which it was issued, and shall be used in place of and in the same manner as the

registration plates issued to the vehicle. The original registration plates for the vehicle shall be

removed from the vehicle and returned to the division of motor vehicles. The registration

certificate for the plates shall be carried in the vehicle, in accordance with � 31-3-9. The

registration certificate shall be in effect for the special plate.

     (c) The Friends of Plum Beach Lighthouse, Inc. motor vehicle plates shall be the same

size as regular motor vehicle plates, and shall be designed by the Friends of Plum Beach

Lighthouse, Inc. in conjunction with the division of motor vehicles, with the design approved by

the Rhode Island state police.

     (d) The Friends of Plum Beach Lighthouse, Inc. plates shall be subject to a minimum pre-

paid order of at least nine hundred (900) sets of plates per plate type (i.e. passenger, commercial,

etc.). The Friends of Plum Beach Lighthouse, Inc. plates shall not be issued unless the minimum

order(s) requirements are met. The initial order will be handled by the Friends of Plum Beach

Lighthouse, Inc., and shall not be submitted to the division of motor vehicles for production until

the minimum order(s) have been met, and the proper paperwork submitted to the division.

     (e) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall develop application forms,

pre-payment procedures, and any other procedures deemed necessary to carry out the purposes of

this section.

     (f) In addition to the regular prescribed motor vehicle registration fee, the Friends of

Plum Beach Lighthouse, Inc. plates shall be subject to a forty dollar ($40.00) issuance surcharge.

     (g) The forty dollar ($40.00) issuance surcharge shall be allocated as follows:

     Twenty dollars ($20.00) shall be allocated to the general fund and the remaining twenty

dollars ($20.00) shall be distributed annually to the Friends of Plum Beach Lighthouse, Inc. to

assist in the fiscal needs required to maintain and protect this historic site for all to enjoy, and to

continue in the fostering of the Friends of Plum Beach Lighthouse's, Inc. presence as an asset to

Rhode Island's economic growth and prosperity. (The distribution to the Friends of Plum Beach

Lighthouse, Inc. shall be placed in a restricted account and shall be paid to the Friends of Plum

Beach Lighthouse, Inc.)

     (h) An additional ten dollar ($10.00) surcharge for subsequent registration renewals shall

apply to holders of the plate. All proceeds shall be distributed annually to the Friends of Plum

Beach Lighthouse, Inc., to assist in the fiscal needs required to maintain and protect the iconic

Plum Beach Lighthouse. The distribution to the Friends of Plum Beach Lighthouse, Inc., shall be

placed in a restricted account and shall be paid to the Friends of Plum Beach Lighthouse, Inc.

     (h)(i) The Friends of Plum Beach Lighthouse, Inc. will be required to submit an annual

accounting report before such monies are distributed.

     (i)(j) There shall be no refunds for early cancellation of Friends of Plum Beach

Lighthouse, Inc. plates.


 

235)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

31-3-118

29 and 30

 

 

31-3-118. Special plate for Day of Portugal and Portuguese Heritage in RI, Inc.

     (a) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles is empowered to make available

special motor vehicle registration plates for the not-for-profit Day of Portugal and Portuguese

Heritage in RI, Inc. The plates shall be designed to reference Day of Portugal and Portuguese

Heritage in RI, Inc.

     (b) The special plate shall be displayed upon the same registration number assigned to the

vehicle for which it was issued, and shall be used in place of and in the same manner as the

registration plates issued to the vehicle. The original registration plates for the vehicle shall be

removed from the vehicle and returned to the division of motor vehicles. The registration

certificate for the plates shall be carried in the vehicle, in accordance with � 31-3-9. The

registration certificate shall be in effect for the special plate.

     (c) Day of Portugal and Portuguese Heritage in RI, Inc. motor vehicle plates shall be the

same size as regular motor vehicle plates, and shall be designed by Day of Portugal and

Portuguese Heritage in RI, Inc. in conjunction with the division of motor vehicles, with the design

approved by the RI state police.

     (d) Day of Portugal and Portuguese Heritage in RI, Inc. plates shall be subject to a

minimum pre-paid order of at least nine hundred (900) sets of plates per plate type (i.e. passenger,

commercial, etc.). Day of Portugal and Portuguese Heritage in RI, Inc. plates shall not be issued

unless the minimum order(s) requirements are met. The initial order will be handled by Day of

Portugal and Portuguese Heritage in RI, Inc., and shall not be submitted to the division of motor

vehicles for production until the minimum order(s) have been met, and the proper paperwork

submitted to the division.

     (e) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall develop application forms,

pre-payment procedures, and any other procedures deemed necessary to carry out the purposes of

this section.

     (f) In addition to the regular prescribed motor vehicle registration fee, Day of Portugal

and Portuguese Heritage in RI, Inc. plates shall be subject to a forty-dollar ($40.00) issuance

surcharge.

     (g) The forty-dollar ($40.00) issuance surcharge shall be allocated as follows: tTwenty

dollars ($20.00) shall be allocated to the general fund and the remaining twenty dollars ($20.00)

shall be distributed annually to Day of Portugal and Portuguese Heritage in RI, Inc. to assist in

the fiscal needs and in furtherance of is its mission.

     (h) A ten-dollar ($10) surcharge for subsequent registration renewals will go to Day of

Portugal and Portuguese Heritage in RI, Inc.

     (i) Day of Portugal and Portuguese Heritage in RI, Inc. will be required to submit an

annual accounting report before such monies are distributed.

     (j) There shall be no refunds for early cancellation of Day of Portugal and Portuguese

Heritage in RI, Inc. for motor vehicle license plates.

     (k) In consideration of the receipt of funds from the registration of Day of Portugal and

Portuguese Heritage in RI, Inc. plates, the organization must use any Rhode Island-sourced funds

in and for the benefit of Rhode Island-based charitable organizations.


 

236)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

31-3-119

107 and 112

 

 

31-3-119. Special plate for Narragansett Council, Boy Scouts of America.

     (a) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles is empowered to make available

special motor vehicle registration plates for the not-for-profit corporation Narragansett Council,

Boy Scouts of America. The plates shall be designed to reference Narragansett Council, Boy

Scouts of America.

     (b) The special plate shall be displayed upon the same registration number assigned to the

vehicle for which it was issued, and shall be used in place of and in the same manner as the

registration plates issued to the vehicle. The original registration plates for the vehicle shall be

removed from the vehicle and returned to the division of motor vehicles. The registration

certificate for the plates shall be carried in the vehicle, in accordance with � 31-3-9. The

registration certificate shall be in effect for the special plate.

     (c) The Narragansett Council, Boy Scouts of America motor vehicle plates shall be the

same size as regular motor vehicle plates, and shall be designed by the Narragansett Council, Boy

Scouts of America in conjunction with the division of motor vehicles, with the design approved

by the Rhode Island state police.

     (d) The Narragansett Council, Boy Scouts of America plates shall be subject to a

minimum pre-paid order of at least nine hundred (900) sets of plates per plate type (i.e. passenger,

commercial, etc.). The Narragansett Council, Boy Scouts of America plates shall not be issued

unless the minimum order(s) requirements are met. The initial order will be handled by the

Narragansett Council, Boy Scouts of America, and shall not be submitted to the division of motor

vehicles for production until the minimum order(s) have been met, and the proper paperwork

submitted to the division.

     (e) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles shall develop application forms,

pre-payment procedures, and any other procedures deemed necessary to carry out the purposes of

this section.

     (f) In addition to the regular prescribed motor vehicle registration fee, the Narragansett

Council, Boy Scouts of America plates shall be subject to a forty-dollar ($40.00) issuance

surcharge.

     (g) The forty-dollar ($40.00) issuance surcharge shall be allocated as follows:

     Twenty dollars ($20.00) shall be allocated to the general fund and the remaining twenty

dollars ($20.00) shall be distributed annually to the Narragansett Council, Boy Scouts of America

to assist in the furtherance of its programs in the state of Rhode Island.

     (h) The Narragansett Council, Boy Scouts of America will be required to submit an

annual accounting report before such monies are distributed.

     (i) There shall be no refunds for early cancellation of Rhode Island Boy Scout plates.


 

 237)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

31-3-120

314 and 344

 

 

31-3-120. Police chief emeritus - Gary Malikowski.

     The administrator of the division of motor vehicles is authorized and directed to issue a

special registration plate for the motor vehicle of the former police chief of the town of West

Greenwich, Gary Malikowski. This plate is to bear the identification "Police Chief Emeritus,",

along with an appropriate designation number imprinted on it and shall be furnished without

additional registration charge for such period of time as Gary Malikowski may desire.


 

238)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-3.1-2

13 and 21

 

 

31-3.1-2. Exclusions.

     No certificate of title need be obtained for:

     (1) A vehicle owned by the United States unless it is registered in this state;

     (2) A vehicle owned by a manufacturer or dealer and held for sale, even though

incidentally moved on the highway, or used for purposes of testing or demonstration; or a vehicle

used by a manufacturer solely for testing;

     (3) A vehicle owned by a nonresident of this state and not required by law to be

registered in this state;

     (4) A vehicle regularly engaged in the interstate transportation of persons or property for

which a currently effective certificate of title has been issued in another state;

     (5) A vehicle moved solely by human or animal power;

     (6) An implement of husbandry;

     (7) Special mobile equipment;

     (8) A self-propelled invalid wheel chair wheelchair or tricycle;

     (9) A trailer without motive power and designed for carrying property, to be drawn by a

motor vehicle and having a capacity gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) of three thousand

pounds (3,000 lbs.) or less. As used herein, the term "trailer" does not include a travel trailer, a

fifth-wheel trailer, or park trailer, as defined in � 31-1-3;

     (10) Motorized bicycles; and

     (11) A mobile home or other nonmotorized dwelling unit built on a chassis greater than

eight feet six inches (8' 6") in width or sixty feet (60') in length and containing complete

electrical, plumbing, and sanitary facilities, and designed to be installed on a temporary or

permanent foundation for permanent living quarters.


 

239)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-5.1-6

127 and 266

 

 

31-5.1-6. Warranty agreement.

     (a) Every manufacturer shall properly fulfill any warranty agreement and adequately and

fairly compensate each of its motor vehicle dealers for labor and parts. In no event shall that

compensation fail to include reasonable compensation for diagnostic work, as well as repair

service and labor. All claims made by motor vehicle dealers for labor and parts shall be paid in

accord with the provisions of subsection (b) of this section. Any delay in payment after approval

or disapproval that is caused by conditions beyond the reasonable control of the manufacturer

shall not constitute a violation of this section. Reimbursement for warranty repairs or diagnostic

work shall be at the dealer retail rate in effect at the time the warranty repair or diagnostic work is

performed. Compensation for parts used in warranty service shall be fair and reasonable, as

determined by methods described in subsection (b) of this section. Compensation for labor used

in warranty service shall be fair and reasonable, as determined by methods described in

subsection (c) of this section.

     (b) The retail rate customarily charged by the dealer for parts shall be established by the

dealer submitting to the manufacturer or distributor one hundred (100) sequential non-warranty

customer-paid service repair orders which that contain warranty-like parts, or sixty (60)

consecutive days of non-warranty customer-paid service repair orders which that contain

warranty-like parts, whichever is less, covering repairs made no more than one hundred eighty

(180) days before the submission and declaring the average percentage markup. The average of

the markup rates shall be presumed to be fair and reasonable, however, a manufacturer or

distributor may, not later than thirty (30) days after submission, rebut that presumption by

reasonably substantiating that the rate is unfair and unreasonable in light of the practices of all

other franchised motor vehicle dealers in the vicinity offering the same line-make vehicles. The

retail rate shall go into effect thirty (30) days following the declaration, subject to audit of the

submitted repair orders by the franchisor and a rebuttal of the declared rate as described above. If

the declared rate is rebutted, the manufacturer or distributor shall propose an adjustment of the

average percentage markup based on that rebuttal not later than thirty (30) days after submission.

If the dealer does not agree with the proposed average percentage markup, the dealer may file a

protest with the department not later than thirty (30) days after receipt of that proposal by the

manufacturer or distributor. If such the a protest is filed, the department shall inform the

manufacturer or distributor that a timely protest has been filed and that a hearing will be held on

such the protest. In any hearing held pursuant to this subsection, the manufacturer or distributor

shall have the burden of proving that the rate declared by the dealer was unfair and unreasonable

as described in this subsection and that the proposed adjustment of the average percentage

markup is fair and reasonable pursuant to the provisions of this subsection.

     (c) The retail rate customarily charged by the dealer for labor may be established by

submitting to the manufacturer or distributor all non-warranty customer-paid service repair orders

covering repairs made during the month prior to the submission and dividing the amount of the

dealer's total labor sales by the number of total labor hours that generated those sales. The

average labor rate shall be presumed to be fair and reasonable, provided a manufacturer or

distributor may, not later than thirty (30) days after submission, rebut such the presumption by

reasonably substantiating that such the rate is unfair and unreasonable in light of the practices of

all other franchised motor vehicle dealers in the vicinity offering the same line-make vehicles.

The average labor rate shall go into effect thirty (30) days following the declaration, subject to

audit of the submitted repair orders by the franchisor and a rebuttal of such the declared rate. If

the declared rate is rebutted, the manufacturer or distributor shall propose an adjustment of the

average labor rate based on such the rebuttal not later than thirty (30) days after submission. If

the dealer does not agree with the proposed average labor rate, the dealer may file a protest with

the department not later than thirty (30) days after receipt of that proposal by the manufacturer or

distributor. If such a protest is filed, the department shall inform the manufacturer or distributor

that a timely protest has been filed and that a hearing will be held on such the protest. In any

hearing held pursuant to this subsection, the manufacturer or distributor shall have the burden of

proving that the rate declared by the dealer was unfair and unreasonable as described in this

subsection and that the proposed adjustment of the average labor rate is fair and reasonable

pursuant to the provisions of this subsection.

     (d) In calculating the retail rate customarily charged by the dealer for parts and labor, the

following work shall not be included in the calculation:

     (1) Repairs for manufacturer or distributor special events, specials, or promotional

discounts for retail customer repairs;

     (2) Parts sold at wholesale;

     (3) Engine assemblies and transmission assemblies;

     (4) Routine maintenance not covered under any retail customer warranty, such as fluids,

filters, and belts not provided in the course of repairs;

     (5) Nuts, bolts, fasteners, and similar items that do not have an individual part number;

     (6) Tires; and

     (7) Vehicle reconditioning.

     (e) If a manufacturer or distributor furnishes a part or component to a dealer, at no cost,

to use in performing repairs under a recall, campaign service action, or warranty repair, the

manufacturer or distributor shall compensate the dealer for the part or component in the same

manner as warranty parts compensation under this section by compensating the dealer the average

markup on the cost for the part or component as listed in the manufacturer's or distributor's price

schedule less the cost for the part or component.

     (f) A manufacturer or distributor may not require a dealer to establish the retail rate

customarily charged by the dealer for parts and labor by an unduly burdensome or time-

consuming method or by requiring information that is unduly burdensome or time consuming to

provide, including, but not limited to, part-by-part or transaction-by-transaction calculations. A

dealer may not declare an average percentage markup or average labor rate more than twice in

one calendar year.

     (g) A manufacturer or distributor may not otherwise recover its costs from dealers within

this state, including an increase in the wholesale price of a vehicle or surcharge imposed on a

dealer solely intended to recover the cost of reimbursing a dealer for parts and labor pursuant to

this section, provided a manufacturer or distributor shall not be prohibited from increasing prices

for vehicles or parts in the normal course of business.

     (h) Each manufacturer or distributor shall perform all warranty obligations, include in

written notices of factory recalls to owners and dealers the expected date by which necessary

parts and equipment will be available to dealers for the correction of such the defects, and

compensate dealers for repairs necessitated by such recall.

     (b)(i) A claim filed under this section by a dealer with a manufacturer or distributor shall

be:

     (1) In the manner and form prescribed by the manufacturer or distributor; and

     (2) (i) Approved or disapproved within (30) days of receipt.

     (ii) A claim not approved or disapproved within thirty (30) days of receipt shall be

deemed approved.

     (iii) Payment of, or credit issued on, a claim filed under this section shall be made within

thirty (30) days of approval.

     (3) (i) If a claim filed under this section is shown by the manufacturer or distributor to be

false or unsubstantiated, the manufacturer or distributor may charge back the claim within twelve

(12) months from the date the claim was paid or credit issued.

     (ii) A manufacturer or distributor shall not charge back a claim based solely on a motor

vehicle dealer's incidental failure to comply with a specific claim processing requirement, such as

a clerical error or other administrative technicality that does not put into question the legitimacy

of the claim after the motor vehicle dealer properly resubmits the claim in accordance with the

manufacturer's or distributor's submission guidelines.

     (iii) A dealer shall have no less than sixty (60) days from the date of notification by a

manufacturer or distributor of a charge back to the dealer to resubmit a claim for payment or

compensation if the claim was denied for a dealer's incidental failure as set forth in subsection

(3)(ii) (i)(3)(ii) of this section, whether the chargeback was a direct or an indirect transaction.

     (iv) This subdivision does not limit the right of a manufacturer or distributor to charge

back for any claim that is proven to be fraudulent.


 

240)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-6-8

119 and 224

 

 

31-6-8. Disabled veterans.

     (a) Any veteran who has been honorably discharged from the service of the armed forces

or the merchant marine of the United States in any of the wars or campaigns in which the United

States has been engaged and who, while engaged in these wars or campaigns or as a result of

engagement in these wars or campaigns, by reason of amputation, has lost one or both of his or

her arms, hands, feet, or legs, or who, by reason of other permanent injury, has lost the use of one

or both of his or her arms, hands, feet, or legs, or to whom has been granted a motor vehicle under

chapter 870-2D, United States Public Laws 663, enacted 1946, 79th Congress, or has been

determined by the Veterans' Administration to suitable documentation from the U.S. Department

of Veterans' Affairs to establish that the veteran:

     (1) Has have a combined service connected disability rating of one hundred percent

(100%); or

     (2) Is considered "individually unemployable" due to their his or her service-connected

disability, shall be forever exempt from the payment of any fee for the annual registration of and

a license to operate that motor vehicle.

     (b) The administrator for the division of motor vehicles shall issue to an eligible veteran

for use on an automobile, or on a commercial vehicle having a gross weight of six thousand three

hundred pounds (6,300 lbs.) or less, registration plates designated "Disabled Veteran". Upon the

death of the holder of "Disabled Veteran" plates, the plates may be transferred to his or her

surviving spouse for his or her lifetime or until he or she remarries. Only one set of "Disabled

Veteran" plates shall be issued to an eligible veteran and only after certification of eligibility from

the Veterans' Administration or other satisfactory documentation of eligibility is presented.


 

241)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-10-20

131 and 291

 

 

31-10-20. Driver education course requirement before licensing.

     (a) No limited-instruction permit or license shall be issued to any person not more than

eighteen (18) years of age unless that person shall have successfully completed a course of

instruction as provided in � 31-10-19, or a similar course of instruction recognized by the Rhode

Island board of governors for higher education as equivalent to it. However, any person who is

over eighteen (18) years of age and has been a holder of a motor vehicle operator's license issued

to that person by any other state, territory, or possession of the United States, or any other

sovereignty for a period of one year immediately prior to his or her application for a license under

this chapter shall not be required to comply with the provisions of this section.

     (b) Commencing on July 1, 2004, no limited-instruction permit or license shall be issued

to any person not more than eighteen (18) years of age unless that person shall have successfully

completed a course of instruction as provided in � 31-10-19, or a similar course of instruction in

another state recognized by the Rhode Island board of governors for higher education as

equivalent to it. In determining whether a course is equivalent, the Rhode Island board of

governors for higher education shall at a minimum require: (1) that That the course consist of at

least thirty-three (33) instructional hours which that substantially conform with the current

curriculum utilized by the instructor(s) at the Community College of Rhode Island, including a

minimum of three (3) hours of instruction focusing upon specific Rhode Island traffic laws, the

specific requirements of the Rhode Island graduated-licensing statute in � 31-10-6, and eight (8)

hours specifically for instruction on the effects of alcohol and drugs on a driver. All driver's

education programs shall include information concerning the revised uniform Anatomical Gift

Act, chapter 18.6 18.6.1 of title 23, and information on donor cards pursuant to the applicable

provisions of chapter 18.6 18.6.1 of title 23; (2) that That the instructor holds a valid teacher's

certificate; (3) that That the instructor satisfactorily completes at least a three-(3) credit (3)

course in traffic safety education at an accredited institution of higher education; and (4) that

That the program does not offer outside the classroom road test instruction or driving lessons to

Rhode Island students. However, any person who is over eighteen (18) years of age and has been

a holder of a motor vehicle operator's license issued to that person by any other state, territory, or

possession of the United States, or any other sovereignty for a period of one year immediately

prior to his or her application for a license under this chapter shall not be required to comply with

the provisions of this section.

     (c) The driver's education course and driver's license examination shall include material

pertaining to a driver's rights and responsibilities when stopped by a law enforcement officer as

explained during the driver education course, including, but not limited to, rights provided to

drivers pursuant to chapter 21. 2 of title 31, the "comprehensive community-police relationship

act of 2015".


 

242)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-10-26

35 and 36

 

 

31-10-26. Issuance of license.

     (a) The division of motor vehicles shall, upon payment of the required fee, issue to every

qualifying applicant an operator's or chauffeur's license. The license shall be approximately two

and one-half inches (2 1/2") wide and three and one-half inches (3 1/2") long and shall bear on it

a distinguishing number assigned to the licensee,; the full name,; date of birth,; residence

address,; brief description of the licensee,; a photograph of the licensee,; whether the licensee has

indicated a desire to donate tissue or organs pursuant to the provisions of chapter 18.6 of title 23,;

and either a space upon which the licensee shall write his or her usual signature with pen and ink

or a facsimile of the signature of the licensee. No license shall be valid until it has been so signed

by the licensee designated on it. A negative file of all photographs of licensees shall be

maintained by the division of motor vehicles for a period of five (5) years.

     (b) The division of motor vehicles shall issue an operator's or chauffeur's license pursuant

to this chapter to every qualifying applicant, including, but not limited to, any current or past

recipient of a grant of deferred action under the Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals (DACA)

program, provided any applicant subject to the DACA program shall provide evidence of having

received said the grant from the United States Citizen Citizenship and Immigration Services.

     (b)(c) The division of motor vehicles shall issue special licenses to those licensees who

have indicated that they desire to donate tissue or organs, which conform to the provisions of the

Rhode Island Anatomical Gift Act, chapter 18.6 of title 23 Revised Uniform Anatomical Gift

Act, chapter 18.6.1 of title 23.

     (c)(d) Any person who is a law enforcement officer, meaning any permanently employed

member of the state, city, or town police departments, sheriffs and deputy sheriffs, members of

the marshal's unit, capitol police, and the state fire marshal and deputy fire marshals of the

division of fire safety building design and fire professionals or a member of the department of

attorney general, any permanently employed federal law enforcement officer assigned in Rhode

Island, or any member of the United States Attorney's Office in Rhode Island or any employee of

the R.I. department of corrections, as recommended by the director of the department of

corrections, upon request of the applicant, shall be issued a license which that contains the

applicant's official business address in lieu of a residence address as required under the general

provisions of this section.

     (d)(e) The license issued to a person applying for the first time shall be designated as a

"first license". A first license shall be issued for a one-year period after which time a permanent

driver's license shall be issued according to this section.

     (e)(f) If an applicant has been adjudicated for committing one moving motor vehicle

violation, has been involved in one reportable motor vehicle accident, or both, he or she shall be

summoned for a hearing before a judge of the traffic tribunal at which time the driving record will

be reviewed. The traffic tribunal judge shall determine if the person should be granted an

operator's license, be reissued a first license, or be denied a license to operate a motor vehicle in

the state of Rhode Island.

     (f)(g) Any person who is under the age of twenty-one (21) years shall, upon payment of

the required fee and upon meeting the qualifications for the receipt of an operator's or chauffeur's

license, be issued a license which that shall be readily distinguishable in color from those

licenses issued to persons who are twenty-one (21) years of age or older. When a person under

the age of twenty-one (21) years to whom a license has been issued and whose license is in full

force and effect, attains his or her twenty-first birthday, he or she shall be entitled to receive a

new license of the type issued to persons who are older than the age of twenty-one (21) years

from the administrator of the division of motor vehicles upon demand at no expense. Every

person shall supply to the division of motor vehicles satisfactory proof of his or her date of birth.

     (g)(h) The division of motor vehicles shall issue special licenses upon the request of a

licensee which that conform to the provisions of the Rhode Island Anatomical Gift Act, chapter

18.6 of title 23 Revised Uniform Anatomical Gift Act, chapter 18.6.1 of title 23.

     (h)(i) The division of motor vehicles shall note in an appropriate manner a restriction on

any person's license who is prohibited from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an

ignition interlock system as provided in chapter 27 of this title.

     (i)(j) Any personal digitized information contained within an operator's or chauffeur's

license shall be limited to: (a) the licensee's name, age, date of birth, address, gender, physical

description such as weight, height, hair color and eye color, signature and organ donor status; and

(b) the license number, commercial endorsements, expiration date, issue date, restriction, and

class.

     (j)(k) Except to the extent an entity is authorized to renew drivers' licenses, or except for

financial institutions engaged in the verification of information for financial transactions,

nongovernmental entities shall not have access to any digitized information contained in an

operator operator�s or chauffeur's license other than the licensee's name, age, date of birth,

signature, and photographic image, and the license's expiration date; nor shall they store, record,

or retain any such information obtained through a digital reading device. Access to digitized

information by such these entities shall be solely for the purpose of determining the age of an

individual for a transaction, right, or privilege available by law only to persons of a certain age.

     (k)(l) To the extent that nongovernmental entities shall have access to the digitized

information stored on an operator's or chauffeur's license, the entity shall be civilly liable for the

unauthorized access to, or retention or use of, such the information by its agents or persons acting

in the name of the entity.

     (l)(m) The division of motor vehicles shall collect from applicants and licensees their

social security numbers and tax identification numbers only to the extent required by federal law.

Such The numbers shall not be included, either digitally or visually, on the operator's or

chauffeur's license.

     (n) Issuance of a Rhode Island operator's license under this chapter to a current or past

recipient of a grant of deferred action under the Deferred Action for Childhood Arrivals, (DACA)

program shall not confer the right to vote in the state of Rhode Island.


 

243)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-10.3-18

17 and 19

 

 

31-10.3-18. Applications.

     (a) Every application for a commercial license, change of endorsement, classification, or

restriction shall be made upon a form furnished by the department. Every application shall be

accompanied by a valid license and by the nonrefundable fee of ten dollars ($10.00). This

application fee shall be used by the department to offset the costs of investigating the applicants.

     (b) Every application shall state the full name, date of birth, sex, current mailing address,

residential address, height, weight, hair and eye color, social security number, and whether the

applicant's license or privilege is withdrawn or whether an application has ever been refused, and

if so, the date of and reason for the withdrawal or refusal. It shall also require the applicant to

disclose any other names used in the past and any other information that the department may

require to determine the applicant's identity, competency, and eligibility. It shall be signed by the

applicant under the penalties of perjury.

     (c) Whenever an application is received from a person previously licensed in another

jurisdiction, the department shall request and accept a copy of the driver's record in that

jurisdiction with the same force and effect as though entered on the driver's record in this state in

the original instance.

     (d) The provisions of � 11-18-1 shall apply to any person who falsely signs or attests the

affidavit, under oath, required by this section. Any false attestation, knowingly made, shall also

be punishable by suspension of the commercial license or privilege of that person for a period of

not less than one year nor more than two (2) years; provided, that person shall be entitled to the

rights and remedies established by � 31-11-15.

     (e) The medical examiner's certificate or medical certification required prior to the

issuance of a commercial driver's license may be electronically transmitted to the division of

motor vehicles by electronic means of transmission approved by the department of motor vehicles

which that shall be accessible through the department's website by way of a menu item labeled

"commercial driver's license (CDL) medical certificate," so long as the transmission is legible.

     SECTION 2. This act shall take effect upon passage.


 

244)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

31-19.5

219 and 282

 

 

CHAPTER 19.5

CITY OF NEWPORT - COMMERCIAL LOW SPEED VEHICLES


 

 

 

245)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

31-19.5-1

219 and 282

 

 

31-19.5-1. City of Newport - Commercial low speed vehicles.

     (a) For the purposes of this chapter, a commercial low-speed vehicle means a self-

propelled, electrically or gas-powered motor vehicle which that: is designed to carry eight (8) or

fewer persons; is designed to be, and is, operated at speeds of twenty-five (25) miles per hour or

less; and conforms to the maximum safety equipment requirements as adopted in the Federal

Motor Vehicle Safety Standard No. 500, Low Speed vehicles (49 C.F.R. 571.500).

Notwithstanding anything to the contrary, a low-speed vehicle may be operated upon the

roadways of the city of Newport as a commercial jitney service only if it meets the requirements

of this section.

     (b) Each person operating a commercial low-speed vehicle on a roadway of the city of

Newport shall possess a valid chauffeur's license issued pursuant to � 31-10-1 and be at least

twenty (20) years old.

     (c) Any person operating a commercial low-speed vehicle shall first obtain a certificate of

necessity from the Rhode Island public utilities commission.

     (d) Every operator of a commercial low-speed vehicle shall maintain financial

responsibility on such the low-speed vehicle if the low-speed vehicle is to be operated upon the

roadways of the city of Newport.

     (e) Every person operating a commercial low-speed vehicle shall be granted all the rights

and shall be subject to all duties applicable to the driver of any motor vehicle except as to the

special regulations in this section and except as to those provisions which that, by their nature,

can have no application.

     (f) The operator of a commercial low-speed vehicle shall observe all traffic laws and

local ordinances regarding the rules of the road. A low-speed vehicle shall not be operated on a

street or a highway with a posted speed limit greater than twenty-five (25) miles per hour. The

provisions of this subsection shall not prohibit a low-speed vehicle from crossing a street or

highway with a posted speed limit greater than thirty-five (35) miles per hour.

     (g) No person shall operate a commercial low-speed vehicle:

     (1) In any careless way as to endanger the person or property of another; or

     (2) While under the influence of alcohol or any controlled substance. Low-speed vehicles

shall be manufactured and comply with the standards of the National Traffic Safety

Administration Standards for low-speed vehicles as set out in 49 C.F.R. 571.500, as amended.

     (h) A commercial low-speed vehicle shall only be operated during the hours of 6:00 am

a.m. through 12:00 am a.m.

     (i) Safety inspections. Electrically powered commercial low-speed vehicles shall, where

applicable, be subject to Rhode Island's vehicle inspection program pursuant to chapter 38 of title

31 and emissions testing pursuant to chapter 47.1 of title 31. Upon registration and renewal of a

low-speed vehicle's registration, the owner shall certify, under penalty of perjury, that all lights,

tires, seat belts, and other vehicle equipment are in good working condition.

     (j) Title and registration. The division of motor vehicles shall issue a title and jitney

registration for a commercial low-speed vehicle upon submission of a certificate from the

manufacturer that the low-speed vehicle meets the safety standards of the National Traffic Safety

Administration Standards for low-speed vehicles as set out in 49 C.F.R. 571.500, as amended.


 

246)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-24-31

76 and 90

 

 

31-24-31. Flashing lights -- Forward viewing or rotary beam lights.

     (a) Flashing lights are prohibited, except on an authorized emergency vehicle, school bus,

snow-removal equipment, or on any vehicle as a means for indicating a right or left turn.

However, the requirements of � 31-24-33 shall be deemed to be satisfied if the vehicle is

equipped with lamps at the front mounted at the same level, displaying simultaneously flashing

white or amber lights, and at the rear mounted at the same level, and displaying simultaneously

flashing red lights, all of which lights shall be visible from a distance of not less than five

hundred feet (500').

     (b) Forward viewing or rotating beam lights may be installed on and shall be restricted to

the following categories of vehicles, and these lights shall be of color designated:

     (1) Emergency response vehicles of any fire, rescue, or ambulance department, fire

chiefs, assistant fire chiefs, deputy chiefs, captains; any privately owned vehicle of any authorized

volunteer member of a fire, rescue, or ambulance department; emergency management agency

directors, assistant directors, assistant medical examiners and/or forensic pathologists of the

office of state medical examiners; rescue vehicles, emergency response vehicles of the

department of environmental management and the division of state fire marshal office of the

state fire marshal; school buses; hospital emergency response vehicles; and two (2) American

Red Cross disaster vehicles: Red, white and/or alternating flashing white;

     (2) Wrecker trucks, service station trucks, state and town safety and maintenance

vehicles; snowplows and tractors; light company trucks, telephone company trucks, water

company trucks, oil company trucks, and other utilities' trucks; vehicles of television, radio and

press photographers; newspaper motor route carriers; rural mail carriers; all motor-propelled

vehicles owned by the Northern Rhode Island REACT (radio emergency associated citizens

team); all motor-propelled vehicles owned by or under contract to the Rhode Island department of

transportation when on official state business; and vehicles marking the beginning and end of

funeral processions: Amber, provided, however, that wrecker and transportation vehicles operated

pursuant to a public utilities commission license, and roadside assistance vehicles of any type

operated for that purpose by the American Automobile Association shall be permitted to use

flashing amber lights at the front and rear of the vehicle, to be activated only in the course of

providing assistance to or transportation for a disabled vehicle. A fee of twenty-five dollars ($25)

shall be charged for the issuance of a flashing lights permit to every vehicle identified in this

subsection, with the exception of flashing lights permits issued to state, town or fire district safety

and maintenance vehicles, which shall not be charged a fee.

     (3) Police units, state and local: Center rotating beam lights: Blue or red; Outboard

mounted lights: Blue or red.

     (4) Violations of this section are subject to fines enumerated in � 31-41.1-4.


 

247)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-25-2

39 and 45

 

 

31-25-2. Vehicles exempt from limitations.

     (a) The provisions of this chapter governing size, weight, and load shall not apply to:

     (1) Road machinery;

     (2) Farm vehicles, including farm tractors, temporarily moved upon a highway;

     (3) Any vehicle owned and operated by the Rhode Island public transit authority which

that is designed for carrying passengers and is comprised of two (2) sections permanently joined

by a hinge mechanism or an articulated joint which that allows vertical and horizontal movement

and a passage for riders moving from one section to the other; or

     (4) A vehicle operated under the terms of a special permit issued as provided in this

chapter.;

     (5) Covered heavy-duty tow and recovery vehicles;

     (6) Emergency vehicles with a weight limit of up to a maximum gross vehicle weight of

eighty-six thousand pounds (86,000 lbs.) or less than twenty-four thousand pounds (24,000 lbs.)

on a single steering axle; thirty-three thousand five hundred pounds (33,500 lbs.) on a single-

drive axle; sixty-two thousand pounds (62,000 lbs.) on a tandem axle; or fifty-two thousand

pounds (52,000 lbs.) on a tandem rear drive steer axle; or

     (7) Natural gas vehicles up to a maximum gross vehicle weight of eighty-two thousand

pounds (82,000 lbs.) by an amount that is equal to the difference between the weight of the

vehicle attributable to the natural gas tank and fueling system carried by that vehicle; and the

weight of a comparable diesel tank and fueling system.

     (b) The provisions of this chapter governing size, weight, and load shall not apply to fire

apparatus acquired by a city or town within this state prior to July 1, 1999.


 

248)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-25-6

39 and 45

 

 

31-25-6. Maximum number and length of coupled vehicles.

     (a) No combination of vehicles coupled together shall consist of more than three (3)

units, a truck-tractor, semi-trailer, and trailer. The combination of vehicles shall not be restricted

in overall length, except that when a truck-tractor, semi-trailer, and a trailer are used in

combination, the trailer or semi-trailer each shall not exceed twenty-eight and one-half feet (28'

6"), excluding bumpers and accessories. Provided, however, that combinations of vehicles

consisting of three (3) units shall be permitted to operate only on the interstate highway system

and on those highways, streets, and roads designated by the director of the department of

transportation.

     (b) Combinations of vehicles consisting of truck-tractor and semi-trailer coupled together

shall not be restricted in overall length, and semi-trailers shall not exceed fifty-three feet (53') in

length, excluding bumpers and accessories. Towaway trailer transporter combinations shall not be

restricted to an overall length limitation of less than eighty-two feet (82'). Semi-trailers exceeding

forty-eight and one-half feet (48' 6") shall be permitted to operate only on the interstate highway

system and on those highways, streets, and roads designated by the director of the department of

transportation. Exceptions to the requirements of this section include the use of a pole trailer and

combinations designed to transport motor vehicles and/or automobiles as authorized in �� 31-25-

7 and 31-25-8. The provision that no combination of vehicles coupled together shall consist of

more than three (3) units shall not apply to vehicles coupled together by a saddle mount device

used to transport motor vehicles in a drive-away service when no more than three (3) saddle

mounts are used, and equipment used in the combination is approved by Part 393.71 of the

federal motor carrier safety regulations, 49 CFR 393.71, and safety regulations of the division of

motor vehicles of the department of revenue of the state of Rhode Island as such this federal

and/or state legislation may be amended or revised from time to time. Any owner or operator

found deviating from the approval permitted routes shall be fined a minimum mandatory fine of

five hundred dollars ($500), but not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000).

     (c) The distance from the kingpin of the trailer to the center of the rear axle may not

exceed forty-one feet (41').

     (d) Fifty-three foot (53') trailers shall be equipped with a rear-end protection device of

substantial construction consisting of a continuous lateral beam extending to within four inches

(4") of the lateral extremities of the trailer, and located not more than twenty-two inches (22")

from the surface of the road as measured with the vehicle empty and on level surface.

     (e) Violations of this section are subject to fines enumerated in � 31-41.1-4.


 

249)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-25-21

39 and 45

 

 

31-25-21. Power to permit excess size or weight of loads.

     (a) The department of transportation, with respect to highways under its jurisdiction,

may, in its discretion, upon application in writing and good cause being shown for it, approve the

issuance of a special permit in writing by the division of motor vehicles authorizing the applicant

to operate or move a vehicle, or combination of vehicles, of a size or weight of vehicle or load

exceeding eighty thousand pounds (80,000 lbs.) or otherwise not in conformity with the

provisions of chapters 1 -- 27 of this title upon any highway under the jurisdiction of the party

granting the permit and for the maintenance of which the party is responsible. Permits which that

have been issued for a full year shall not be required to be renewed for the period of time for

which payment has been made and the application and other required documentation has been

completed and filed. Provided, that neither the department of transportation nor the local

authorities may approve the issuance of permits for divisible loads weighing in excess of one

hundred four thousand-eight hundred pounds (104,800 lbs.), gross vehicle weight, for five-(5)

axle (5) vehicles and seventy-six thousand six hundred fifty pounds (76,650 lbs.), gross vehicle

weight, for three-(3) axle (3) vehicles.

     (1) Provided, however, that for milk products, any vehicle carrying fluid milk products

shall be considered a load that cannot be easily dismantled or divided.

     (b) The director of the department of transportation may enter into agreements with other

states, the District of Columbia, and Canadian provinces providing for the reciprocal enforcement

of the overweight or over-dimensional vehicle permit laws of those jurisdictions entering into the

agreement.

     (c) Trip permit fee. A fee of twenty dollars ($20.00) shall be paid to the division of motor

vehicles for the issuance of each non-reducible vehicle or load permit.

     (d) Annual fee. A fee of three hundred dollars ($300) paid to the division of motor

vehicles shall exempt the payor from the necessity of paying trip permit fees as found in

subsection (c) of this section. However, payment of the fee shall not be deemed to authorize non-

compliance with the rules and regulations promulgated by the department of transportation

entitled "State of Rhode Island Manual for Overweight and Oversize Vehicle Permits".

     (e) Blanket construction equipment permits may be issued, as determined by the

department of transportation, for intrastate movement of non-reducible loads upon payment of the

fee set forth in subsection (d) of this section. The duration of the blanket permit may not exceed

one year, and the construction equipment permit load shall be limited to a minimum overall

length of fifty-five feet (55'), a maximum overall length of eighty feet (80'), and a maximum

width of twelve feet four inches (12' 4"), provided that neither the division of motor vehicles, nor

local authorities may issue blanket permits for non-divisible loads weighing in excess of one

hundred thirty thousand pounds (130,000 lbs.) on less than six (6) axles, with individual axle

weights exceeding twenty-five thousand pounds (25,000 lbs.); provided, further, that the

department of transportation, with respect to highways under its jurisdictions jurisdiction, may,

in its discretion and upon application and for good cause shown, approve the issuance of a special

trip permit authorizing the applicant to exceed one hundred thirty thousand pounds (130,000 lbs.)

for non-divisible loads. A flashing amber light shall be in operation above the highest point of the

vehicle and shall be visible from both the front and rear of the vehicle; and signs and red warning

flags shall be affixed to all extremities. All blanket permits issued in accordance with this section

shall be effective during daylight and night-time hours, for all over-dimensional moves made and

travel shall be allowed on state highways. The following restrictions on travel times shall apply

to:

     (1) Freeways -- in general.

     No travel will be allowed between the hours of 7:00 am and 9:00 am or between 3:00 pm

and 7:00 pm on any day of the week.

     (2) Arterial roadways.

     No travel will be allowed between the hours of 7:00 am and 9:00 am or between 3:00 pm

and 7:00 pm, Monday through Friday.

     (3) Holidays.

     Memorial Day, Victory Day, Labor Day & and Columbus Day -- No Saturday, Sunday,

or Monday day or night travel.

     Thanksgiving Day -- No Wednesday night or Thursday day or night travel. No travel on

Wednesday through Sunday of Thanksgiving week in any calendar year.

     Independence Day, Veterans Day, Christmas Day -- No day or night travel and no travel

the previous night.

     Easter Sunday. No Saturday night or Sunday travel.

     (f) Construction equipment blanket permits shall not be granted for travel over the

following bridges:

     Blackstone River Viaduct 750 carrying I-295 northbound and southbound over the

Blackstone River;

     Kingston Road Bridge No. 403 carrying I-95 northbound and southbound over Kingston

Road.

     (g) Travel of blanket permitted construction equipment through zones with reductions in

lane width such as construction zones will not be allowed. Prior to travel, blanket permit holders

are responsible to verify the location of construction zones and lane width reductions. Locations

of lane width reduction zones are available through the state department of transportation's

construction office.


 

250)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

31-25-27.10

306 and 333

 

 

31-25-27.10. Weight restrictions on Forest Avenue - Middletown.

     (a) The operation of through commercial vehicles on Forest Avenue is prohibited.

     (b) For purposes of this section, a commercial vehicle is defined as a motor vehicle or

combination of vehicles used to transport passengers or property if the motor vehicle:

     (1) Has a gross combination weight rating of twenty-six thousand one pounds (26,001

lbs.) or more, or a towed unit with a gross vehicle rating of more than ten thousand pounds

(10,000 lbs.) or more, or has a gross vehicle weight rating of twenty-six thousand one pounds

(26,001 lbs.) or more; or

     (2) Is designed to transport sixteen (16) or more passengers including the driver; or

     (3) Is transporting hazardous materials and is required to be placarded in accordance with

49 C.F.R. Part 172, Subpart F, as it may be revised from time to time.

     (c) Nothing contained in this section shall affect the use of such streets or highways by:

     (1) Any fire truck, town public works department truck, police vehicle, ambulance,

school bus, bus serving the area, or other motor truck using such streets or highways in any

emergency or engaged in delivering goods, wares, merchandising or materials to or from any

residence, building or lot within the town bordering on such streets or highways; or

     (2) Any farm vehicle as defined in �31-1-8, which is registered with farm plates pursuant

to �31-3-31.

     (d) In all instances where motor vehicle traffic is restricted or prohibited under this

section, the town administrator is directed to cause signs to be erected on such streets or highways

giving notice of such, in accordance with the manual on uniform traffic control devices.

     (e) Any driver who operates a commercial vehicle in contravention of this section shall

be subject to a fine of not less than twenty-five dollars ($25.00) for a first violation, fifty dollars

($50.00) for a second violation, and not less than one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125), but no

more than five hundred dollars ($500) for each subsequent violation.


 

251)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-27-2

133 and 274

 

 

31-27-2. Driving under influence of liquor or drugs.

     (a) Whoever drives or otherwise operates any vehicle in the state while under the

influence of any intoxicating liquor, drugs, toluene, or any controlled substance as defined in

chapter 28 of title 21, or any combination of these, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor, except as

provided in subdivision subsection (d)(3), and shall be punished as provided in subsection (d).

     (b) (1) Any person charged under subsection (a), whose blood alcohol concentration is

eight one-hundredths of one percent (.08%) or more by weight, as shown by a chemical analysis

of a blood, breath, or urine sample, shall be guilty of violating subsection (a). This provision shall

not preclude a conviction based on other admissible evidence. Proof of guilt under this section

may also be based on evidence that the person charged was under the influence of intoxicating

liquor, drugs, toluene, or any controlled substance defined in chapter 28 of title 21, or any

combination of these, to a degree that rendered the person incapable of safely operating a vehicle.

The fact that any person charged with violating this section is, or has been, legally entitled to use

alcohol or a drug shall not constitute a defense against any charge of violating this section.

     (2) Whoever drives, or otherwise operates, any vehicle in the state with a blood presence

of any scheduled controlled substance as defined within chapter 28 of title 21, as shown by

analysis of a blood or urine sample, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be punished as

provided in subsection (d).

     (c) In any criminal prosecution for a violation of subsection (a), evidence as to the

amount of intoxicating liquor, toluene, or any controlled substance as defined in chapter 28 of

title 21, or any combination of these, in the defendant's blood at the time alleged as shown by a

chemical analysis of the defendant's breath, blood, or urine or other bodily substance, shall be

admissible and competent, provided that evidence is presented that the following conditions have

been complied with:

     (1) The defendant has consented to the taking of the test upon which the analysis is made.

Evidence that the defendant had refused to submit to the test shall not be admissible unless the

defendant elects to testify.

     (2) A true copy of the report of the test result was mailed within seventy-two (72) hours

of the taking of the test to the person submitting to a breath test.

     (3) Any person submitting to a chemical test of blood, urine, or other body fluids shall

have a true copy of the report of the test result mailed to him or her within thirty (30) days

following the taking of the test.

     (4) The test was performed according to methods and with equipment approved by the

director of the department of health of the state of Rhode Island and by an authorized individual.

     (5) Equipment used for the conduct of the tests by means of breath analysis had been

tested for accuracy within thirty (30) days preceding the test by personnel qualified as

hereinbefore provided, and breathalyzer operators shall be qualified and certified by the

department of health within three hundred sixty-five (365) days of the test.

     (6) The person arrested and charged with operating a motor vehicle while under the

influence of intoxicating liquor, toluene, or any controlled substance as defined in chapter 28 of

title 21 or, any combination of these in violation of subsection (a), was afforded the opportunity

to have an additional chemical test. The officer arresting or so charging the person shall have

informed the person of this right and afforded him or her a reasonable opportunity to exercise this

right, and a notation to this effect is made in the official records of the case in the police

department. Refusal to permit an additional chemical test shall render incompetent and

inadmissible in evidence the original report.

     (d) (1) (i) Every person found to have violated subdivision subsection (b)(1) shall be

sentenced as follows: for a first violation whose blood alcohol concentration is eight one-

hundredths of one percent (.08%), but less than one-tenth of one percent (.1%), by weight, or who

has a blood presence of any scheduled controlled substance as defined in subdivision subsection

(b)(2), shall be subject to a fine of not less than one hundred dollars ($100), nor more than three

hundred dollars ($300); shall be required to perform ten (10) to sixty (60) hours of public

community restitution, and/or shall be imprisoned for up to one year. The sentence may be served

in any unit of the adult correctional institutions in the discretion of the sentencing judge and/or

shall be required to attend a special course on driving while intoxicated or under the influence of

a controlled substance; provided, however, that the court may permit a servicemember or veteran

to complete any court-approved counseling program administered or approved by the Veterans'

Administration, and his or her driver's license shall be suspended for thirty (30) days up to one

hundred eighty (180) days. The sentencing judge or magistrate may prohibit that person from

operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock system as provided in �

31-27-2.8.

     (ii) Every person convicted of a first violation whose blood alcohol concentration is one-

tenth of one percent (.1%) by weight or above, but less than fifteen hundredths of one percent

(.15%), or whose blood alcohol concentration is unknown, shall be subject to a fine of not less

than one hundred ($100) dollars, nor more than four hundred dollars ($400), and shall be required

to perform ten (10) to sixty (60) hours of public community restitution and/or shall be imprisoned

for up to one year. The sentence may be served in any unit of the adult correctional institutions in

the discretion of the sentencing judge. The person's driving license shall be suspended for a

period of three (3) months to twelve (12) months. The sentencing judge shall require attendance

at a special course on driving while intoxicated or under the influence of a controlled substance

and/or alcoholic or drug treatment for the individual; provided, however, that the court may

permit a servicemember or veteran to complete any court-approved counseling program

administered or approved by the Veterans' Administration. The sentencing judge or magistrate

may prohibit that person from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition

interlock system as provided in � 31-27-2.8.

     (iii) Every person convicted of a first offense whose blood alcohol concentration is

fifteen hundredths of one percent (.15%) or above, or who is under the influence of a drug,

toluene, or any controlled substance as defined in subdivision subsection (b)(1), shall be subject

to a fine of five hundred dollars ($500) and shall be required to perform twenty (20) to sixty (60)

hours of public community restitution and/or shall be imprisoned for up to one year. The sentence

may be served in any unit of the adult correctional institutions in the discretion of the sentencing

judge. The person's driving license shall be suspended for a period of three (3) months to eighteen

(18) months. The sentencing judge shall require attendance at a special course on driving while

intoxicated or under the influence of a controlled substance and/or alcohol or drug treatment for

the individual; provided, however, that the court may permit a servicemember or veteran to

complete any court-approved counseling program administered or approved by the Veterans'

Administration. The sentencing judge or magistrate shall prohibit that person from operating a

motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock system as provided in � 31-27-2.8.

     (2) (i) Every person convicted of a second violation within a five-year (5) period with a

blood alcohol concentration of eight one-hundredths of one percent (.08%) or above, but less than

fifteen hundredths of one percent (.15%), or whose blood alcohol concentration is unknown, or

who has a blood presence of any controlled substance as defined in subdivision subsection (b)(2),

and every person convicted of a second violation within a five-year (5) period, regardless of

whether the prior violation and subsequent conviction was a violation and subsequent conviction

under this statute or under the driving under the influence of liquor or drugs statute of any other

state, shall be subject to a mandatory fine of four hundred dollars ($400). The person's driving

license shall be suspended for a period of one year to two (2) years, and the individual shall be

sentenced to not less than ten (10) days, nor more than one year, in jail. The sentence may be

served in any unit of the adult correctional institutions in the discretion of the sentencing judge;

however, not less than forty-eight (48) hours of imprisonment shall be served consecutively. The

sentencing judge shall require alcohol or drug treatment for the individual; provided, however,

that the court may permit a servicemember or veteran to complete any court-approved counseling

program administered or approved by the Veterans' Administration and shall prohibit that person

from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock system as provided

in � 31-27-2.8.

     (ii) Every person convicted of a second violation within a five-year (5) period whose

blood alcohol concentration is fifteen hundredths of one percent (.15%) or above, by weight as

shown by a chemical analysis of a blood, breath, or urine sample, or who is under the influence of

a drug, toluene, or any controlled substance as defined in subdivision subsection (b)(1), shall be

subject to mandatory imprisonment of not less than six (6) months, nor more than one year; a

mandatory fine of not less than one thousand dollars ($1,000); and a mandatory license

suspension for a period of two (2) years from the date of completion of the sentence imposed

under this subsection. The sentencing judge shall require alcohol or drug treatment for the

individual; provided, however, that the court may permit a servicemember or veteran to complete

any court approved counseling program administered or approved by the Veterans'

Administration. The sentencing judge or magistrate shall prohibit that person from operating a

motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock system as provided in � 31-27-2.8

     (3) (i) Every person convicted of a third or subsequent violation within a five-year (5)

period with a blood alcohol concentration of eight one-hundredths of one percent (.08%) or

above, but less than fifteen hundredths of one percent (.15%), or whose blood alcohol

concentration is unknown or who has a blood presence of any scheduled controlled substance as

defined in subdivision subsection (b)(2), regardless of whether any prior violation and

subsequent conviction was a violation and subsequent conviction under this statute or under the

driving under the influence of liquor or drugs statute of any other state, shall be guilty of a felony

and be subject to a mandatory fine of four hundred ($400) dollars. The person's driving license

shall be suspended for a period of two (2) years to three (3) years, and the individual shall be

sentenced to not less than one year and not more than three (3) years in jail. The sentence may be

served in any unit of the adult correctional institutions in the discretion of the sentencing judge;

however, not less than forty-eight (48) hours of imprisonment shall be served consecutively. The

sentencing judge shall require alcohol or drug treatment for the individual; provided, however,

that the court may permit a servicemember or veteran to complete any court-approved counseling

program administered or approved by the Veterans' Administration, and shall prohibit that person

from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock system as provided

in � 31-27-2.8.

     (ii) Every person convicted of a third or subsequent violation within a five-year (5) period

whose blood alcohol concentration is fifteen hundredths of one percent (.15%) above by weight

as shown by a chemical analysis of a blood, breath, or urine sample, or who is under the influence

of a drug, toluene, or any controlled substance as defined in subdivision subsection (b)(1), shall

be subject to mandatory imprisonment of not less than three (3) years, nor more than five (5)

years; a mandatory fine of not less than one thousand dollars ($1,000), nor more than five

thousand dollars ($5,000); and a mandatory license suspension for a period of three (3) years

from the date of completion of the sentence imposed under this subsection. The sentencing judge

shall require alcohol or drug treatment for the individual. The sentencing judge or magistrate shall

prohibit that person from operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an ignition interlock

system as provided in � 31-27-2.8.

     (iii) In addition to the foregoing penalties, every person convicted of a third or

subsequent violation within a five-year (5) period, regardless of whether any prior violation and

subsequent conviction was a violation and subsequent conviction under this statute or under the

driving under the influence of liquor or drugs statute of any other state, shall be subject, in the

discretion of the sentencing judge, to having the vehicle owned and operated by the violator

seized and sold by the state of Rhode Island, with all funds obtained by the sale to be transferred

to the general fund.

     (4) Whoever drives or otherwise operates any vehicle in the state while under the

influence of any intoxicating liquor, drugs, toluene, or any controlled substance as defined in

chapter 28 of title 21, or any combination of these, when his or her license to operate is

suspended, revoked, or cancelled for operating under the influence of a narcotic drug or

intoxicating liquor, shall be guilty of a felony punishable by imprisonment for not more than three

(3) years and by a fine of not more than three thousand dollars ($3,000). The court shall require

alcohol and/or drug treatment for the individual; provided, the penalties provided for in � 31-27-

2(d)(4) this subsection (d)(4) shall not apply to an individual who has surrendered his or her

license and served the court-ordered period of suspension, but who, for any reason, has not had

his or her license reinstated after the period of suspension, revocation, or suspension has expired;

provided, further, the individual shall be subject to the provisions of subdivision (d)(2)(i),

(d)(2)(ii), (d)(3)(i), (d)(3)(ii), or (d)(3)(iii) regarding subsequent offenses, and any other

applicable provision of this section.

     (5) (i) For purposes of determining the period of license suspension, a prior violation

shall constitute any charge brought and sustained under the provisions of this section or � 31-27-

2.1.

     (ii) Any person over the age of eighteen (18) who is convicted under this section for

operating a motor vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, other drugs, or a combination of

these, while a child under the age of thirteen (13) years was present as a passenger in the motor

vehicle when the offense was committed, may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not

more than one year, and further, shall not be entitled to the benefit of suspension or deferment of

this sentence. The sentence imposed under this section may be served in any unit of the adult

correctional institutions in the discretion of the sentencing judge shall be subject to immediate

license suspension pending prosecutionAny person convicted of violating this section shall be

guilty of a misdemeanor for a first offense and may be sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not

more than one year and a fine not to exceed one thousand dollars ($1000 $1,000). Any person

convicted of a second or subsequent offense shall be guilty of a felony offense and may be

sentenced to a term of imprisonment of not more than five (5) years and a fine not to exceed five

thousand dollars ($5000 $5,000). The sentencing judge shall also order a license suspension of up

to two (2) years, require attendance at a special course on driving while intoxicated or under the

influence of a controlled substance, and alcohol or drug education and/or treatment. The

individual may also be required to pay a highway assessment fee of no more than five hundred

dollars ($500) and the assessment shall be deposited in the general fund.

     (6) (i) Any person convicted of a violation under this section shall pay a highway

assessment fine of five hundred dollars ($500) that shall be deposited into the general fund. The

assessment provided for by this subsection shall be collected from a violator before any other

fines authorized by this section.

     (ii) Any person convicted of a violation under this section shall be assessed a fee of

eighty-six dollars ($86).

     (7) (i) If the person convicted of violating this section is under the age of eighteen (18)

years, for the first violation he or she shall be required to perform ten (10) to sixty (60) hours of

public community restitution and the juvenile's driving license shall be suspended for a period of

six (6) months, and may be suspended for a period up to eighteen (18) months. The sentencing

judge shall also require attendance at a special course on driving while intoxicated or under the

influence of a controlled substance and alcohol or drug education and/or treatment for the

juvenile. The juvenile may also be required to pay a highway assessment fine of no more than

five hundred dollars ($500) and the assessment imposed shall be deposited into the general fund.

     (ii) If the person convicted of violating this section is under the age of eighteen (18)

years, for a second or subsequent violation regardless of whether any prior violation and

subsequent conviction was a violation and subsequent under this statute or under the driving

under the influence of liquor or drugs statute of any other state, he or she shall be subject to a

mandatory suspension of his or her driving license until such time as he or she is twenty-one (21)

years of age and may, in the discretion of the sentencing judge, also be sentenced to the Rhode

Island training school for a period of not more than one year and/or a fine of not more than five

hundred dollars ($500).

     (8) Any person convicted of a violation under this section may undergo a clinical

assessment at the community college of Rhode Island's center for workforce and community

education. Should this clinical assessment determine problems of alcohol, drug abuse, or

psychological problems associated with alcoholic or drug abuse, this person shall be referred to

an appropriate facility, licensed or approved by the department of behavioral healthcare,

developmental disabilities and hospitals, for treatment placement, case management, and

monitoring. In the case of a servicemember or veteran, the court may order that the person be

evaluated through the Veterans' Administration. Should the clinical assessment determine

problems of alcohol, drug abuse, or psychological problems associated with alcohol or drug

abuse, the person may have their treatment, case management, and monitoring administered or

approved by the Veterans' Administration.

     (e) Percent by weight of alcohol in the blood shall be based upon milligrams of alcohol

per one hundred (100) cubic centimeters of blood.

     (f) (1) There is established an alcohol and drug safety unit within the division of motor

vehicles to administer an alcohol safety action program. The program shall provide for placement

and follow-up for persons who are required to pay the highway safety assessment. The alcohol

and drug safety action program will be administered in conjunction with alcohol and drug

programs licensed by the department of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and

hospitals.

     (2) Persons convicted under the provisions of this chapter shall be required to attend a

special course on driving while intoxicated or under the influence of a controlled substance,

and/or participate in an alcohol or drug treatment program; provided, however, that the court may

permit a servicemember or veteran to complete any court-approved counseling program

administered or approved by the Veterans' Administration. The course shall take into

consideration any language barrier that may exist as to any person ordered to attend, and shall

provide for instruction reasonably calculated to communicate the purposes of the course in

accordance with the requirements of the subsection. Any costs reasonably incurred in connection

with the provision of this accommodation shall be borne by the person being retrained. A copy of

any violation under this section shall be forwarded by the court to the alcohol and drug safety

unit. In the event that persons convicted under the provisions of this chapter fail to attend and

complete the above course or treatment program, as ordered by the judge, then the person may be

brought before the court, and after a hearing as to why the order of the court was not followed,

may be sentenced to jail for a period not exceeding one year.

     (3) The alcohol and drug safety action program within the division of motor vehicles

shall be funded by general revenue appropriations.

     (g) The director of the health department of the state of Rhode Island is empowered to

make and file with the secretary of state regulations that prescribe the techniques and methods of

chemical analysis of the person's body fluids or breath and the qualifications and certification of

individuals authorized to administer this testing and analysis.

     (h) Jurisdiction for misdemeanor violations of this section shall be with the district court

for persons eighteen (18) years of age or older and to the family court for persons under the age

of eighteen (18) years. The courts shall have full authority to impose any sentence authorized, and

to order the suspension of any license, for violations of this section. All trials in the district court

and family court of violations of the section shall be scheduled within thirty (30) days of the

arraignment date. No continuance or postponement shall be granted except for good cause shown.

Any continuances that are necessary shall be granted for the shortest practicable time. Trials in

superior court are not required to be scheduled within thirty (30) days of the arraignment date.

     (i) No fines, suspensions, assessments, alcohol or drug treatment programs, course on

driving while intoxicated or under the influence of a controlled substance, public community

restitution, or jail provided for under this section can be suspended.

     (j) An order to attend a special course on driving while intoxicated that shall be

administered in cooperation with a college or university accredited by the state, shall include a

provision to pay a reasonable tuition for the course in an amount not less than twenty-five dollars

($25.00), and a fee of one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175), which fee shall be deposited into

the general fund.

     (k) For the purposes of this section, any test of a sample of blood, breath, or urine for the

presence of alcohol that relies in whole or in part upon the principle of infrared light absorption is

considered a chemical test.

     (l) If any provision of this section, or the application of any provision, shall for any

reason be judged invalid, such a judgment shall not affect, impair, or invalidate the remainder of

the section, but shall be confined in this effect to the provision or application directly involved in

the controversy giving rise to the judgment.

     (m) For the purposes of this section, "servicemember" means a person who is presently

serving in the armed forces of the United States, including the Coast Guard, a reserve component

thereof, or the National Guard. "Veteran" means a person who has served in the armed forces,

including the Coast Guard of the United States, a reserve component thereof, or the National

Guard, and has been discharged under other than dishonorable conditions.


 ����������

252)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-37-7

37 and 43

 

 

31-37-7. Minimum standard for gasoline -- Weights and measures.

     No person shall sell, offer for sale, deliver, or have in his possession for the purpose of

sale, any article or product represented as gasoline for use in internal combustion engines used in

motor vehicles that does not equal the most recent version of the "American Society for Testing

and Materials Standard Specification for Automotive Gasoline D-4814". It shall be unlawful for

any person, firm, or corporation to give false or insufficient weight or measure in the sale of fuels

or lubricating oils.


 

253)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-37-7.1

37 and 43

 

 

31-37-7.1. Minimum standards for gasoline.

     (a) Beginning June 1, 2007, no person shall sell, deliver for sale, import, or cause to be

imported into the state for sale any gasoline containing methyl tertiary- butyl ether (MTBE) or

other ether oxygenates in quantities greater than one half of one percent (0.5%) by volume. For

the purpose of this section, "other ether oxygenates" shall include the following gasoline

additives: Methanol; Isopropanol; n-Propanol; N-Butonal; sec-Butanol; tert- Butanol; Tert-

pentalol (tert-amylalcohol); Ethyl tert-butyl ether (ETBE); Diisopropylether (DIPE); Tertiary

Butyl alcohol (TBA); Iso-butanol; and Tert-amymethylether (TAME). Nothing in this section

shall prohibit the transshipment of gasoline containing the oxygenates within the state for

disposition outside the state, including storage coincident to the transshipment.

     (b) No person shall sell, offer for sale, deliver, or have in their the person�s possession

for the purpose of sale, any article or product represented as gasoline for use in internal

combustion engines used in motor vehicles that does not equal the most recent version of the

"American Society for Testing and Materials Standard Specification for Automotive Gasoline D-

4814."

     (b)(c) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, it shall be the responsibility of

the director of the department of environmental management to administer and enforce this

section.

     (c)(d) Notwithstanding the provisions of � 31-37-17, penalties for violations of this

section shall be assessed pursuant to � 23-23-14 as administered by the department of

environmental management. In addition, the department is hereby authorized to administer this

section according to the provisions of chapter 12.1 of title 46 in conjunction with its authority

relating to underground storage tanks.

     (e) The director of the department of environmental management shall have the authority

to temporarily waive a control or prohibition respecting the use of a fuel or fuel additive required

under this section to avoid a disruption in the supply of fuel to the state or to other states as a

result of a natural disaster, or other emergency. The director shall provide, in writing, the notice

of waiver,; the nature of the emergency; and the time frame for which the waiver shall remain in

effect.


 

 

 

254)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-41.1-4

316 and 353

 

 

31-41.1-4. Schedule of violations.

     (a) The penalties for violations of the enumerated sections, listed in numerical order,

correspond to the fines described. However, those offenses for which punishments may vary

according to the severity of the offense, or punishment that require the violator to perform a

service, shall be heard and decided by the traffic tribunal or municipal court. The following

violations may be handled administratively through the method prescribed in this chapter. This

list is not exclusive and jurisdiction may be conferred on the traffic tribunal with regard to other

violations.

VIOLATIONS SCHEDULE

Sections of Total

General Laws Fine

8-8.2-2 DOT, DEM, or other agency and department violations $85.00

24-10-17 Soliciting rides in motor vehicles 85.00

24-10-18 Backing up prohibited 85.00

24-10-20 Park and ride lots 85.00

24-12-37 Nonpayment of toll 100.00

31-3-12 Visibility of plates 85.00

31-3-18 Display of plates 85.00

31-3-32 Driving with expired registration 85.00

31-3-34 Failure to notify division of change of address 85.00

31-3-35 Notice of change of name 85.00

31-3-40 Temporary plates � dealer issued 85.00

31-4-3 Temporary registration � twenty- (20) day (20) bill of sale 85.00

31-10-10 Rules as to armed forces license 85.00

31-10-30 Driving on expired license 85.00

31-10-32 Notice of change of address 85.00

31-10.1-4 No motorcycle helmet (operator) 85.00

31-10.1-5 Motorcycle handlebar violation 85.00

31-10.1-6 No motorcycle helmet (passenger) 85.00

31-10.1-7 Inspection of motorcycle required 85.00

31-12-12 Local motor vehicle ordinance 85.00

31-13-04 4 Obedience to devices 85.00

31-13-6(3)(i) Eluding traffic light 85.00

31-13-09 9 Flashing signals 85.00

31-13-11 Injury to signs or devices 85.00

31-14-1 Reasonable and prudent speed 95.00

31-14-03 3 Condition requiring reduced speed 95.00

31-14-09 9 Below minimum speed 95.00

31-14-12 Speed limit on bridges and structures 95.00

31-15-1 Leaving lane of travel 85.00

31-15-2 Slow traffic to right 85.00

31-15-3 Operator left of center 85.00

31-15-4 Overtaking on left 85.00

31-15-5(a) Overtaking on right 85.00

31-15-6 Clearance for overtaking 85.00

31-15-7 Places where overtaking prohibited 85.00

31-15-8 No passing zone 85.00

31-15-9 One way highways 85.00

31-15-10 Rotary traffic islands 85.00

31-15-11 Laned roadway violation 85.00

31-15-12 Following too closely 85.00

31-15-12.1 Entering intersection 100.00

31-15-13 Crossing center section of divided highway 85.00

31-15-14 Entering or leaving limited access roadways 85.00

31-15-16 Use of emergency break-down lane for travel 85.00

31-15-17 Crossing bicycle lane 85.00

31-15-18 Unsafe passing of person operating a bicycle 85.00

31-16-1 Care in starting from stop 85.00

31-16-2 Manner of turning at intersection 85.00

31-16-4 U turn where prohibited 85.00

31-16-5 Turn signal required 85.00

31-16-6 Time of signaling turn 85.00

31-16-7 Failure to give stop signal 85.00

31-16-8 Method of giving signals 85.00

31-16.1-3 Diesel vehicle idling rules first offense not to exceed 100.00

second and subsequent offense not to exceed 500.00

31-17-1 Failure to yield right of way 85.00

31-17-2 Vehicle turning left 85.00

31-17-3 Yield right of way (intersection) 85.00

31-17-4 Obedience to stop signs 85.00

31-17-5 Entering from private road or driveway 85.00

31-17-8 Vehicle within right of way, rotary 85.00

31-17-9 Yielding to bicycles on bicycle lane 85.00

31-18-3 Right of way in crosswalks first violation 85.00

second violation or any subsequent violation $100.00

31-18-5 Crossing other than at crosswalks 85.00

31-18-8 Due care by drivers 85.00

31-18-12 Hitchhiking 85.00

31-18-18 Right of way on sidewalks 85.00

31-19-3 Traffic laws applied to bicycles 85.00

31-19-20 Sale of new bicycles 85.00

31-19-21 Sale of used bicycles 85.00

31-19.1-2 Operating motorized bicycle on an interstate highway 85.00

31-19.2-2 Operating motorized tricycle on an interstate highway 85.00

31-20-1 Failure to stop at railroad crossing 85.00

31-20-2 Driving through railroad gate 85.00

31-20-9 Obedience to stop sign 85.00

31-21-4 Places where parking or stopping prohibited 85.00

31-21-14 Opening of vehicle doors 85.00

31-21-18 Electric vehicle charging station restriction 85.00

31-22-2 Improper backing up 85.00

31-22-4 Overloading vehicle 85.00

31-22-5 Violation of safety zone 85.00

31-22-6 Coasting 85.00

31-22-7 Following fire apparatus 85.00

31-22-8 Crossing fire hose 85.00

31-22-9 Throwing debris on highway � snow removal 85.00

31-22-11.5 Improper use of school bus� not to exceed five hundred dollars

for each day of improper use ($500)

31-22-22(a) No child restraint 85.00

31-22-22(a) Child restraint/seat belt but not in any rear seating position 85.00

31-22-22(b), (f) No seat belt � passenger 40.00

31-22-22(g) No seat belt � operator 40.00

31-22-23 Tow trucks � proper identification 275.00

31-22-24 Operation of interior lights 85.00

31-23-1(b)(2) U.S. department of transportation motor carrier safety rules

and regulations Not less than $85.00

or more than $500.00

31-23-1(e)(6) Removal of an "out of service vehicle" sticker 125.00

31-23-1(e)(7) Operation of an "out of service vehicle" 100.00

31-23-2(b) Installation or adjustment of unsafe or prohibited parts,

equipment, or accessories:

(first offense) 250.00

(second offense) 500.00

(third and subsequent offenses) 1,000.00

31-23-4 Brake equipment required 85.00

31-23-8 Horn required 85.00

31-23-10 Sirens prohibited 85.00

31-23-13 Muffler required 85.00

31-23-13.1 Altering height or operating a motor vehicle with an

altered height 85.00

31-23-14 Prevention of excessive fumes or smoke 85.00

31-23-16 Windshield and window stickers (visibility) 85.00

31-23-17 Windshield wipers 85.00

31-23-19 Metal tires prohibited 85.00

31-23-20 Protuberances on tires 85.00

31-23-26 Fenders and wheel flaps required 85.00

31-23-27 Rear wheel flaps on buses, trucks, and trailer trailers 85.00

31-23-29 Flares or red flag required over four thousand pounds

(4,000 lbs.) 85.00

31-23-40 Approved types of seat belt requirements 85.00

31-23-42.1 Special mirror � school bus 85.00

31-23-43 Chocks required (1 pair) � over four thousand pounds

(4,000 lbs.) 85.00

31-23-45 Tire treads � defective tires 85.00

31-23-47 Slow moving emblem required 85.00

31-23-49 Transportation of gasoline � passenger vehicle 85.00

31-23-51 Operating bike or motor vehicle wearing ear phones

(first offense) 85.00

second offense 95.00

for the third and each subsequent offense 140.00

31-24-1 through 31-24-54 Times when lights required 85.00

31-25-03 3 Maximum width of one hundred and two inches (102")

exceeded 85.00

31-25-04 4 Maximum height of one hundred sixty-two inches (162")

exceeded 85.00

31-25-06 6 Maximum number and length of coupled vehicles 500.00

31-25-07 7 Load extending three feet (3') front, six feet (6') rear

exceeded 85.00

31-25-9 Leaking load 85.00

31-25-11 Connections between coupled vehicles 85.00

31-25-12 Towing chain, twelve-inch (12") square flag required 85.00

31-25-12.1 Tow truck � use of lanes

(first offense) 85.00

second offense 95.00

for the third and each subsequent offense 100.00

31-25-14(d)(1) Maximum weight and tandem axles 125.00

31-25-14(d)(2) Maximum weight and tandem axles 125.00

31-25-14(d)(3) Maximum weight and tandem axles 125.00

31-25-16(c)(2) Maximum weight shown in registration per thousand lbs.

overweight or portion thereof 85.00

31-25-16(c)(3) Maximum weight shown in registration per thousand lbs.

overweight or portion thereof. 125.00

31-25-16(c)(4) Maximum weight shown in registration 1,025.00

plus per thousand pounds overweight or portion thereof $125.00

31-25-17 Identification of trucks and truck-tractors

(first offense) 85.00

(second offense) 95.00

for the third and subsequent offenses 125.00

31-25-24 Carrying and inspection of excess load limit 175.00

31-25-27(c) Maximum axle

(first offense) 3,000.00

not to exceed 5,000.00

for each and every subsequent offense

31-25-30 Maximum axle Pawtucket River Bridge and Sakonnet River

Bridge

(first offense) 3,000.00

not to exceed 5,000.00

for each and every subsequent offense

31-27-2.3 Refusal to take preliminary breath test 85.00

31-28-7(d) Wrongful use of handicapped parking placard 500.00

31-28-7(f) Handicapped parking space violation:

First offense 100.00

Second offense 175.00

Third offense and subsequent offenses 325.00

31-28-7.1(e) Wrongful use of institutional handicapped parking

placard 125.00

31-33-2 Failure to file accident report 85.00

31-36.1-17 No fuel tax stamp (out-of-state) 85.00

and not exceeding for subsequent offense ($100)

31-38-3 No inspection sticker 85.00

31-38-4 Violation of inspection laws 85.00

31-41.3-15 Automated school-zone-speed-enforcement system 50.00

31-47.2-06 6 Heavy-duty vehicle emission inspections:

First offense 125.00

Second offense 525.00

Third and subsequent offenses 1,025.00

37-15-7 Littering not less than 55.00

not more than five hundred dollars ($500)

39-12-26 Public carriers violation 300.00

SPEEDING Fine

Fine

(A) One to ten miles per hour (1-10 mph) in excess of posted speed limit $ 95.00

(B) Eleven miles per hour (11 mph) in excess of posted speed limit with a fine

of ten dollars ($10.00) per mile in excess of speed limit shall be assessed. 205.00

minimum

     (b) In addition to any other penalties provided by law, a judge may impose the following

penalties for speeding:

     (1) For speeds up to and including ten miles per hour (10 mph) over the posted speed

limit on public highways, a fine as provided for in subsection (a) of this section for the first

offense; ten dollars ($10.00) per mile for each mile in excess of the speed limit for the second

offense if within twelve (12) months of the first offense; and fifteen dollars ($15.00) per mile for

each mile in excess of the speed limit for the third and any subsequent offense if within twelve

(12) months of the first offense. In addition, the license may be suspended up to thirty (30) days.

     (2) For speeds in excess of ten miles per hour (10 mph) over the posted speed limit on

public highways, a mandatory fine of ten dollars ($10.00) for each mile over the speed limit for

the first offense; fifteen dollars ($15.00) per mile for each mile in excess of the speed limit for the

second offense if within twelve (12) months of the first offense; and twenty dollars ($20.00) per

mile for each mile in excess of the speed limit for the third and subsequent offense if within

twelve (12) months of the first offense. In addition, the license may be suspended up to sixty (60)

days.

     (c) Except for a technology surcharge assessed in accordance with � 8-15-11, any person

charged with a violation who pays the fine administratively pursuant to this chapter 41.1 of title

31 shall not be subject to any additional costs or assessments, including, but not limited to, the

hearing fee established in � 8-18-4.


 

255)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-41.3-12

316 and 353

 

 

31-41.3-12. Nature of violations.

     Notwithstanding any other provision of law:

     (1) No violation for which a civil penalty is imposed under this chapter shall be

considered a moving violation; nor shall it be included on the driving record of the person on

whom the liability is imposed; nor shall it be used for insurance rating purposes in providing

motor vehicle insurance coverage until there is a final adjudication of the violation.

     (2) Impositions of a penalty pursuant to this chapter shall not be deemed a criminal

conviction of an owner or operator.

     (3) The defense available under � 31-41.1-7 shall not be available for any violation

imposed under this chapter.


 

256)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

31-41.3-15

316 and 353

 

 

31-41.3-15. Penalties.

     (a) Every person found to have violated the provisions of this chapter shall be fined fifty

dollars ($50.00) for each offense; provided, however that for a period of thirty (30) days

violation recorded by said the system shall only be enforced by the issuance of a warning.

     (b) A violation of this chapter shall not be considered a moving violation for purposes of

the motorist�s driving record.

     (c) Every three (3) years from the date of the motorist's first offense under this chapter,

the court shall expunge any automated school-zone-speed-enforcement violations during the

preceding three-(3) year (3) period.


   

 

257)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-44-17

176 and 289

 

 

31-44-17. Filing of complaint with department � Notice � Rules of evidence not

binding. 

     (a) Any resident of a mobile and manufactured housing park or any owner of a mobile

and manufactured housing park may petition the director by filing a complaint with the

department of business regulation. and paying a twenty-five dollar ($25.00) filing fee which shall

be used to defray the costs of the director. The filing fee may be waived by the director if he or

she or his or her agent determines that the fee will cause an unfair financial burden on the

petitioner. After review of the claim and a decision by the director that the matter has merit and is

not frivolous, the director shall schedule a hearing within sixty (60) days from receipt of the

claim. If the director finds the claim to be without merit or to be frivolous, the director shall

dismiss the complaint and explain in writing to the complainant his or her reasons for dismissing

the complaint.

     (b) The director, or his or her agent, shall serve notice, in writing, of the time and place of

the hearing upon all appropriate parties at least twenty (20) days prior to the date of the hearing.

Both parties to the complaint may be represented by counsel.

     (c) The director, or his or her agent, shall not be bound by common law or statutory rules

of evidence but may admit all testimony having a reasonable probative value. Complaints filed

shall be handled in accordance with the departments' rules of practice and the Administrative

Procedures Act administrative procedures act, chapter 35 of title 42. It may exclude evidence

which, in the opinion of the director or his or her agent, is immaterial, irrelevant, or unduly

repetitious. 


 

258)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-47-12

180 and 201

 

 

31-47-12. Police officers and agents of administrator of the division of motor

vehicles -- Fees collected, forms of proof.

     (a) For the purpose of enforcing the provisions of this chapter, every police officer of a

state, town, or municipality is deemed an agent of the administrator of the division of motor

vehicles. Any police officer who, in the performance of his or her duties as authorized by law,

becomes aware of a person whose license is under an order of suspension, or whose certificate of

registration and registration plates are under an order of impoundment, pursuant to this section

may confiscate the license, certificate of registration, and registration plates, and return them to

the administrator of the division of motor vehicles. Any forms used by law enforcement agencies

in administering this section shall be prescribed by the administrator of the division of motor

vehicles, the cost of which shall be borne by these agencies. No police officer, law enforcement

agency employing a police officer, or political subdivision or governmental agency that employs

a police officer shall be liable in a civil action for damages or loss to persons arising out of the

performance of the duty required or authorized by this section. "Police officer" means the full-

time police from the rank of patrolman up to and including the rank of chief, including

policewomen of any police department in any city or town within the state of Rhode Island or of

the state police.

     (b) All fees, except court costs, collected under this chapter shall be paid into the state

treasury and credited to the highway safety fund in a special account hereby created, to be known

as the "financial responsibility compliance special account". This special account shall be used

exclusively to cover costs incurred by the division of motor vehicles in the administration of this

chapter, and by any law enforcement agency employing any police officer who returns any

license, certificate of registration, and registration plates to the administrator of the division of

motor vehicles pursuant to this chapter.

     (c) The administrator of the division of motor vehicles, court, or traffic tribunal may

require proof of financial security. to be demonstrated by use of standard form SR 22. If the use

of a standard form is not required, a A person may demonstrate proof of financial responsibility

under this section by presenting to the court, traffic tribunal, or administrator of the division of

motor vehicles any of the following documents or a copy of these documents:

     (1) A certificate of proof of financial responsibility;

     (2) A bond or certification of the issuance of a bond;

     (3) A certificate of deposit of money or securities; or

     (4) A certificate of self insurance.

     (d) At the time of investigation of a motor vehicle offense or accident by a police officer

or when a motor vehicle is stopped by a police officer for probable cause, the police officer

making the investigation or stopping the motor vehicle shall ask for evidence of proof of financial

security as defined in this chapter. Proof of financial responsibility may be provided using a

mobile electronic device; provided, however, that the police officer requiring the proof of

financial responsibility shall be prohibited from viewing any other content on the mobile

electronic device. Any person utilizing an electronic device to provide proof of insurance shall

assume any and all liability for any damage sustained to the mobile electronic device. If the

evidence is not provided, a citation to appear before the traffic tribunal shall be issued to the

operator. However, any citation issued solely for failing to provide evidence of financial

responsibility shall be held by the issuing police officer or law enforcement agency for at least

one business day before submitting the citation to the traffic tribunal. Any operator who receives

a citation for failing to provide valid evidence of financial responsibility shall have the

opportunity to provide evidence of financial responsibility that existed at the time of the violation

within the one-business-day period, at which time the issuing police officer or law enforcement

agency shall withdraw the citation, and the motorist shall not be required to appear before the

traffic tribunal. Notwithstanding this provision, police officers who issue a citation for lack of

evidence of financial responsibility, in addition to one or more other citations, need not wait the

one-business-day waiting period before submitting the citation for lack of evidence of financial

responsibility to the traffic tribunal. The traffic tribunal may, by rule and regulation, prescribe the

procedures for processing the citations. Motor vehicles may not be stopped solely for the purpose

of checking for evidence of proof of financial security.

     (e) (1) Upon a first offense, one must provide proof of current insurance and a binder or

release letter covering the cost of the accident, as long as the accident does not include bodily

injury, death, etc.

     (2) In addition, penalties do not release the motorist from any pending matter before any

other appropriate court.

     (f) Any operator of a motor vehicle registered in this state who shall operate a motor

vehicle without proof of financial security, as defined in this chapter, being in full force and effect

on the date of the motor vehicle stop or accident, may be subject to suspension of license and

fines as follows:

     (1) For a first offense, a suspension of up to thirty (30) days and may be fined one

hundred dollars ($100) up to two hundred and fifty dollars ($250);

     (2) For a second offense, a suspension of up to six (6) months, and may be fined five

hundred dollars ($500); and

     (3) For a third and subsequent offense, a suspension of up to one year. Additionally, any

person violating this section a third or subsequent time shall be punished as a civil violation and

may be fined one thousand dollars ($1,000).


 

259)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-47.4-2

160 and 245

 

 

31-47.4-2. Program creation -- Administration -- Selection of designated agent --

Duties -- Rulemaking -- Audits.

     (a) There is hereby created the Uninsured Motorist Identification Database Program

uninsured motorist identification database program to:

     (1) Establish an Uninsured Motorist Identification Database uninsured motorist

identification database to verify compliance with motor vehicle owner's or operator's security

requirements under chapter 31-47 47 of title 31 and other provisions under this chapter,; and;

     (2) Assist in reducing the number of uninsured motor vehicles on the highways of the

state;.

     (b) The program shall be administered by the division of motor vehicles with the

assistance of the designated agent.

     (c) The program will be funded by a percentage of the reinstatement fees collected

pursuant to this chapter. The percentage of the reinstatement fee that will be provided to the

designated agent will be determined by the division of motor vehicles. These fees will be

maintained in the uninsured motorist identification restricted account.

     (d) (1) The division of motor vehicles shall contract with a third party to establish and

maintain an Uninsured Motorist Identification Database uninsured motorist identification

database for the purposes established under this chapter.

     (2) The contract may not obligate the department to pay the third party more money than

is available in the account.

     (e) (1) The third party under contract under this section is the department's designated

agent, and shall develop and maintain a computer database from the information provided by:

     (i) Automobile liability insurers under � 31-47.4-3; and

     (ii) The division of motor vehicles.

     (2) The database shall be developed and maintained by the designated agent in

accordance with guidelines established by the division of motor vehicles so that state and local

law enforcement agencies can efficiently access the records of the database, including reports

useful for the implementation of the provisions of this chapter.

     (i) The reports provided by the designated agent shall be in a form and contain

information approved by the division of motor vehicles.

     (ii) The reports may be made available through the Internet internet or through other

electronic medium, if the division of motor vehicles determines that sufficient security is

provided to ensure compliance regarding limitations on disclosure of information in the database.

     (f) With information provided by the division of motor vehicles, the designated agent

shall, at least monthly, on a weekly basis, for submissions under subsection  31-47.4-3:

     (1) Update the database with the motor vehicle insurance information provided by the

insurers in accordance with � 31-47.4-3; and

     (2) Compare all current motor vehicle registrations against the database.

     (g) The division shall provide the designated agent with the name, date of birth, address,

and driver license number, if available, of all persons having active registrations. The division

shall also provide the make, year, and vehicle identification number for all active registrations.

     (h) In accordance with chapter 42-35 35 of title 42, "The Administrative Procedures Act

the administrative procedures act," the division of motor vehicles shall make rules and develop

procedures to use the database for the purpose of administering and enforcing this chapter.

     (i)(1) The designated agent shall archive computer data files at least semi-annually for

auditing purposes.

     (2) The internal audit unit of the department of administration shall audit the program at

least every three (3) years.

     (3) The audit under subdivision subsection (h)(2) shall include verification of:

     (i) Billings made by the designated agent; and

     (ii) The accuracy of the designated agent's matching of vehicle registration with insurance

data.


 

260)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-47.4-3

160 and 245

 

 

31-47.4-3. Motor vehicle insurance reporting -- Penalty.

     (a) Each insurer that issues a policy that includes motor vehicle liability coverage,

uninsured motorist coverage, underinsured motorist coverage, or personal injury coverage under

this section shall, before the seventh (7th) day of each calendar month, provide weekly to the

division of motor vehicles designated agent selected in accordance with the uninsured motorist

identification database program, a record of each motor vehicle insurance policy in effect for

vehicles registered or garaged in Rhode Island as of the date of the previous submission that was

issued by the insurer.

     (b) This subsection does not preclude more frequent reporting by an insurer on a

voluntary basis.

     (c) (1) A record provided by an insurer under subsection (a) shall include:

     (i) The make, year, and vehicle identification number of each insured vehicle; and

     (ii) The policy number, effective date, and expiration date of each policy.

     (iii) The name, date of birth, and if available, driver's license number of each insured

owner or operator, and the address of the named insured; and

     (d) Each insurer shall provide this information by an electronic means or by another form

the division of motor vehicles designated agent agrees to accept.

     (e) (1) The division of motor vehicles may, following procedures adopted pursuant to

chapter 42-35 35 of title 42, "The Administrative Procedures Act the administrative procedures

act," assess a fine against an insurer of up to two hundred fifty dollars ($250) for each day the

insurer fails to comply with this section.

     (2) The division of motor vehicles shall excuse the fine if an insurer shows that the failure

to comply with this section was:

     (i) Inadvertent;

     (ii) Accidental; or

     (iii) The result of excusable neglect.


 

261)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-47.4-4

160 and 245

 

 

31-47.4-4. Notice -- Proof -- Revocation of registration -- False statement --

Penalties.

     (a) If the comparison under � 31-47.4-2 shows that a motor vehicle is not insured for

three (3) four (4) consecutive reporting periods as set forth in � 31-47.4-3(a), months, the division

of motor vehicles shall direct that the designated agent provide notice to the owner of the motor

vehicle that the owner has fifteen (15) days to provide to the designated agent:

     (1) Proof of owner's or operator's security; or

     (2) Proof of exemption from the owner's or operator's security requirements.

     (b) If an owner of a motor vehicle fails to provide satisfactory proof of owner's or

operator's security to the designated agent, the designated agent shall:

     (1) Provide a second (2nd) notice to the owner of the motor vehicle that the owner now

has fifteen (15) days to provide:

     (i) Proof of owner's or operator's security; or

     (ii) Proof of exemption from the owner's or operator's security requirements;

     (c) For each notice provided, the designated agent shall:

     (i) Indicate information relating to the owner's failure to provide proof of owner's or

operator's security in the database; and

     (ii) Provide this information to the division of motor vehicles; and

     (d) If the designated agent notifies the department of motor vehicles that an owner of a

motor vehicle failed to provide satisfactory proof of owner's or operator's security to the

designated agent, the division of motor vehicles:

     (1) Shall revoke the registration; and

     (2) Shall provide appropriate notices of the revocation, the legal consequences of

operating a vehicle with revoked registration and without owner's or operator's security and

instructions on how to get the registration reinstated.

     (e) A registration that has been revoked under this section shall not be reinstated and a

new license or registration shall not be issued to the holder of the revoked registration until the

person:

     (1) Pays to the division of motor vehicles an administrative reinstatement fee of two

hundred fifty dollars ($250), the fee imposed by the section is in addition to any other fines or

penalties imposed by law;

     (2) Complies with the other requirements of this act. The fee imposed by this section is in

addition to any other fees or penalties imposed by law.

     (f) The department of motor vehicles may direct the designated agent to provide the

notices under subsection (d)(2).

     (g) Any action by the division of motor vehicles to revoke the registration of a motor

vehicle under this section may be in addition to an action by a law enforcement agency to impose

the penalties.

     (h) (1) A person may not provide a false or fraudulent statement to the division of motor

vehicles or designated agent.

     (2) In addition to any other penalties, a person who violates paragraph subsection (h)(1)

is guilty of a misdemeanor.

     (i) This section does not affect other actions or penalties that may be taken or imposed for

violation of the owner's and operator's security requirements of this title.


 

262)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-53-3

57 and 60

 

 

31-53-3. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter, the following words and phrases shall have the following

meanings unless the context clearly indicates otherwise:

     (1) "Airbag" means a motor vehicle inflatable occupant restraint system device that is

part of a supplemental restraint system any component of an inflatable occupant restraint system

that is designed in accordance with federal safety regulations for the make, model, and year of the

motor vehicle to be installed and to operate in a motor vehicle to activate, as specified by the

vehicle manufacturer, in the event of a crash. Airbag components include, but are not limited to,

sensors, controllers, wiring, and the airbag itself.

     (2) "Counterfeit supplemental restraint system component" means a replacement

supplemental restraint system component, including, but not limited to, an airbag that displays a

mark identical or substantially similar to the genuine mark of a motor vehicle manufacturer or a

supplier of parts to the manufacturer of a motor vehicle without authorization from that

manufacturer or supplier, respectively.

     (2)(3) "Light manipulating system" means anything that would mask or cause the

inaccurate indication of the airbag system status, condition, or operability.

     (4) "Nonfunctional airbag" means a replacement airbag that meets any of the following

criteria:

     (i) The airbag was previously deployed or damaged;

     (ii) The airbag has an electric fault that is detected by the vehicle�s airbag diagnostic

systems when the installation procedure is completed and the vehicle is returned to the customer

who requested the work to be performed or when ownership is intended to be transferred;

     (iii) The airbag includes a part or object, including, but not limited to, a supplemental

restraint system component installed in a motor vehicle to mislead the owner or operator of the

motor vehicle into believing that a functional airbag has been installed; and or

     (iv) The airbag is subject to the prohibitions of (42 49 U.S.C. � 30120 (j)).

     (3)(5) "Person" means any natural person, corporation, partnership, unincorporated

association, or other entity.

     (4)(6) "Salvaged airbag" means an original equipment manufacturer ("OEM") non-

deployed airbag that has been removed from a motor vehicle for use in another vehicle.

     (7) "Supplemental restraint system," commonly referred to as an "SRS,", means a passive

inflatable motor vehicle occupant crash protection system designed for use in conjunction with

active restraint systems, as defined in (49 C.F.R. � 571.208). A supplemental restraint system

includes one or more airbags and all components required to ensure that an airbag works as

designed by the vehicle manufacturer, including both of the following:

     (i) The airbag operates as designed in the event of a crash; and

     (ii) The airbag is designed in accordance with federal motor vehicle safety standards for

the specific make, model, and year of the vehicle in which it is or will be installed.


 

263)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-53-4

57 and 60

 

 

31-53-4. Installation or reinstallation of any false airbag; deceptive trade practices;

criminal liability.

     (a) It is a deceptive trade practice, in violation of chapter 6-13.1 13.1 of title 6,

"Deceptive Trade Practices," whenever:

     (1) A person installs or reinstalls, as part of a vehicle inflatable occupant restraint system,

any object in lieu of an airbag, including a nonfunctional airbag, counterfeit supplemental

restraint system component, or any light manipulating system;

     (2) A person imports, manufacturers manufactures, sells, or offers for sale any device

with the intent that such the device will replace an airbag in any motor vehicle if such the person

knows, or reasonably should know, that such the device supplemental restraint system component

or otherwise does not meet federal safety requirements;

     (3) A person sells, or offers for sale, any device that, when installed in any motor vehicle,

gives the impression that a viable airbag is installed in that vehicle, including any light

manipulating system; and/or

     (4) Any person intentionally misrepresents the presence of an airbag when one does not

exist.

     (b) Failure to comply with the provisions of this chapter shall constitute an unfair method

of competition and an unfair or deceptive act or practice under chapter 13.1 of this title of title 6,

entitled "Deceptive Trade Practices", and the penalties and remedies provided in that chapter shall

apply against any individual, corporation, or partnership violating any provision of this chapter.

     (c) Any person who violates this section is also guilty of a felony and, upon conviction

thereof, shall be punished by a fine of not less than one thousand dollars ($1,000) and not more

than two thousand dollars ($2,000) per violation, or imprisonment for a period of not more than

two (2) years, per violation, or both.

     (d) A person whose violation of subsection (a) of this section results in serious bodily

injury or death shall be imprisoned for a period of not more than ten (10) years or fined not more

than one hundred thousand dollars ($100,000), or both, per violation.


 

264)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

31-53-7

57 and 60

 

 

31-53-7. Sale or trade of motor vehicle with an inoperable airbag.

     (a) Any person selling or trading a motor vehicle who has actual knowledge that the

motor vehicle's vehicle has a nonfunctional airbag or counterfeit supplemental restraint system

component installed or that an airbag is otherwise inoperable shall notify the buyer or the person

acquiring the trade, in writing, that the airbag is inoperable of that defect.

     (b) A person who violates subsection (a) of this section commits both a deceptive trade

practice and a felony, and shall be subject to the to the penalties set forth in chapter 6-13.1 13.1 of

title 6 for the deceptive trade practice, and also subject to the penalties set forth in subsection 

31-53-4(c) and/or (d), as appropriate.


 

265)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

33-28-1

149 and 235

 

 

33-28-1. Elective share.

     (a) The surviving spouse of a decedent who dies domiciled in this state has a right of

election, under the limitations and conditions stated in this chapter, to take an elective share equal

to: the life estate and allowance of an intestate's real estate pursuant to �� 33-1-5 and 33-1-6, and

share of an intestate's personal estate pursuant to � 33-1-10.

     (1) The life estate and allowance in an intestate's real estate titled in the name of the

decedent individually at the time of the decedent's death pursuant to �� 33-1-5 and 33-1-6; and

     (2) The share of the decedent's personal estate subject to probate pursuant to � 33-1-10.

     The elective share may be taken in kind or the value thereof.

     (b) If the right of election is exercised by, or on behalf of, the surviving spouse, the

surviving spouse's allowances pursuant to chapter 10 of this title, if any, are not charged against,

but are in addition to, the elective share.

     (c) The right, if any, of the surviving spouse of a decedent who dies domiciled outside

this state to take an elective share in property in this state is governed by the law of the decedent's

domicile at death.


 

266)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

34-9.1

142 and 241

 

 

CHAPTER 9.1

MAINTENANCE OF PRIVATE EASEMENTS AND RIGHTS-OF-WAY


 

267)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

34-9.1-1

142 and 241

 

 

34-9.1-1. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter:

     (1) "Benefited property" or "property that benefits" means and includes residential real

property enjoying the use of an easement or right-of-way;

     (2) "Burdened property" means and includes residential real property over which the

easement runs;

     (3) "Easement" or "right-of-way" means a private appurtenant easement or right-of-way;

and

     (4) "Residential real property" means one-to four-(4) family (4) residential real estate

located in this state, but does not include property owned by the state or any political subdivision

thereof.


 

 

 

 

 

268)

Section

Chapter Numbers:

 

34-9.1-2

142 and 241

 

 

34-9.1-2. Maintenance of private easement and rights-of-way.

     (a) In the absence of an enforceable, written agreement to the contrary, the owner of any

residential real property that benefits from an easement or right-of-way, the purpose of which is

to provide access to such the residential real property, shall be responsible for the cost of

maintaining such the easement or right-of-way in good repair and the cost of repairing or

restoring any damaged portion of such the easement or right-of-way. Such The maintenance shall

include, but not be limited to, the removal of snow from such the easement or right-of-way.

     (b) In the absence of an enforceable, written agreement, the cost of maintaining and

repairing or restoring such the easement or right-of-way shall be shared by each owner of a

benefited property in proportion to the benefit received by each such property; provided, that the

market value or assessed valuation of each such property shall not be taken into consideration in

the calculation of benefit received.

     (c) Notwithstanding the provisions of subsections (a) and (b) of this section, any owner of

a benefited property and/or any owner of a burdened property who directly or indirectly damages

any portion of the easement or right-of way shall be solely responsible for repairing or restoring

the portion damaged by that owner.

     (d) If any owner of a benefited or burdened property refuses to repair or restore a

damaged portion of an easement or right-of-way in accordance with this section, or fails, after a

demand in writing, to pay the owner's proportion of the cost of maintaining or repairing or

restoring such the easement or right-of-way in accordance with subsection (b) of this section, an

action for specific performance or contribution may be brought in the superior court against such

the owner by other owners of benefited and/or burdened properties, either jointly or severally.

     (e) In the event of any conflict between the provisions of this section and an agreement

described in subsections (a) or (b) of this section, the terms of the agreement shall control.


 

269)

Section

Chapter Numbers:

 

34-13.2

101 and 113

 

 

CHAPTER 13.2

UNIFORM REAL PROPERTY ELECTRONIC RECORDING ACT


 

270)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

34-13.2-1

101 and 113

 

 

34-13.2-1. Short title.

     This chapter shall be known and may be cited as the "Uniform Real Property Electronic

Recording Act."


  

271)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

34-13.2-2

101 and 113

 

 

34-13.2-2. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter:

     (1) "Document" means information that is:

     (i) Inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored in an electronic or other medium and

is retrievable in perceivable form; and

     (ii) Eligible to be recorded in the land records maintained by the recorder of deeds.

     (2) "Electronic" means relating to technology having electrical, digital, magnetic,

wireless, optical, electromagnetic, or similar capabilities.

     (3) "Electronic document" means a document that is received by the recorder of deeds in

an electronic form.

     (4) "Electronic signature" means an electronic sound, symbol, or process attached to or

logically associated with a document and executed or adopted by a person with the intent to sign

the document.

     (5) "Jurisdiction" means any municipality, city, or town incorporated in the state of

Rhode Island.

     (6) "Person" means an individual, corporation, business trust, estate, trust, partnership,

limited-liability company, association, joint venture, public corporation, government, or

governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality, or any other legal or commercial entity.

     (7) "Recorder of deeds" means the officer who has authority under state law to accept

documents for recording in the land records office. This could include such officers as the

"registrar", "clerk", and/or the "recorder".

     (8) "State" means the state of Rhode Island.


  

 

272)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

34-13.2-3

101 and 113

 

 

34-13.2-3. Validity of electronic documents.

     (a) If a law requires, as a condition for recording, that a document be an original, be on

paper or another tangible medium, or be in writing, the requirement is satisfied by an electronic

document satisfying this chapter.

     (b) If a law requires, as a condition for recording, that a document be signed, the

requirement is satisfied by an electronic signature.

     (c) A requirement that a document or a signature associated with a document be

notarized, acknowledged, verified, witnessed, or made under oath is satisfied if the electronic

signature of the person authorized to perform that act, and all other information required to be

included, is attached to or logically associated with the document or signature. A physical or

electronic image of a stamp, impression, or seal need not accompany an electronic signature.


  

273)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

34-13.2-4

101 and 113

 

 

34-13.2-4. Recording of documents.

     (a) In this section, "paper document" means a document that is received by the recorder

of deeds in a form that is not electronic.

     (b) A recorder of deeds:

     (1) Who implements any of the functions listed in this section shall do so in compliance

with the most recent standards and best practices.

     (2) May receive, index, store, archive, and transmit electronic documents.

     (3) May provide for access to, and for search and retrieval of, documents and information

by electronic means.

     (4) Who accepts electronic documents for recording shall continue to accept paper

documents as authorized by state law and shall place entries for both types of documents in the

same index.

     (5) May convert paper documents accepted for recording into electronic form.

     (6) May convert into electronic form information recorded before the recorder of deeds

began to record electronic documents.

     (7) May accept electronically any fee or tax that the recorder of deeds is authorized to

collect pursuant to � 34-13-7.

     (8) May agree with other officials of other cities or towns within the state, on procedures

or processes to facilitate the electronic satisfaction of prior approvals and conditions precedent to

recording and the electronic payment of fees and taxes.


 

274)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

34-13.2-5

101 and 113

 

 

34-13.2-5. Administration and standards.

     To keep the standards and practices of recorder of deeds in this state in harmony with

other jurisdictions in this state, the recorder of deeds, so far as is consistent with the purposes,

policies, and provisions of this chapter, in adopting, amending, and repealing standards, shall

consider the following:

     (1) Standards and practices of other jurisdictions;

     (2) Best practices that are accepted or prescribed as being correct or most effective;

     (3) The views of interested persons and governmental officials and entities;

     (4) The needs of municipalities of varying size, population, and resources; and

     (5) Standards requiring adequate information security protection to ensure that electronic

documents are accurate, authentic, adequately preserved, and resistant to tampering.


 

275)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

34-13.2-6

101 and 113

 

 

34-13.2-6. Relation to electronic signatures in global and national commerce act.

     This chapter modifies, limits, and supersedes the federal Electronic Signatures in Global

and National Commerce Act (15 U.S.C. � 7001, et seq.), but does not modify, limit, or supersede

 101(c) of that act (15 U.S.C. � 7001(c)) or authorize electronic delivery of any of the notices

described in � 103(b) of that chapter (15 U.S.C. � 7003(b)).


 

276)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

34-18-19

229 and 260

 

 

34-18-19. Security deposits.

     (a) A landlord may not demand or receive a security deposit, however denominated, in an

amount or value in excess of one month's periodic rent.

     (b) Upon termination of the tenancy, the amount of security deposit due to the tenant

shall be the entire amount given by the tenant as a security deposit, minus any amount of unpaid

accrued rent, the amount due, if any, for reasonable cleaning expenses, the amount due, if any, for

reasonable trash disposal expenses and the amount of physical damages to the premises, other

than ordinary wear and tear, which that the landlord has suffered by reason of the tenant's

noncompliance with � 34-18-24, all as itemized by the landlord in a written notice delivered to

the tenant. The landlord shall deliver the notice, together with the amount of the security deposit

due to the tenant, within twenty (20) days after the later of either termination of the tenancy,

delivery of possession, or the tenant's providing the landlord with a forwarding address for the

purpose of receiving the security deposit.

     (c) If the landlord fails to comply with subsection (b), the tenant may recover the amount

due him or her, together with damages in an amount equal to twice the amount wrongfully

withheld, and reasonable attorney fees.

     (d) This section does not preclude the landlord or tenant from recovering other damages

to which he or she may be entitled under this chapter.

     (e) This section does not preclude any landlord who rents a furnished apartment from

demanding or receiving a furniture security deposit if the replacement value of the furniture being

furnished by the landlord valued at the time the lease is executed is five thousand dollars ($5,000)

or greater, in which instance the landlord may charge a separate furniture security deposit of up to

one month's periodic rent.

     (f) Upon termination of the tenancy, the amount of furniture security deposit due to the

tenant shall be the entire amount given by the tenant as a furniture security deposit, minus the

amount due, if any, for reasonable cleaning expenses and repair and the amount of physical

damages to the furniture, other than ordinary wear and tear. The landlord shall deliver the notice,

together with the amount of the furniture security deposit due to the tenant, within twenty (20)

days after the later of either termination of the tenancy, delivery of possession, or the tenant's

providing the landlord with a forwarding address for the purpose of receiving the furniture

security deposit.

     (e)(g) In the event the landlord transfers his or her interest in the premises, the holder of

the landlord's interest in the premises at the time of the termination of the tenancy is bound by

this section.

     (f)(h) No rental agreement shall contain any waiver of the provisions of this section.


  

277)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

34-18-22.3

213 and 265

 

 

34-18-22.3. Nonresident landlord to designate agent for service of process.

     A landlord who is not a resident of this state shall designate and continuously maintain an

agent upon whom service may be made of any process, notice, or demand required or permitted

by law to be served, including, but not limited to, notices of minimum housing code violations.

The agent shall be a resident of this state or a corporation authorized to do business in this state.

The landlord's designation shall be in writing, shall include the name and address of the agent,

shall include the street address of each property designated to said the agent, and shall be filed

with the secretary of state and with the clerk of the city or town wherein the dwelling unit is

located. If a Any landlord who fails to comply with the requirements of this section, rent for the

dwelling unit abates until designation of an agent is made and the landlord shall be subject to a

civil fine of up to five hundred ($500) dollars per violation one hundred dollars ($100) per month

up to a maximum of one thousand two hundred dollars ($1,200) in a calendar year or if the

monthly rent exceeds one thousand two hundred dollars ($1,200), the civil fine shall be one

month's rent for the calendar year, payable to the municipality.


 

278)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers

 

34-20-1.1

145 and 261

 

 

34-20-1.1. Damages for willful encroachment on state, municipal or nonprofit land

conservation organization open space land - Civil action.

     (a) Definitions. As used in this section, the following words and terms shall have given to

them the meanings set forth below, unless the context indicates another or different meaning or

intent.

     (1) "Encroach" means to conduct an activity that causes substantial damage or alteration

to the land or vegetation or other features thereon, including, but not limited to, erecting buildings

or other structures,; constructing roads, driveways, or trails,; destroying or moving stone walls,;

cutting trees or other vegetation, other than de minimus cutting,; removing boundary markers,;

installing lawns or utilities,; or using, storing, or depositing vehicles, substantial amounts of

materials, or debris.

     (2) "Nonprofit land conservation organization" means a not-for-profit entity organized

with a mission of permanently protecting open-space land for conservation purposes.

     (3) "Open-space land" means and includes, but is not limited to, any park, forest, wildlife

management area, refuge, preserve, sanctuary, green or wildlife area owned, or held pursuant to a

conservation restriction as defined in � 34-39-1 et seq., by the state, a political subdivision of the

state, or a nonprofit land conservation organization.

     (b) No person may encroach, or cause another person to encroach, on open-space land

without permission of the owner of such the open-space land or holder of such the conservation

restriction on said the open-space land or without other legal authorization.

     (c) Any owner, or holder of a conservation restriction as defined above in open-space

land, subject to the provisions of subsection (b) of this section, may bring an action in the

superior court for the county where the land is located against any person who knowingly and

intentionally violates the provisions of subsection (b) of this section with respect to such the

owner's land or land subject to such the conservation restriction. The court shall order any person

who knowingly and intentionally violates the provisions of subsection (b) of this section to

restore the land to its condition as it existed prior to such the violation or shall award the

landowner the costs of such the restoration, including reasonable management costs necessary to

achieve such the restoration. In addition, the court may award reasonable attorneys' fees and costs

and such injunctive or equitable relief as the court deems appropriate.

     (d) In addition to any damages and relief ordered pursuant to subsection (c) of this

section, the court may award damages of up to five (5) times the cost of restoration or statutory

damages of up to five thousand dollars ($5,000). In determining the amount of the award, the

court shall consider the willfulness of the violation,; the extent of damage done to natural

resources, if any,; the appraised value of any trees or shrubs damaged, or carried away as

determined in accordance with the latest revision of The Guide for Plant Appraisal, as published

by the International Society of Arboriculture, Urbana, Illinois, or a succeeding publisher,; any

economic gain realized by the violator,; and any other relevant factors.


 

279)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

34-27-3.2

72 and 73

 

 

34-27-3.2. Mediation conference.

     (a) Statement of policy. It is hereby declared that residential mortgage foreclosure

actions, caused in part by unemployment and underemployment, have negatively impacted a

substantial number of homeowners throughout the state, creating a situation that endangers the

economic stability of many of the citizens of this state as the increasing numbers of foreclosures

lead to increases in unoccupied and unattended buildings and the unwanted displacement of

homeowners and tenants who desire to live and work within the state.

     (b) Purpose. The statutory framework for foreclosure proceedings is prescribed under the

provisions of chapter 27 of title 34 this title. As the need for a mortgage mediation process has

evolved, it is important for the state to develop a standardized, statewide process for foreclosure

mediation rather than a process based on local ordinances that may vary from municipality to

municipality. By providing a uniform standard for an early HUD-approved, independent

counseling process in owner-occupied principal residence mortgage foreclosure cases, the

chances of achieving a positive outcome for homeowners and lenders will be enhanced.

     (c) Definitions. The following definitions apply in the interpretations of the provisions of

this section unless the context requires another meaning:

     (1) "Default" means the failure of the mortgagor to make a timely payment of an amount

due under the terms of the mortgage contract, which failure has not been subsequently cured.

     (2) "Department" means the department of business regulation.

     (3) "Good faith" means that the mortgagor and mortgagee deal honestly and fairly with

the mediation coordinator with an intent to determine whether an alternative to foreclosure is

economically feasible for the mortgagor and mortgagee, as evidenced by some or all of the

following factors:

     (i) Mortgagee provided notice as required by this section;

     (ii) Mortgagee designated an agent to participate in the mediation conference on its

behalf and with the authority to agree to a work-out agreement on its behalf;

     (iii) Mortgagee made reasonable efforts to respond in a timely manner to requests for

information from the mediation coordinator, mortgagor, or counselor assisting the mortgagor;

     (iv) Mortgagee declined to accept the mortgagor's work-out proposal, if any, and the

mortgagee provided a detailed statement, in writing, of its reasons for rejecting the proposal;

     (v) Where a mortgagee declined to accept the mortgagor's work-out proposal, the

mortgagee offered, in writing, to enter into an alternative work-out/disposition resolution

proposal that would result in net financial benefit to the mortgagor as compared to the terms of

the mortgage.

     (4) "HUD" means the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development and

any successor to such department.

     (5) "Mediation conference" means a conference involving the mortgagee and mortgagor,

coordinated and facilitated by a mediation coordinator whose purpose is to determine whether an

alternative to foreclosure is economically feasible to both the mortgagee and the mortgagor, and

if it is determined that an alternative to foreclosure is economically feasible, to facilitate a loan

workout or other solution in an effort to avoid foreclosure.

     (6) "Mediation coordinator" means a person employed by a Rhode Island-based, HUD-

approved counseling agency designated to serve as the unbiased, impartial, and independent

coordinator and facilitator of the mediation conference, with no authority to impose a solution or

otherwise act as a consumer advocate, provided that such person possesses the experience and

qualifications established by the department.

     (7) "Mortgage" means an individual consumer first-lien mortgage on any owner-

occupied, one (1)- to four (4)- unit residential property that serves as the mortgagor's primary

residence.

     (8) "Mortgagee" means the holder of a mortgage, or its agent or employee, including a

mortgage servicer acting on behalf of a mortgagee.

     (9) "Mortgagor" means the person who has signed a mortgage in order to secure a debt or

other duty, or the heir or devisee of such person provided that:

     (i) The heir or devisee occupies the property as his or her primary residence; and

     (ii) The heir or devisee has record title to the property, or a representative of the estate of

the mortgagor has been appointed with authority to participate in a mediation conference.

     (d) The mortgagee shall, prior to initiation of foreclosure of real estate pursuant to � 34-

27-4(b), provide to the mortgagor written notice at the address of the real estate and, if different,

at the address designated by the mortgagor by written notice to the mortgagee as the mortgagor's

address for receipt of notices, that the mortgagee may not foreclose on the mortgaged property

without first participating in a mediation conference. Notice addressed and delivered as provided

in this section shall be effective with respect to the mortgagor and any heir or devisee of the

mortgagor.

     (1) If the mortgagee fails to mail the notice required by this subsection to the mortgagor

within one hundred twenty (120) days after the date of default, it shall pay a penalty at the rate of

one thousand ($1,000) per month for each month or part thereof, with the first month

commencing on the one hundred twenty-first (121st) day after the date of default and a new

month commencing on the same day (or if there is no such day, then on the last day) of each

succeeding calendar month until the mortgagee sends the mortgagor written notice as required by

this section.

     Notwithstanding the foregoing, any penalties assessed under this subsection for any

failure of any mortgagee to provide notice as provided herein during the period from September

13, 2013, through the effective date of this section shall not exceed the total amount of one

hundred twenty-five thousand dollars ($125,000) for such mortgagee.

     (2) Penalties accruing pursuant to subsection (d)(1) shall be paid to the mediation

coordinator prior to the completion of the mediation process. All penalties accrued under this

section shall be transferred to the state within one month of receipt by the mediation coordinator

and deposited to the restricted-receipt account within the general fund established by � 42-128-

2(3) and used for the purposes set forth therein.

     (3) Issuance by the mediation coordinator of a certificate authorizing the mortgagee to

proceed to foreclosure, or otherwise certifying the mortgagee's good-faith effort to comply with

the provisions of this section, shall constitute conclusive evidence that, to the extent that any

penalty may have accrued pursuant to subsection (d)(1), the penalty has been paid in full by the

mortgagee.

     (4) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this subsection, a mortgagee shall not accrue

any penalty if the notice required by this subsection is mailed to the borrower:

     (i) Within sixty (60) days after the date upon which the loan is released from the

protection of the automatic stay in a bankruptcy proceeding, or any similar injunctive order issued

by a state or federal court, or within sixty (60) days after a loan is no longer afforded protection

under the Servicemembers Civil Relief Act (50 U.S.C. � 3901 et seq.) or the provisions of � 34-

27-4(d), or within one hundred twenty (120) days of the date on which the mortgagor initially

failed to comply with the terms of an eligible workout agreement, as hereinafter defined; and

     (ii) The mortgagee otherwise complies with the requirements of subsection (d); provided,

however, that if the mortgagee fails to mail the notice required by subsection (d) to the mortgagor

within the time frame set forth in subsection (d)(4)(i), the mortgagee shall pay a penalty at the

rate of one thousand dollars ($1,000) per month for each month, or part thereof, with the first

month commencing on the thirty-first (31st) day after the date upon which the loan is released

from the protection of the automatic stay in a bankruptcy proceeding or any similar injunctive

order issued by a state or federal court and a new month commencing on the same day (or if there

is no such day, then on the last day) of each succeeding calendar month until the mortgagee sends

the mortgagor written notice as required by this section. Notwithstanding the foregoing, any

penalties assessed under this subsection for any failure of any mortgagee to provide notice as

provided herein during the period from September 13, 2013, through the effective date of this

section shall not exceed the total amount of one hundred twenty-five thousand dollars ($125,000)

for such mortgagee.

     (5) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, a mortgagee may initiate a

judicial foreclosure in accordance with � 34-27-1.

     (e) A form of written notice meeting the requirements of this section shall be

promulgated by the department for use by mortgagees at least thirty (30) days prior to the

effective date of this section. The written notice required by this section shall be in English,

Portuguese, and Spanish and may be combined with any other notice required under this chapter

or pursuant to state or federal law.

     (f) The mediation conference shall take place in person, or over the phone, at a time and

place deemed mutually convenient for the parties by an individual employed by a HUD-

approved, independent counseling agency selected by the mortgagee to serve as a mediation

coordinator, but not later than sixty (60) days following the mailing of the notice. The mortgagor

shall cooperate in all respects with the mediation coordinator including, but not limited to,

providing all necessary financial and employment information and completing any and all loan

resolution proposals and applications deemed appropriate by the mediation coordinator. A

mediation conference between the mortgagor and mortgagee conducted by a mediation

coordinator shall be provided at no cost to the mortgagor. The HUD-approved counseling agency

shall be compensated by the mortgagee for mediation conferences that take place at a rate not to

exceed five hundred dollars ($500) per engagement mediationThe HUD-approved agency shall

be entitled to a filing fee not to exceed one hundred dollars ($100) per mediation engagement.

     (g) If, after two (2) attempts by the mediation coordinator to contact the mortgagor, the

mortgagor fails to respond to the mediation coordinator's request to appear at a mediation

conference, or the mortgagor fails to cooperate in any respect with the requirements of this

section, the requirements of the section shall be deemed satisfied upon verification by the

mediation coordinator that the required notice was sent and any penalties accrued pursuant to

subsection (d)(1) and any payments owed pursuant to subsection (f) have been paid. Upon

verification, a certificate will be issued immediately by the mediation coordinator authorizing the

mortgagee to proceed with the foreclosure action, including recording the deed. Such certificate

shall be valid until the earlier of:

     (1) The curing of the default condition; or

     (2) The foreclosure of the mortgagor's right of redemption.

     The certificate shall be recorded along with the foreclosure deed. A form of certificate

meeting the requirements of this section shall be promulgated by the department for use by

mortgagees at least thirty (30) days prior to the effective date of this section.

     (h) If the mediation coordinator determines that after a good-faith effort made by the

mortgagee at the mediation conference, the parties cannot come to an agreement to renegotiate

the terms of the loan in an effort to avoid foreclosure, such good faith effort by the mortgagee

shall be deemed to satisfy the requirements of this section. A certificate certifying such good faith

effort will be promptly issued by the mediation coordinator authorizing the mortgagee to proceed

with the foreclosure action and recording of the foreclosure deed; provided, however, that the

mediation coordinator shall not be required to issue such a certificate until any penalties accrued

pursuant to subsections (d)(1) and (d)(4)(ii), and any payments owed pursuant to subsection (f),

have been paid. Such certification shall be valid until the earlier of:

     (1) The curing of the default condition; or

     (2) The foreclosure of the mortgagor's equity of redemption.

     The certificate shall be recorded along with the foreclosure deed. A form of certificate

meeting the requirements of this section shall be promulgated by the department for use by

mortgagees at least thirty (30) days prior to the effective date of this section.

     (i) If the mortgagee and mortgagor are able to reach agreement to renegotiate the terms of

the loan to avoid foreclosure, the agreement shall be reduced to writing and executed by the

mortgagor and mortgagee. If the mortgagee and mortgagor reach agreement after the notice of

mediation conference is sent to the mortgagor, but without the assistance of the mediation

coordinator, the mortgagee shall provide a copy of the written agreement to the mediation

coordinator. Upon receipt of a written agreement between the mortgagee and mortgagor, the

mediation coordinator shall issue a certificate of eligible workout agreement if the workout

agreement would result in a net financial benefit to the mortgagor as compared to the terms of the

mortgage ("Certificate of Eligible Workout Agreement"). For purposes of this subsection,

evidence of an agreement shall include, but not be limited to, evidence of agreement by both

mortgagee and mortgagor to the terms of a short sale or a deed in lieu of foreclosure, regardless

of whether said short sale or deed in lieu of foreclosure is subsequently completed.

     (j) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, where a mortgagor and

mortgagee have entered into a written agreement and the mediation coordinator has issued a

certificate of eligible workout agreement as provided in subsection (i), if the mortgagor fails to

fulfill his or her obligations under the eligible workout agreement, the provisions of this section

shall not apply to any foreclosure initiated under this chapter within twelve (12) months following

the date of the eligible workout agreement. In such case, the mortgagee shall include in the

foreclosure deed an affidavit establishing its right to proceed under this section.

     (k) This section shall apply only to foreclosure of mortgages on owner-occupied,

residential real property with no more than four (4) dwelling units that is the primary dwelling of

the mortgagor and not to mortgages secured by other real property.

     (l) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, any locally based mortgagees

shall be deemed to be in compliance with the requirements of this section if:

     (1) The mortgagee is headquartered in Rhode Island; or

     (2) The mortgagee maintains a physical office, or offices, exclusively in Rhode Island

from which office, or offices, it carries out full-service mortgage operations, including the

acceptance and processing of mortgage payments and the provision of local customer service and

loss mitigation and where Rhode Island staff have the authority to approve loan restructuring and

other loss mitigation strategies; and

     (3) The deed offered by a mortgagee to be filed with the city or town recorder of deeds as

a result of a mortgage foreclosure action under power of sale contained a certification that the

provisions of this section have been satisfied.

     (m) No deed offered by a mortgagee as a result of a mortgage foreclosure action under

power of sale shall be submitted to a city or town recorder of deeds for recording in the land

evidence records of the city or town until and unless the requirements of this section are met.

Failure of the mortgagee to comply with the requirements of this section shall render the

foreclosure voidable, without limitation of the right of the mortgagee thereafter to re-exercise its

power of sale or other means of foreclosure upon compliance with this section. The rights of the

mortgagor to any redress afforded under the law are not abridged by this section.

     (n) Any existing municipal ordinance or future ordinance that requires a conciliation or

mediation process as a precondition to the recordation of a foreclosure deed shall comply with the

provisions set forth herein and any provisions of said ordinances that do not comply with the

provisions set forth herein shall be determined to be unenforceable.

     (o) The provisions of this section shall not apply if:

     (1) The mortgage is a reverse mortgage as described in chapter 25.1 of title 34 this title;

or

     (2) The date of default under the mortgage is on or before May 16, 2013.

     (p) Limitations on actions. Any person who claims that a foreclosure is not valid due to

the mortgagee's failure to comply with the terms of this section shall have one year from the date

that the first notice of foreclosure was published to file a complaint in the superior court for the

county in which the property is located and shall also file in the records of land evidence in the

city or town where the land subject to the mortgage is located a notice of lis pendens, the

complaint to be filed on the same day as the notice of lis pendens or within seven (7) days

thereafter. Failure to file a complaint, record the notice of lis pendens, and serve the mortgagee

within the one-year period shall preclude said mortgagor, or any other person claiming an interest

through a mortgagor, from subsequently challenging the validity of the foreclosure. Issuance by

the mediation coordinator of a certificate authorizing the mortgagee to proceed to foreclosure, or

otherwise certifying the mortgagee's good-faith effort to comply with the provisions of this

section, shall constitute a rebuttable presumption that the notice requirements of subsection (d)

have been met in all respects.


 

280)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

34-37.1-6

214 and 297

 

 

34-37.1-6. Homeless persons with service animals - Homeless shelters.

     Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to prohibit persons from entering a homeless

shelter while in possession of a service animal as defined in the "Americans with Disabilities

Act" (32 28 CFR 35.136) and the state and federal "Fair Housing Acts fair housing acts".


 

281)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

38-2-2

186, 237, �and 346

 

 

38-2-2. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter:

     (1) "Agency" or "public body" means any executive, legislative, judicial, regulatory, or

administrative body of the state, or any political subdivision thereof; including, but not limited to:

any department, division, agency, commission, board, office, bureau, authority; any school, fire,

or water district, or other agency of Rhode Island state or local government that exercises

governmental functions; any authority as defined in � 42-35-1(b); or any other public or private

agency, person, partnership, corporation, or business entity acting on behalf of and/or in place of

any public agency.

     (2) "Chief administrative officer" means the highest authority of the public body.

     (3) "Public business" means any matter over which the public body has supervision,

control, jurisdiction, or advisory power.

     (4) "Public record" or "public records" shall mean all documents, papers, letters, maps,

books, tapes, photographs, films, sound recordings, magnetic or other tapes, electronic data

processing records, computer stored data (including electronic mail messages, except specifically

for any electronic mail messages of or to elected officials with or relating to those they represent

and correspondence of or to elected officials in their official capacities), or other material

regardless of physical form or characteristics made or received pursuant to law or ordinance or in

connection with the transaction of official business by any agency. For the purposes of this

chapter, the following records shall not be deemed public:

     (A) (I) (a) All records relating to a client/attorney relationship and to a doctor/patient

relationship, including all medical information relating to an individual in any files.

     (b) Personnel and other personal individually identifiable records otherwise deemed

confidential by federal or state law or regulation, or the disclosure of which would constitute a

clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy pursuant to 5 U.S.C. � 552 et seq.; provided,

however, with respect to employees, and employees of contractors and subcontractors working on

public works projects that are required to be listed as certified payrolls, the name, gross salary,

salary range, total cost of paid fringe benefits, gross amount received in overtime, and any other

remuneration in addition to salary, job title, job description, dates of employment and positions

held with the state, municipality, employment contract, or public works contractor or

subcontractor on public works projects work location, and/or project, business telephone number,

the city or town of residence, and date of termination shall be public. For the purposes of this

section "remuneration" shall include any payments received by an employee as a result of

termination, or otherwise leaving employment, including, but not limited to, payments for

accrued sick and/or vacation time, severance pay, or compensation paid pursuant to a contract

buy-out provision.

     (II) Notwithstanding the provisions of this section, or any other provision of the general

laws to the contrary, the pension records of all persons who are either current or retired members

of any public retirement systems, as well as all persons who become members of those retirement

systems after June 17, 1991, shall be open for public inspection. "Pension records" as used in this

section, shall include all records containing information concerning pension and retirement

benefits of current and retired members of the retirement systems and future members of said

systems, including all records concerning retirement credits purchased and the ability of any

member of the retirement system to purchase retirement credits, but excluding all information

regarding the medical condition of any person and all information identifying the member's

designated beneficiary or beneficiaries unless and until the member's designated beneficiary or

beneficiaries have received or are receiving pension and/or retirement benefits through the

retirement system.

     (B) Trade secrets and commercial or financial information obtained from a person, firm,

or corporation that is of a privileged or confidential nature.

     (C) Child custody and adoption records, records of illegitimate births, and records of

juvenile proceedings before the family court.

     (D) All records maintained by law enforcement agencies for criminal law enforcement

and all records relating to the detection and investigation of crime, including those maintained on

any individual or compiled in the course of a criminal investigation by any law enforcement

agency. Provided, however, such records shall not be deemed public only to the extent that the

disclosure of the records or information (a) could reasonably be expected to interfere with

investigations of criminal activity or with enforcement proceedings; (b) would deprive a person

of a right to a fair trial or an impartial adjudication; (c) could reasonably be expected to constitute

an unwarranted invasion of personal privacy; (d) could reasonably be expected to disclose the

identity of a confidential source, including a state, local, or foreign agency or authority, or any

private institution that furnished information on a confidential basis, or the information furnished

by a confidential source; (e) would disclose techniques and procedures for law enforcement

investigations or prosecutions, or would disclose guidelines for law enforcement investigations or

prosecutions; or (f) could reasonably be expected to endanger the life or physical safety of any

individual. Records relating to management and direction of a law enforcement agency and

records or reports reflecting the initial arrest of an adult and the charge or charges brought against

an adult shall be public.

     (E) Any records that would not be available by law or rule of court to an opposing party

in litigation.

     (F) Scientific and technological secrets and the security plans of military and law

enforcement agencies, the disclosure of which would endanger the public welfare and security.

     (G) Any records that disclose the identity of the contributor of a bona fide and lawful

charitable contribution to the public body whenever public anonymity has been requested of the

public body with respect to the contribution by the contributor.

     (H) Reports and statements of strategy or negotiation involving labor negotiations or

collective bargaining.

     (I) Reports and statements of strategy or negotiation with respect to the investment or

borrowing of public funds, until such time as those transactions are entered into.

     (J) Any minutes of a meeting of a public body that are not required to be disclosed

pursuant to chapter 46 of title 42.

     (K) Preliminary drafts, notes, impressions, memoranda, working papers, and work

products, including those involving research at state institutions of higher education on

commercial, scientific, artistic, technical, or scholarly issues, whether in electronic or other

format; provided, however, any documents submitted at a public meeting of a public body shall

be deemed public.

     (L) Test questions, scoring keys, and other examination data used to administer a

licensing examination, examination for employment or promotion, or academic examinations;

provided, however, that a person shall have the right to review the results of his or her

examination.

     (M) Correspondence of or to elected officials with or relating to those they represent and

correspondence of or to elected officials in their official capacities.

     (N) The contents of real estate appraisals, engineering, or feasibility estimates and

evaluations made for or by an agency relative to the acquisition of property or to prospective

public supply and construction contracts, until such time as all of the property has been acquired

or all proceedings or transactions have been terminated or abandoned; provided the law of

eminent domain shall not be affected by this provision.

     (O) All tax returns.

     (P) All investigatory records of public bodies, with the exception of law enforcement

agencies, pertaining to possible violations of statute, rule, or regulation other than records of final

actions taken, provided that all records prior to formal notification of violations or noncompliance

shall not be deemed to be public.

     (Q) Records of individual test scores on professional certification and licensing

examinations; provided, however, that a person shall have the right to review the results of his or

her examination.

     (R) Requests for advisory opinions until such time as the public body issues its opinion.

     (S) Records, reports, opinions, information, and statements required to be kept

confidential by federal law or regulation or state law or rule of court.

     (T) Judicial bodies are included in the definition only in respect to their administrative

function provided that records kept pursuant to the provisions of chapter 16 of title 8 are exempt

from the operation of this chapter.

     (U) Library records that, by themselves or when examined with other public records,

would reveal the identity of the library user requesting, checking out, or using any library

materials.

     (V) Printouts from TELE -- TEXT devices used by people who are deaf or hard of

hearing or speech impaired.

     (W) All records received by the insurance division of the department of business

regulation from other states, either directly or through the National Association of Insurance

Commissioners, if those records are accorded confidential treatment in that state. Nothing

contained in this title or any other provision of law shall prevent or be construed as prohibiting

the commissioner of insurance from disclosing otherwise confidential information to the

insurance department of this or any other state or country, at any time, so long as the agency or

office receiving the records agrees in writing to hold it confidential in a manner consistent with

the laws of this state.

     (X) Credit card account numbers in the possession of state or local government are

confidential and shall not be deemed public records.

     (Y) Any documentary material, answers to written interrogatories, or oral testimony

provided under any subpoena issued under Rhode Island general law � 9-1.1-6.

     (Z) Any individually identifiable evaluations of public school teachers employees made

pursuant to state or federal law or regulation.

     (AA) All documents prepared by school districts intended to be used by school districts

in protecting the safety of their students from potential and actual threats.


 

282)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-27.7

79 and 97

 

 

39-1-27.7. System reliability and least-cost procurement.

     Least-cost procurement shall comprise system reliability and energy efficiency and

conservation procurement, as provided for in this section, and supply procurement, as provided

for in � 39-1-27.8, as complementary but distinct activities that have as common purpose meeting

electrical and natural gas energy needs in Rhode Island, in a manner that is optimally cost-

effective, reliable, prudent, and environmentally responsible.

     (a) The commission shall establish not later than June 1, 2008, standards for system

reliability and energy efficiency and conservation procurement, which that shall include

standards and guidelines for:

     (1) System reliability procurement, including but not limited to:

     (i) Procurement of energy supply from diverse sources, including, but not limited to,

renewable energy resources as defined in chapter 26 of this title;

     (ii) Distributed generation, including, but not limited to, renewable energy resources and

thermally leading combined heat and power systems, which that is reliable and is cost-effective

cost effective, with measurable, net system benefits;

     (iii) Demand response, including, but not limited to, distributed generation, back-up

generation, and on-demand usage reduction, which shall be designed to facilitate electric

customer participation in regional demand response programs, including those administered by

the independent service operator of New England ("ISO-NE"), and/or are designed to provide

local system reliability benefits through load control or using on-site generating capability;

     (iv) To effectuate the purposes of this division, the commission may establish standards

and/or rates (A) for For qualifying distributed generation, demand response, and renewable

energy resources; (B) for For net-metering; (C) for For back-up power and/or standby rates that

reasonably facilitate the development of distributed generation; and (D) for For such other

matters as the commission may find necessary or appropriate.

     (2) Least-cost procurement, which shall include procurement of energy efficiency and

energy conservation measures that are prudent and reliable and when such measures are lower

cost than acquisition of additional supply, including supply for periods of high demand.

     (b) The standards and guidelines provided for by subsection (a) shall be subject to

periodic review and as appropriate amendment by the commission, which review will be

conducted not less frequently than every three (3) years after the adoption of the standards and

guidelines.

     (c) To implement the provisions of this section:

     (1) The commissioner of the office of energy resources and the energy efficiency and

resources management council, either or jointly or separately, shall provide the commission

findings and recommendations with regard to system reliability and energy efficiency and

conservation procurement on or before March 1, 2008, and triennially on or before March 1,

thereafter through March 1, 2024. The report shall be made public and be posted electronically on

the website to of the office of energy resources.

     (2) The commission shall issue standards not later than June 1, 2008, with regard to plans

for system reliability and energy efficiency and conservation procurement, which standards may

be amended or revised by the commission as necessary and/or appropriate.

     (3) The energy efficiency and resources management council shall prepare by July 15,

2008, a reliability and efficiency procurement opportunity report which that shall identify

opportunities to procure efficiency, distributed generation, demand response, and renewables,

which report shall be submitted to the electrical distribution company, the commission, the office

of energy resources, and the joint committee on energy.

     (4) Each electrical and natural gas distribution company shall submit to the commission

on or before September 1, 2008, and triennially on or before September 1, thereafter through

September 1, 2024, a plan for system reliability and energy efficiency and conservation

procurement. In developing the plan, the distribution company may seek the advice of the

commissioner and the council. The plan shall include measurable goals and target percentages for

each energy resource, pursuant to standards established by the commission, including efficiency,

distributed generation, demand response, combined heat and power, and renewables. The plan

shall be made public and be posted electronically on the website to of the office of energy

resources, and shall also be submitted to the general assembly.

     (5) The commission shall issue an order approving all energy efficiency measures that are

cost effective and lower cost than acquisition of additional supply, with regard to the plan from

the electrical and natural gas distribution company, and reviewed and approved by the energy

efficiency and resources management council, and any related annual plans, and shall approve a

fully reconciling funding mechanism to fund investments in all efficiency measures that are cost

effective and lower cost than acquisition of additional supply, not greater than sixty (60) days

after it is filed with the commission.

     (6) (i) Each electrical and natural gas distribution company shall provide a status report,

which shall be public, on the implementation of least-cost procurement on or before December

15, 2008, and on or before February 1, 2009, to the commission, the division, the commissioner

of the office of energy resources, and the energy efficiency and resources management council

which may provide the distribution company recommendations with regard to effective

implementation of least-cost procurement. The report shall include the targets for each energy

resource included in the order approving the plan and the achieved percentage for energy

resource, including the achieved percentages for efficiency, distributed generation, demand

response, combined heat and power, and renewables, as well as the current funding allocations

for each eligible energy resource and the businesses and vendors in Rhode Island participating in

the programs. The report shall be posted electronically on the website of the office of energy

resources.

     (ii) Beginning on November 1, 2012, or before, each electric distribution company shall

support the installation and investment in clean and efficient combined heat and power

installations at commercial, institutional, municipal, and industrial facilities. This support shall be

documented annually in the electric distribution company's energy efficiency program plans. In

order to effectuate this provision, the energy efficiency and resource management council shall

seek input from the public, the gas and electric distribution company, the economic development

corporation, and commercial and industrial users, and make recommendations regarding services

to support the development of combined heat and power installations in the electric distribution

company's annual and triennial energy efficiency program plans.

     (iii) The energy efficiency annual plan shall include, but not be limited to, a plan for

identifying and recruiting qualified combined heat and power projects, incentive levels, contract

terms and guidelines, and achievable megawatt targets for investments in combined heat and

power systems. In the development of the plan, the energy efficiency and resource management

council and the electric distribution company shall factor into the combined heat and power plan

and program, the following criteria: (A) Economic development benefits in Rhode Island,

including direct and indirect job creation and retention from investments in combined heat and

power systems; (B) Energy and cost savings for customers; (C) Energy supply costs; (D)

Greenhouse gas emissions standards and air quality benefits; and (E) System reliability benefits.

     (iv) The energy efficiency and resource management council shall conduct at least one

public review meeting annually, to discuss and review the combined heat and power program,

with at least seven (7) business day's days� notice, prior to the electric and gas distribution utility

submitting the plan to the commission. The commission shall evaluate the submitted combined

heat and power program as part of the annual energy efficiency plan. The commission shall issue

an order approving the energy efficiency plan and programs within sixty (60) days of the filing.

     (d) If the commission shall determine that the implementation of system reliability and

energy efficiency and conservation procurement has caused, or is likely to cause, under or over-

recovery of overhead and fixed costs of the company implementing said procurement, the

commission may establish a mandatory rate adjustment clause for the company so affected in

order to provide for full recovery of reasonable and prudent overhead and fixed costs.

     (e) The commission shall conduct a contested case proceeding to establish a

performance-based incentive plan which that allows for additional compensation for each electric

distribution company and each company providing gas to end-users and/or retail customers based

on the level of its success in mitigating the cost and variability of electric and gas services

through procurement portfolios.

     (f)(1) The office of energy resources shall conduct a study and analysis of the electric and

gas distribution company's state energy efficiency programs that will examine implemented

program and planned conservation measures and review and confirm the claimed energy savings.

In carrying out this study, the office shall utilize a representative sample of different customer

classes and measures that have and/or will be participating in the state energy efficiency

programs. At a minimum, the study performed by the office of energy resources shall include the

following in its scope of work:

     (i) Independently review and summarize the electric and gas distribution company

process for incorporating results from completed evaluation studies into on-going energy

efficiency program reporting and implementation.

     (ii) Conduct an independent review of gas and electricity efficiency programs, which

may include billing analysis techniques. The scope and subjects of this analysis will be decided

by the working group with input and advice from an independent consultant. The analysis will be

conducted by a qualified independent consultant using industry accepted methods.

     (iii) Review the data-collection practices, including metering equipment used,; sampling

frequency,; sample sizes,; and data validation procedures, and the methods for data analysis

employed, as deemed appropriate by the independent evaluator.

     (iv) Study results and recommendations will be presented to the public utilities

commission and the energy efficiency and resource management council.

     (2) The office of energy resources shall consult with the working group in development

of the request for proposals (RFP), and during the course of the study, including the preliminary

study results. The working group shall be comprised of one representative from each of the

following groups chosen by the office of energy resources:

     (i) Large commercial and industrial energy users;

     (ii) Small business energy users;

     (iii) Residential energy users;

     (iv) Municipal and state energy users;

     (v) Low-income energy users;

     (vi) Electric and gas distribution company; and

     (vii) Energy efficiency and resource management council.

     (3) The office of energy resources, in consultation with the electric and gas distribution

company and representatives referenced in � 39-1-27.7(f)(2subsection (f)(2), shall be

authorized to hire an energy consulting company or firm to carry out the energy efficiency

verification study. The costs associated with this study, including, but not limited to, those

associated with the consultant or firm contract and reasonable administrative costs incurred by the

office in the execution of subsection (f) of this section, shall be recoverable through the system

benefit charge subject to commission approval. Funding shall be transferred from the electric and

gas distribution utility to the office of energy resources upon request by the office.

     (4) The office of energy resources shall submit this report on or before October 30, 2019,

to the governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the house. The office and its

selected energy consulting company or firm shall host two (2) public presentations on the

preliminary and final results of the study.


 

283)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

39-1-27.13

102 and 108

 

 

39-1-27.13. Alternative suppliers and purchase of receivables program.

     (a) The general assembly recognizes the importance of competitive choice in electric

generation service.

     (b) The commission may implement a purchase of receivables program where the electric

distribution company purchases the receivables of a nonregulated power producer at a discount

rate which that is then offset from the monthly payments the electric distribution company makes

to the nonregulated power producer if the commission finds that the benefits of the program to

ratepayers would exceed the costs to ratepayers.


 

284)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-12-7

176 and 289

 

 

39-12-7. Issuance of certificate to common carrier.

     A certificate shall be issued by the administrator, after a hearing, to any qualified

applicant therefor, authorizing the whole or any part of the operations covered by the application,

if it is found that the applicant is fit, willing, and able properly to perform the service proposed

and to conform to the provisions of this chapter and the requirements, orders, rules, and

regulations of the administrator thereunder, and that the proposed service, to the extent to be

authorized by the certificate, is or will be required by the present or future public convenience

and necessity; otherwise the application shall be denied. Any certificate issued under this chapter

shall specify the service to be rendered. and the routes over which, the fixed termini, if any,

between which, if any, at which, and, in case of operations not over specified routes or between

fixed termini, the points and places within which, or between which the motor carrier is

authorized to operate; and there shall, at the time of the issuance and from time to time thereafter,

be attached to the exercise of the privileges granted by the certificate such reasonable terms,

conditions, and limitations as the public convenience and necessity may from time to time

require; provided, however, that no terms, conditions, or limitations shall restrict the right of the

carrier to add to his or her or its equipment and facilities, between which or within the territory

specified in the certificate as the development of the business and the demands of the business

shall require. Certificates issued under this chapter shall be renewed before the close of business

on December 31 of each calendar year. The renewal fee shall be one hundred dollars ($100) and

shall be submitted with the renewal form. All revenues received under this section shall be

deposited as general revenues. No certificate shall be issued to a common carrier by motor

vehicle or, when issued, shall remain in force authorizing the transportation of property over the

publicly used highways of this state, unless the rates and charges upon which the property is

transported by the carrier shall have been published in the tariff and filed with the administrator in

accordance with this chapter.


 

285)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

39-13.1

83 and 89

 

 

CHAPTER 13.1

MOTOR CARRIER TRANSPORTATION CONTRACTS


 

286)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

39-13.1-1

83 and 89

 

 

39-13.1-1. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter:

     (1) "Motor carrier" means a contract carrier, a common carrier, or a private carrier of

property or passengers by motor vehicle.

     (2) "Motor carrier transportation contract" means a contract, agreement, or understanding

covering:

     (i) The transportation of property for compensation by a motor carrier or a service

incidental thereof;

     (ii) Entrance on property by a motor carrier for the purposes of loading, unloading, or

transporting property for compensation or a service incidental thereof; or

     (iii) A service incidental to an activity described in subsections (2)(i) and (2)(ii) of this

section.

     (3) "Promisee" means the promisee and any agents, employees, servants, or independent

contractors who are directly responsible to the promisee except for motor carriers party to a motor

carrier transportation contract with the promisee, and such the motor carrier's agents, employees,

servants, or independent contractors directly responsible to such the motor carrier.


 

287)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

39-13.1-2

83 and 89

 

 

39-13.1-2. Indemnity agreement in motor carrier transportation contract void.

     (a) Notwithstanding the provisions of chapters 12 and 13 of this title 39, or any general

or public law to the contrary, any provision, clause, covenant, or agreement contained in a motor

carrier transportation contract that purports to indemnify, defend, or hold harmless, or has the

effect of indemnifying, defending, or holding harmless, an indemnitee from or against any

liability for loss or damage resulting from such the indemnitee's negligence or intentional acts or

omissions shall be void and unenforceable.

     (b) This section does not apply to the Uniform Intermodal Interchange and Facilities

Access Agreement administered by the Intermodal Association of North America or other

agreements providing for the interchange, use, or possession of intermodal chassis or other

intermodal equipment.


 

288)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

39-13.1-3

83 and 89

 

 

39-13.1-3. Applicability.

     This chapter shall apply to motor carrier transportation contracts entered into or renewed

on or after the effective date of this chapter (June 28, 2018).


 

289)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

39-18-4.2

181 and 276

 

 

39-18-4.2. Alteration of bus route - Public hearing.

     (a) Any alteration or elimination of any bus route within the system established by the

authority pursuant to � 39-18-4 shall not take effect until a public hearing is held in the

neighborhood(s) along the affected route.

     (b) The public hearing shall take place at least thirty (30) days before the bus route

change is scheduled to take effect in the neighborhood(s) along the affected route.

     (c) The authority shall also prepare a neighborhood(s) impact statement prior to the

public hearing, and provide it to those persons attending the public hearing, the governor, those

members of the general assembly whose districts are affected by the change, and the mayors or

town administrators of the city or town affected by the change.

     (d) Nothing in this section shall be construed to apply to any temporary alteration of a bus

route necessitated by including, but not limited to, temporary alterations occasioned by weather,

construction activity, emergency, or unforeseen condition.


 

290)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

39-18.1-4

47 (article 8) and 347

 

 

39-18.1-4. Rhode Island highway maintenance account created.

     (a) There is hereby created a special account in the intermodal surface transportation fund

as established in � 31-36-20 that is to be known as the Rhode Island highway maintenance account.

     (b) The fund shall consist of all those moneys that the state may from time to time direct

to the fund, including, but not necessarily limited to, moneys derived from the following sources:

     (1) There is imposed a surcharge of thirty dollars ($30.00) per vehicle or truck, other than

those with specific registrations set forth below in subsection (b)(1)(i). Such surcharge shall be paid by each vehicle or truck owner in order to register that owner's vehicle or truck and upon each subsequent biennial registration. This surcharge shall be phased in at the rate of ten dollars

�($10.00) each year. The total surcharge will be ten dollars ($10.00) from July 1, 2013, through

June 30, 2014, twenty dollars ($20.00) from July 1, 2014, through June 30, 2015, and

thirty dollars ($30.00) and from July 1, 2015, through June 30, 2016, and each year thereafter.

     (i) For owners of vehicles or trucks with the following plate types, the surcharge shall be

as set forth below and shall be paid in full in order to register the vehicle or truck and upon each

subsequent renewal:

     Plate Type Surcharge

     Antique $5.00

     Farm $10.00

     Motorcycle $13.00

     (ii) For owners of trailers, the surcharge shall be one-half (1/2) of the biennial registration

amount and shall be paid in full in order to register the trailer and upon each subsequent renewal.

     (2) There is imposed a surcharge of fifteen dollars ($15.00) per vehicle or truck, other than

those with specific registrations set forth in subsection (b)(2)(i) below, for those vehicles or trucks

subject to annual registration, to be paid annually by each vehicle or truck owner in order to register that owner's vehicle, trailer, or truck and upon each subsequent annual registration. This

surcharge will be phased in at the rate of five dollars ($5.00) each year. The total surcharge will be

five dollars($5.00) from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2014, ten dollars ($10.00) from July 1, 2014, through June 30, 2015, and fifteen dollars ($15.00) from July 1, 2015, through

June 30, 2016, and each year thereafter.

     (i) For registrations of the following plate types, the surcharge shall be as set forth below

and shall be paid in full in order to register the plate, and upon each subsequent renewal:

Plate Type Surcharge

Boat Dealer $6.25

Cycle Dealer $6.25

In-transit $5.00

Manufacturer $5.00

New Car Dealer $5.00

Used Car Dealer $5.00

Racer Tow $5.00

Transporter $5.00

Bailee $5.00

     (ii) For owners of trailers, the surcharge shall be one-half (1/2) of the annual registration

amount and shall be paid in full in order to register the trailer and upon each subsequent renewal.

     (iii) For owners of school buses, the surcharge will be phased in at the rate of six dollars

and twenty-five cents ($6.25) each year. The total surcharge will be six dollars and twenty-five

cents ($6.25) from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2014, and twelve dollars and fifty cents ($12.50)

from July 1, 2014, through June 30, 2015, and each year thereafter.

     (3) There is imposed a surcharge of thirty dollars ($30.00) per license to operate a motor

vehicle to be paid every five (5) years by each licensed operator of a motor vehicle. This surcharge

will be phased in at the rate of ten dollars ($10.00) each year. The total surcharge will be ten dollars($10.00) from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2014, twenty dollars ($20.00) from

July 1, 2014, through June 30, 2015, and thirty dollars ($30.00) from July 1, 2015, through

June 30, 2016, and each year thereafter. In the event that a license is issued or renewed for a period of less than five(5) years, the surcharge will be prorated according to the period of time

the license will be valid.

     (c) All funds collected pursuant to this section shall be deposited in the Rhode Island

highway maintenance account and shall be used only for the purposes set forth in this chapter.

     (d) Unexpended balances and any earnings thereon shall not revert to the general fund but

shall remain in the Rhode Island highway maintenance account. There shall be no requirement that monies received into the Rhode Island highway maintenance account during any given

calendar year or fiscal year be expended during the same calendar year or fiscal year.

     (e) The Rhode Island highway maintenance account shall be administered by the director,

who shall allocate and spend monies from the fund only in accordance with the purposes and

procedures set forth in this chapter.

     (4) All fees assessed pursuant to � 31-47.1-11, and chapters 3, 6, 10, and 10.1 of title 31,

except for fees assessed pursuant to �� 31-10-31(6) and (31)(8), shall be deposited into the Rhode

Island highway maintenance account, provided that for fiscal years 2016, 2017, and 2018 these fees be transferred as follows:

     (i) From July 1, 2015, through June 30, 2016, twenty-five percent (25%) will be deposited;

     (ii) From July 1, 2016, through June 30, 2017, fifty percent (50%) will be deposited; and

     (iii) From July 1, 2017, through June 30, 2018, eighty percent (80%) sixty percent (60%)

will be deposited;

     (iv) From July 1, 2018, and each year thereafter, one hundred percent (100%) will be

deposited;

     (5) All remaining funds from previous general obligation bond issues that have not

otherwise been allocated.


 

291)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.4-20

230 and 234

 

 

40-8.4-20. Full year coverage for contraception.

     No later than July 1, 2019, the executive office of health and human services (EOHHS)

shall apply for the appropriate federal approval to provide Medicaid beneficiaries up to three

hundred sixty-five (365) days of prescription contraception dispensed as a single prescription.


 

292

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.9-6

148 and 255

 

 

40-8.9-6. Recognizing long-term reform performance - Reporting.

     (a) Annual performance reports showing progress in long-term-care system reform and

rebalancing shall be submitted by April 1st of each year by the executive office of health and

human services to the joint legislative committee on health care oversight as well as the finance

committees of both the senate and the house of representatives and the long-term-care

coordinating council and shall include:

     (1) the The number of Medicaid-eligible persons aged sixty-five (65) years and over and

adults with disabilities served in nursing facilities;

     (2) the The number of Medicaid-eligible persons aged sixty-five (65) years and over and

adults with disabilities transitioned from nursing homes to Medicaid-supported home- and

community-based care;

     (3) the The number of persons aged sixty-five (65) years and over and adults with

disabilities served in Medicaid and division of elderly affairs home and community care, to

include home care, adult day services, assisted living, the Personal Choice personal choice

program, the Program program of All-Inclusive Care all-inclusive care of the Elderly elderly

(PACE) and shared living;

     (4) the The dollar amounts and percent of expenditures spent on nursing facility care and

home- and community-based care for those aged sixty-five (65) years and over and adults with

disabilities and the average cost of care for nursing facility care and home- and community-based

care;

     (5) The amount of savings attributed to the value of the reduction in nursing home days,

including hospice nursing home days paid for by Medicaid in accordance with � 40-8.9-4, and

how the savings, if any, are allocated in the current fiscal year and in the proposed budget for the

ensuing fiscal year to promote and strengthen community-based alternatives; and

     (6) and estimates Estimates of the continued investments necessary to provide stability to

the existing system and establish the infrastructure and programs required to achieve systemwide

reform and the targeted goal of spending fifty percent (50%) of Medicaid long-term-care dollars

on nursing facility care and fifty percent (50%) on home- and community-based services.

     (b) Beginning in 2019, to measure and show progress in achieving the state's goals for

long-term services and supports reform, the executive office of health and human services shall

develop and make public on its website a long-term services and supports performance scorecard

based on the measures detailed in subsections (a)(1) through (a)(5) of this section showing data

for the most recent four- (4) year (4) period.


 

293)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.14

106 and 110

 

 

CHAPTER 8.14

QUALITY SELF-DIRECTED SERVICES


 

 

294)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.14-1

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.14-1. Definitions.

     For purposes of this section:

     (1) "Activities of daily living" (ADL) means the routine activities that people tend to do

every day without needing assistance. There are six (6) basic ADLs: eating, bathing, dressing,

toileting, transferring (walking), and continence.

     (2) "Covered home- and community-based services (HCBS)" means any core, preventive,

or specialized long-term-care services and supports available in a person's home or a community-

based living arrangement that the state is authorized to provide under the Medicaid state plan, the

Medicaid Section 1115 waiver, or any similar program.

     (3) "Direct-support services" means the range of home- and community-based services

(HCBS) covered services that are identified in the Medicaid state plan, Rhode Island's � 1115

waiver, or any similar program that may provide similar services in the future, and the rules and

regulations promulgated by the executive office of health and human services (EOHHS) or a

designated agency authorizes authorize individual home-care providers to provide. The direct-

support services must be provided in accordance with applicable federal and state law, rules, and

regulations and include, but are not limited to, personal care assistance, homemaker, and

companion services that the state is authorized to provide under the Medicaid state plan, the

Medicaid Section 1115 waiver, or any similar program in the future, including:

     (i) Participant assistance with activities of daily living and instrumental activities of daily

living as defined in this chapter;

     (ii) Assistance with monitoring health status and physical condition;

     (iii) Assistance with preparation and eating of meals (not the cost of the meals itself);

     (iv) Assistance with housekeeping activities (bed making, dusting, vacuuming, laundry,

grocery shopping, cleaning);

     (v) Assistance with transferring, ambulation, and use of special mobility devices assisting

the participant by directly providing or arranging transportation; and

     (vi) Other similar, in-home, non-medical long-term services and supports provided to an

elderly person or individual with a disability by an individual provider to meet such the person's

daily living needs and ensure that such the person may adequately function in the person's home

and have safe access to the community.

     (4) "Director" means the director of the Rhode Island department of administration.

     (5) "Fiscal intermediary" means a third-party organization under contract with the

EOHHS responsible for performing payroll and other employment-related functions on behalf of

the participant.

     (i) The fiscal intermediary shall:

     (A) Be authorized by the secretary or a designated agency to receive and distribute

support funds on behalf of a participant in accordance with the participant's service plan; and

     (B) Act as a fiscal intermediary on behalf of a participant in compliance with all rules,

regulations, and terms and conditions established by the secretary.

     (ii) The fiscal intermediary shall not make any decisions regarding hiring, supervising, or

firing individual providers.

     (6) "Individual provider" means an individual selected by and working under the

direction of a Medicaid LTSS beneficiary or the beneficiary's duly authorized representative to

provide direct-support services to the participant in accordance with the beneficiary's service

plan, but does not include an employee of a provider agency, subject to the agency's direction and

control commensurate with agency employee status or an individual providing services to a

participant electing the personal choice option in any program.

     (7) "Instrumental activities of daily living" means the skills a person needs to live safely

and successfully in a residential setting of choice without outside supports. Such These skills

include, but are not limited to, using the telephone, traveling, shopping, preparing meals, doing

housework, taking medications properly, and managing money.

     (8) "Medicaid LTSS beneficiary" means a person who has been determined by the state

to obtain Medicaid-funded long-term services and supports.

     (9) "Participant" means a Medicaid LTSS beneficiary who receives direct-support

services from an individual provider.

     (10) "Participant's representative" means a participant's legal guardian or an individual

having the authority and responsibility to act on behalf of a participant with respect to the

provision of direct-support services.

     (11) "Provider representative" means a provider organization that is certified as the

exclusive negotiating representative of individual providers as provided in � 40-8.15-7.

     (12) "Secretary" means the secretary of the Rhode Island executive office of health and

human services (EOHHS).


 

295)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.14-2

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.14-2. Scope of coverage.

     Individual providers may provide all authorized HCBS,-covered services in accordance

with the participant�s service plan at home and other Medicaid certified settings, to the extent the

applicable federal and state laws and rules and regulations allow.


 

296)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.14-3

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.14-3. Use of employee workforce.

     The requirement under � 40-8.14-2 shall not restrict the state's ability to afford

participants and participants' representatives who choose not to employ an individual provider, or

are unable to do so, the option of receiving direct-support services through a personal choice

option or through the employees of provider agencies, rather than through an individual provider.

     Nothing in this chapter shall restrict the state's ability to afford Medicaid LTSS

beneficiaries authorized to receive HCBS-covered services with the freedom of choice guaranteed

under Title XIX to enter into service delivery agreements with any authorized Medicaid provider.


 

 

297)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.14-4

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.14-4. Duties of the executive office for health and human services.

     (a) The secretary shall afford to all Medicaid LTSS beneficiaries who receive authorized

HCBS-covered services in accordance with a service plan the option of employing an individual

provider to provide direct-support services.

     (b) The secretary shall modify program operations as necessary to ensure implementation

of the individual provider model and to ensure all relevant vendors assist and cooperate as

needed, including managed care organizations and providers of fiscal support, fiscal intermediary,

financial management, or similar services to provide support to participants and participants'

representatives with regard to employing individual providers, and otherwise fulfill the

requirements of this section, including the provisions of subsection (f) of this section.

     (c) The secretary shall have the authority to:

     (1) Establish reimbursement rates for all individual providers, in accordance with chapter

8.15 of this title 40, provided that these rates may permit individual provider variations based on

traditional and relevant factors otherwise permitted by law; provided, however, that

reimbursement rates shall be required to be approved by the general assembly.;

     (2) Ensure delivery of required orientation programs for individual providers;

     (3) Implement training and educational opportunities negotiated in accordance with

chapter 8.15 of this title 40 for individual providers, as well as for participants and participants'

representatives who receive services from individual providers, including opportunities for

individual providers to obtain certification documenting additional training and experience in

areas of specialization;

     (4) In collaboration with the provider representative, provide for the maintenance of a

public registry of individuals who have consented to be included to:

     (i) Allow for routine, emergency, and respite referrals of qualified individual providers

who have consented to be included in the registry to participants and participants' representatives;

     (ii) Enable participants and participants' representatives to gain improved access to, and

choice among, prospective individual providers, including by having access to information about

individual providers' training, educational background, work experience, national criminal

background check results, and availability for hire;

     (5) Establish provider qualification standards for individual providers, including

undergoing a national criminal background check and behavior that would disqualify someone as

an individual provider;

     (6) Establish other appropriate terms and conditions for the workforce of individual

providers without infringing on participants' or their responsible parties' rights and responsibilities

to hire, direct, supervise, and/or terminate the employment of their individual providers;

     (7) Establish an advisory board for participants, their representatives, and advocates, to

communicate directly with the secretary about the provision of quality, direct-support services.

     (i) The board shall consist of thirteen (13) members:

     (A) One of whom shall be the secretary of the executive office of health and human

services, or a designee, who shall serve as chair;

     (B) Six (6) of whom shall be consumers of the individual provider model, two (2) to be

appointed by the governor, two (2) to be appointed by the president of the senate, and two (2) to

be appointed by the speaker of the house;

     (C) Three (3) of whom shall be representatives from statewide independent living

centers, one to be appointed by the governor, one to be appointed by the president of the senate,

and one to be appointed by the speaker of the house;

     (D) Three of whom shall be from a 501(c)(3) statewide senior advocacy organization, one

to be appointed by the governor, one to be appointed by the president of the senate, and one to be

appointed by the speaker of the house;

     (ii) The board members shall be appointed for three-(3) year (3) terms.

     (iii) The board shall advise the secretary, or a designee, regarding issues relating to the

quality, access, and consumer autonomy offered through the individual provider model; and

     (8) Contract with a fiscal intermediary service for the operations of the individual

provider model.

     (d) The secretary's authority in � 40-8.14-4 this section shall be subject to the state's

obligations to meet and negotiate under � 40-8.15-3 and chapter 7 of title 28, as modified and

made applicable to individual providers under �40-8.15-3, and to agreements with any exclusive

representative of individual providers, as authorized by � 40-8.15-3. Except to the extent

otherwise provided by law, the secretary shall not undertake activities in subsections (c)(3) and

(c)(4) of this section, prior to October 1, 2019, unless included in a negotiated agreement and an

appropriation has been provided by the legislature to the secretary.

     (e) The secretary shall cooperate in the implementation of chapter 8.15 of this title 40

with all other relevant state departments and agencies. Any entity providing relevant services,

including, but not limited to, providers of fiscal support, fiscal intermediary, financial

management, or similar services to provide support to participants and participants'

representatives with regard to employing individual providers shall assist and cooperate with the

secretary in the operations of this section, including with respect to the secretary's obligations

under subsections (b) and (f) of this section.

     (f) The secretary, or a designee, shall, no later than October 1, 2019, and then quarterly

thereafter, in accordance with rules and regulations promulgated by EOHHS, compile and

maintain a list of the names and addresses of all individual providers who have been paid for

providing direct-support services to participants within the previous six (6) months. The list shall

not include the name of any participant, or indicate that an individual provider is a relative of a

participant or has the same address as a participant. The secretary, or a designee agency, shall

share the lists with others as needed for the state to meet its obligations under this chapter and

chapter 8.15 of this title 40. This sharing shall not include access to private data on participants or

participants' representatives. Nothing in this section or chapter 8.15 of this title 40 shall alter the

access rights of other private parties to data on individual providers.

     (g) The secretary shall immediately commence all necessary steps to ensure that direct-

support services are offered in conformity with this section,; to gather all information that may be

needed for promptly compiling lists required under this section, including information from

current vendors,; and to complete any required modifications to currently providing direct-

support services by October 1, 2019.


 

298)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.14-5

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.14-5.  Authority of the department of administration.

     In accordance with chapter 8.15 of this title 40, the director shall have the authority to:

     (1) Meet and negotiate with any provider representative chosen pursuant to � 40-8.15-8

2(a);

     (2) In coordination with the secretary, negotiate over any of the topics in � 40-8.14-4(c)

and any other appropriate matters governing the workforce of individual providers without

infringing on participants' or their responsible parties' rights and responsibilities to hire, direct,

supervise, and/or terminate the employment of their individual providers; and

     (3) Execute a collective bargaining agreement, subject to any approval required under �

40-8.15-5.


 

299)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.15-6

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.14-6. Severability.

     Should any part of this chapter be declared invalid or unenforceable, or the enforcement

or compliance with it is suspended, restrained, or barred, either by the state or by the final

judgment of a court of competent jurisdiction, the remainder of this chapter shall remain in full

force and effect.


 

 

 

 

 

 

300)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.15

106 and 110

 

 

CHAPTER 8.15

INDIVIDUAL PROVIDERS OF DIRECT SUPPORT SERVICES


 

301)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers

 

40-8.15-1

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.15-1. Definitions.

     For the purposes of this chapter:

     (1) "Direct-support services" has the meaning given to it under � 40-8.14-1.

     (2) "Director" has the meaning given to it under � 40-8.14-1.

     (3) "Individual provider" has the meaning given to it under � 40-8.14-1.

     (4) "Participant" has the meaning given to it under � 40-8.14-1.

     (5) "Participant's representative" has the meaning given to it under � 40-8.14-1.

     (6) "Provider representative" has the meaning given to it under � 40-8.14-1.

     (7) "Secretary" has the meaning given to it under � 40-8.14-1.


 

 302)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.15-2

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.15-2. Right of individual providers to choose provider representative --

Subject of negotiation.

     (a) Individual providers may, in accordance with the procedures set forth in � 40-8.15-7,

choose a provider organization to be their provider representative and to negotiate with the state,

over the terms and conditions of individual providers' participation in providing direct-support

services, including, but not limited to:

     (1) Expanding training and professional development opportunities;

     (2) Improving the recruitment and retention of qualified individual providers;

     (3) Reimbursement rates and other economic matters;

     (4) Benefits;

     (5) Payment procedures; and

     (6) A grievance resolution process.

     (b) Nothing in this chapter or in chapter 8.14 of title 40 shall interfere with regulatory

authority of the Rhode Island department of health (RIDOH) over individual providers licensing.

Individual provider licensing shall be excluded from and not subject to the negotiation process

recognized and described in this section.

     (c) Notwithstanding the above, individual providers must operate in conformance with

the relevant sections of the general laws applicable thereto and regulations promulgated by the

state.

     (d) The directors of each department with authority to administer their respective

programs shall work in consultation with the secretary regarding the terms and conditions of

individual providers' participation in their respective programs including, but not limited to, the

terms and conditions in subsection (a) of this section.


 

 

 

303)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.15-3

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.15-3. Good faith negotiations.

     It shall be the obligation of the director, or a designee, to meet and negotiate in good faith

with the provider representative within thirty (30) days after receipt of written notice from the

provider representative of the request for a meeting for bargaining purposes. This obligation shall

include the duty to cause any agreement resulting from the negotiations to be reduced to a written

contract.


 

304)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.15-4

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.15-4. Unresolved issues -- Impasse procedures.

     In the event that the provider representative and the director, or a designee, are unable to

reach an agreement on a contract, or reach an impasse in negotiations, the procedures of �� 36-

11-7.1 through 36-11-11 shall be followed.


 

 

305)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.15-5

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.15-5. Economic aspects of contract subject to legislative appropriation.

     Any aspects of a contract requiring appropriation by the federal government, the general

assembly, or revisions to statutes and/or regulations shall be subject to passage of those

appropriations and/or any necessary statutory and/or regulatory revisions.


 

306)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.15-6

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.15-6. Duty to represent all individual providers fairly -- Deduction of

membership dues and other voluntary deductions.

     (a) A provider organization certified as the provider representative shall represent all

individual providers in the state fairly and without discrimination, without regard to whether or

not the individual provider is a member of the provider organization.

     (b) Each individual provider may choose whether to be a member of the provider

organization. The state, or its designee, shall deduct from payments to care providers membership

dues for individual providers who elect to become members and authorize the deduction of

membership dues, and any other voluntary deductions authorized by individual providers.


 

 

 

 

 

307)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.15-7

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.15-7. Certification and decertification of provider organization.

     Petitions to certify a provider organization to serve as the provider representative of

individual providers,; petitions to intervene in such an election,; and any other petitions for

investigation of controversies as to representation may be filed with and acted upon by the labor

relations board in accordance with the provisions of chapter 7 of title 28 and the board's rules and

regulations; provided, that any valid petition as to whether individual providers wish to certify or

decertify a provider representative shall be resolved by a secret ballot election among individual

providers, for which the purpose the board may designate a neutral third party to conduct said the

secret ballot election.

     (b) The only appropriate unit shall consist of all individual providers in the state.

     (c) For purposes of this section, no individual provider shall be deemed excluded from

the bargaining unit under � 28-7-3(3)(ii) because they he or she provides care to a family

member or because they are in domestic service in a person's home.

     (d) The cost of any certification election held under this section will be split equally

among all the provider organizations that appear on the ballot.


 

308)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.15-8

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.15-8. Unfair practices.

     It shall be unlawful for the state to do any of the acts made unlawful under � 28-7-13. It

shall be unlawful for the provider representative to do any of the acts made unlawful under � 28-

7-13.1. Any alleged violation of this provision may be filed with the labor relations board as an

unfair labor practice and considered and ruled upon in accordance with chapter 7 of title 28 and

the board's rules and regulations.


 

309)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.15-9

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.15-9. Individual providers not state employees.

     Notwithstanding the state's obligations to meet and negotiate under chapter 7 of title 28,

nothing in this chapter shall be construed to make individual providers employees of the state for

any purpose, including for the purposes of eligibility for the state employee pension program or

state employee health benefits.


  

310)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.15-10

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.15-10. Right of families to select, direct and terminate individual providers

     Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to alter the rights of families to select, direct,

and terminate the services of individual providers.


 

311)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.15-11

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.15-11. Strikes not authorized.

     Individual providers shall not engage in any strike or other collective cessation of the

delivery of direct-support services.


 

312)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.15-12

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.15-12. State action exemption.

     The state action exemption to the application of state and federal antitrust laws is

applicable to the activities of individual providers and their provider representative authorized

under this chapter.


 

313)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-8.15-13

106 and 110

 

 

40-8.15-13. Severability.

     Should any part of this chapter be declared invalid or unenforceable, or the enforcement

or compliance with it is suspended, restrained, or barred, either by the state or by the final

judgment of a court of competent jurisdiction, the remainder of this chapter shall remain in full

force and effect.


 

314)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40-11-2

189 and 262

 

 

40-11-2. Definitions.

     When used in this chapter and unless the specific context indicates otherwise:

     (1) "Abused and/or or neglected child" means a child whose physical or mental health or

welfare is harmed, or threatened with harm, when his or her parent or other person responsible for

his or her welfare:

     (i) Inflicts, or allows to be inflicted, upon the child physical or mental injury, including

excessive corporal punishment; or

     (ii) Creates, or allows to be created, a substantial risk of physical or mental injury to the

child, including excessive corporal punishment; or

     (iii) Commits, or allows to be committed, against the child, an act of sexual abuse; or

     (iv) Fails to supply the child with adequate food, clothing, shelter, or medical care,

though financially able to do so or offered financial or other reasonable means to do so; or

     (v) Fails to provide the child with a minimum degree of care or proper supervision or

guardianship because of his or her unwillingness or inability to do so by situations or conditions

such as, but not limited to: social problems, mental incompetency, or the use of a drug, drugs, or

alcohol to the extent that the parent or other person responsible for the child's welfare loses his or

her ability or is unwilling to properly care for the child; or

     (vi) Abandons or deserts the child; or

     (vii) Sexually exploits the child in that the person allows, permits, or encourages the child

to engage in prostitution as defined by the provisions in � 11-34.1-1 et seq., entitled "Commercial

Sexual Activity"; or

     (viii) Sexually exploits the child in that the person allows, permits, encourages, or

engages in the obscene or pornographic photographing, filming, or depiction of the child in a

setting that, taken as a whole, suggests to the average person that the child is about to engage in,

or has engaged in, any sexual act, or that depicts any such child under eighteen (18) years of age

performing sodomy, oral copulation, sexual intercourse, masturbation, or bestiality; or

     (ix) Commits, or allows to be committed, any sexual offense against the child as such

sexual offenses are defined by the provisions of chapter 37 of title 11, entitled "Sexual Assault",

as amended; or

     (x) Commits, or allows to be committed, against any child an act involving sexual

penetration or sexual contact if the child is under fifteen (15) years of age; or if the child is fifteen

(15) years or older, and (1) force or coercion is used by the perpetrator, or (2) the perpetrator

knows, or has reason to know, that the victim is a severely impaired person as defined by the

provisions of � 11-5-11, or physically helpless as defined by the provisions of � 11-37-1(6).

     (2) "Child" means a person under the age of eighteen (18).

     (3) "Child protective investigator" means an employee of the department charged with

responsibility for investigating complaints and/or and referrals of child abuse and/or and neglect

and institutional child abuse and/or and neglect.

     (4) "Children's advocacy center (CAC)" means a community-based organization that is a

member of the Rhode Island chapter of children advocacy centers and an accredited member (or

working toward accreditation) of the National Children's Alliance.

     (4)(5) "Department" means department of children, youth and families.

     (5)(6) "Educational program" means any public or private school, including boarding

schools, or any home-schooling program.

     (6)(7) "Health-care provider" means any provider of health-care services involved in the

delivery or care of infants and/or or care of children.

     (7)(8) "Institution" means any private or public hospital or other facility providing

medical and/or or psychiatric diagnosis, treatment, and care.

     (8)(9) "Institutional child abuse and neglect" means situations of known or suspected

child abuse or neglect where the person allegedly responsible for the abuse or neglect is a foster

parent or the employee of a public or private residential child-care institution or agency; or any

staff person providing out-of-home care or situations where the suspected abuse or neglect occurs

as a result of the institution's practices, policies, or conditions.

     (9)(10) "Law-enforcement agency" means the police department in any city or town

and/or or the state police.

     (10)(11) "Mental injury" includes a state of substantially diminished psychological or

intellectual functioning in relation to, but not limited to, such factors as: failure to thrive; ability

to think or reason; control of aggressive or self-destructive impulses; acting-out or misbehavior,

including incorrigibility, ungovernability, or habitual truancy; provided, however, that the injury

must be clearly attributable to the unwillingness or inability of the parent or other person

responsible for the child's welfare to exercise a minimum degree of care toward the child.

     (11)(12) "Person responsible for child's welfare" means the child's parent; guardian; any

individual, eighteen (18) years of age or older, who resides in the home of a parent or guardian

and has unsupervised access to a child; foster parent; an employee of a public or private

residential home or facility; or any staff person providing out-of-home care (out-of-home care

means child day care to include family day care, group day care, and center-based day care).

Provided, further, that an individual, eighteen (18) years of age or older, who resides in the home

of a parent or guardian and has unsupervised access to the child, shall not have the right to

consent to the removal and examination of the child for the purposes of � 40-11-6.

     (12)(13) "Physician" means any licensed doctor of medicine, licensed osteopathic

physician, and any physician, intern, or resident of an institution as defined in subsection (7)(8).

     (13)(14) "Probable cause" means facts and circumstances based upon as accurate and

reliable information as possible that would justify a reasonable person to suspect that a child is

abused or neglected. The facts and circumstances may include evidence of an injury, or injuries,

and the statements of a person worthy of belief, even if there is no present evidence of injury.

     (14)(15) "Shaken-baby syndrome" means a form of abusive head trauma, characterized

by a constellation of symptoms caused by other than accidental traumatic injury resulting from

the violent shaking of and/or or impact upon an infant or young child's head.


 

315)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40-11-3.3

179 and 240

 

 

40-11-3.3. Duty to report -- Sexual abuse of a child in an educational program.

     (a) Any person who has reasonable cause to know or suspect that any child has been the

victim of sexual abuse by an employee, agent, contractor, or volunteer of an educational program

as defined in � 40-11-2 shall, within twenty-four (24) hours, transfer that information to the

department of children, youth and families, or its agent,; provided, however, that if the person

mandated to report is an employee, agent, contractor, or volunteer of an educational program as

defined in � 40-11-2, they shall immediately notify the principal, headmaster, executive director,

or other person in charge of the educational program, or their his or her designated agent. The

principal, headmaster, executive director, or other person in charge of the educational program, or

their his or her designated agent, shall be responsible for all subsequent notification to the

department of children, youth and families, or its agent in the manner required by this section. In

the case of a public educational program, the principal, headmaster, executive director, or other

person in charge of the educational program, or their his or her designated agent, shall also notify

the superintendent of the public educational program. Any transferred information shall include

the name, title, and contact information for every employee, agent, contractor, or volunteer of the

educational program who is believed to have direct knowledge of the allegation. Nothing in this

section is intended to require more than one report from any educational program for a specific

incident.

     (b) In order to provide guidance and consistency in reporting, the commissioner of

elementary and secondary education shall promulgate policies and procedures for the creation and

handling of reports made by the principal, headmaster, executive director, or other person in

charge of the educational program, or their his or her designated agent in order to carry out the

intent of this section.

     (c) The department of children, youth and families, or its agent who or which shall

immediately forward the report to state police and local law enforcement, and shall initiate an

investigation of the allegations of sexual abuse if it determines that the report meets the criteria

for a child protective services investigation. As a result of those reports and referrals, the

department shall refer those children to appropriate services and support systems in order to

provide for their health and welfare. In the event the department substantiates the allegations of

sexual abuse against an employee, agent, contractor, or volunteer of an educational program, the

department shall immediately notify the state police; local law-enforcement agency; the

department of education; the educational program; the person who is the subject of the

investigation; and the parent, or parents, of the child who is alleged to be the victim of the sexual

abuse of the department's findings.

      (b)(d) The director of the department of children, youth and families is authorized to

promulgate rules and regulations pertaining to the investigation of the allegation of sexual abuse

in order to carry out the intent of this section.

     (e) For purposes of this section, "reasonable cause to know or suspect" means that it is

objectively reasonable for a person to entertain a suspicion, based upon facts that could cause a

reasonable person in a like position, drawing, when appropriate, on their the person�s training

and experience, to suspect child abuse. "Reasonable cause to know or suspect" does not require

certainty that child sexual abuse has occurred nor does it require a specific medical indication of

child sexual abuse; any "reasonable cause to know or suspect" is sufficient.


 

316)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40-11-7.2

189 and 262

 

 

40-11-7.2. Evidence.

     (a) A videotape recording made by the department of children, youth, and families, a law

enforcement officer, or a hospital, or a children's advocacy center of an interview of or statement

made by a child who is the subject of an investigation conducted pursuant to � 40-11-7 is

admissible in any court proceeding pursuant to this chapter, notwithstanding any objection to

hearsay statements contained therein, provided it is relevant and material and provided its

probative value substantially outweighs the danger of unfair prejudice to the child's parent,

guardian, or other person responsible for the child's welfare. The circumstances of the making of

the videotape recording, including the maker's lack of personal knowledge, may be proved to

affect its weight.

     (b) Prior to the videotaped recording being introduced into evidence the court shall first

determine that:

     (1) The statement is sworn to under oath by the child and the significance of the oath is

explained to the child;

     (2) The recording is both visual and aural and is recorded on film or videotaped or by

other electronic means;

     (3) The recording equipment was capable of making an accurate recording, the operator

of the equipment was competent, and the recording is accurate and has not been altered;

     (4) Every voice on the recording is identified;

     (5) The statement was not made in response to questioning calculated to lead the child to

make a particular statement;

     (6) The person conducting the interview of the child is available to testify at any court

proceeding pursuant to this chapter; and

     (7) The child shall be available to testify at any court proceeding pursuant to this chapter.

     SECTION 2. Chapter 40-11 of the General Laws entitled "Abused and Neglected

Children" is hereby amended by adding thereto the following section:


 

317)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

40-11-18

189 and 262

 

 

40-11-18. Children's advocacy centers; services; requirements.

     (a) Children's advocacy centers shall provide the following services to children in Rhode

Island:

     (1) Operation of a child-appropriate or child-friendly facility that provides a comfortable,

private setting that is both physically and psychologically safe for clients;

     (2) Participation in a multidisciplinary team for response to child abuse allegations;

     (3) Operation of a legal entity responsible for program and fiscal operations that has

established and implemented basic sound administrative practices;

     (4) Promotion of policies, practices, and procedures that are culturally competent and

diverse;

     (5) Conduct forensic interviews in a manner which that is of a neutral, fact-finding

nature and coordinated to avoid duplicative interviewing;

     (6) Provide specialized medical evaluation and treatment made available to clients as part

of the team response, either at the CAC or through coordination and referral with other

specialized medical providers;

     (7) Offer therapeutic intervention through specialized mental health services made

available as part of the team response, either at the child advocacy center or through coordination

and referral with other appropriate treatment providers;

     (8) Offer victim support and advocacy as part of the team response, either at the child

advocacy center or through coordination with other providers, throughout the investigation and

subsequent legal proceedings;

     (9) Conduct team discussions and provide information sharing regarding the

investigation, case status, and services needed by the child and family are to occur on a routine

basis;

     (10) Develop and implement a system for monitoring case progress and tracking case

outcomes for team components; and

     (11) Shall establish a safe exchange location for children and families who have a

parenting agreement or an order providing for visitation or custody of the children that require a

safe exchange location.

     (b) As used in this section, "cultural competency" means the capacity to function in more

than one culture, requiring the ability to appreciate, understand, and interact with members of

diverse populations within the local community.


 

318)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40.1-1-13

178 and 205

 

 

40.1-1-13. Powers and duties of the office.

     (a) Notwithstanding any provision of the Rhode Island general laws to the contrary, the

department of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and hospitals shall have the

following powers and duties:

     (1) To establish and promulgate the overall plans, policies, objectives, and priorities for

state substance-abuse education, prevention, and treatment; provided, however, that the director

shall obtain and consider input from all interested state departments and agencies prior to the

promulgation of any such plans or policies;

     (2) Evaluate and monitor all state grants and contracts to local substance-abuse service

providers;

     (3) Develop, provide for, and coordinate the implementation of a comprehensive state

plan for substance-abuse education, prevention, and treatment;

     (4) Ensure the collection, analysis, and dissemination of information for planning and

evaluation of substance-abuse services;

     (5) Provide support, guidance, and technical assistance to individuals, local governments,

community service providers, public and private organizations in their substance-abuse education,

prevention, and treatment activities;

     (6) Confer with all interested department directors to coordinate the administration of

state programs and policies that directly affect substance-abuse treatment and prevention;

     (7) Seek and receive funds from the federal government and private sources in order to

further the purposes of this chapter;

     (8) To act in conjunction with the executive office of health and human services as the

state's co-designated agency (42 U.S.C. � 300x-30(a)) for administering federal aid and for the

purposes of the calculation of the expenditures relative to the substance-abuse block grant and

federal funding maintenance of effort. The department of behavioral healthcare, developmental

disabilities and hospitals, as the state's substance-abuse authority, will have the sole responsibility

for the planning, policy and implementation efforts as it relates to the requirements set forth in

pertinent substance-abuse laws and regulations including 42 U.S.C. � 300x-21 et seq.;

     (9) Propose, review, and/or approve, as appropriate, proposals, policies, or plans

involving insurance and managed care systems for substance-abuse services in Rhode Island;

     (10) To enter into, in compliance with the provisions of chapter 2 of title 37, contractual

relationships and memoranda of agreement as necessary for the purposes of this chapter;

     (11) To license facilities and programs for the care and treatment of substance abusers

and for the prevention of substance abuse, and provided provide the list of licensed chemical

dependency professionals (LCDP) and licensed chemical dependency clinical supervisors

(LCDCS) (licensed by the department of health pursuant to chapter 69 of title 5) for use by state

agencies including, but not limited to, the adjudication office of the department of transportation,

the district court and superior court and the division of probation and parole for referral of

individuals requiring substance-use disorder treatment;

     (12) To promulgate rules and regulations necessary to carry out the requirements of this

chapter;

     (13) Perform other acts and exercise any other powers necessary or convenient to carry

out the intent and purposes of this chapter;

     (14) To exercise the authority and responsibilities relating to education, prevention, and

treatment of substance abuse, as contained in, but not limited to, the following chapters: chapter

1.10 of title 23; chapter 10.1 of title 23; chapter 28.2 of title 23; chapter 21.2 of title 16; chapter

21.3 of title 16; chapter 50.1 of title 42; chapter 109 of title 42; chapter 69 of title 5 and � 35-4-

18;

     (15) To establish a Medicare Part D restricted-receipt account in the hospitals and

community rehabilitation services program to receive and expend Medicare Part D

reimbursements from pharmacy benefit providers consistent with the purposes of this chapter;

     (16) To establish a RICLAS group home operations restricted-receipt account in the

services for the developmentally disabled program to receive and expend rental income from

RICLAS group clients for group home-related expenditures, including food, utilities, community

activities, and the maintenance of group homes;

     (17) To establish a non-Medicaid, third-party-payor restricted-receipt account in the

hospitals and community rehabilitation services program to receive and expend reimbursement

from non-Medicaid, third-party payors to fund hospital patient services that are not Medicaid

eligible; and

     (18) To certify recovery housing facilities directly, or through a contracted entity, as

defined by department guidelines, which that includes adherence to using National Alliance for

Recovery Residences (NARR) standards. In accordance with a schedule to be determined by the

department, all referrals from state agencies or state-funded facilities shall be to certified houses,

and only certified recovery housing facilities shall be eligible to receive state funding to deliver

recovery housing services.


 

319)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

40.1-5-8

163 and 263

 

 

40.1-5-8. Civil court certification.

     (a) Petitions. A verified petition may be filed in the district court, or family court in the

case of a person who has not reached his or her eighteenth (18th) birthday, for the certification to

a facility of any person who is alleged to be in need of care and treatment in a facility, and whose

continued unsupervised presence in the community would create a likelihood of serious harm by

reason of mental disability. The petition may be filed by any person with whom the subject of the

petition may reside; or at whose house he or she may be; or the father or mother, husband or wife,

brother or sister, or the adult child of any such person; the nearest relative if none of the above are

available; or his or her guardian; or the attorney general; or a local director of public welfare; or

the director of the department of behavioral healthcare, developmental disabilities and hospitals;

the director of the department of human services; or the director of the department of corrections;

the director of the department of health; the warden of the adult correctional institutions; the

superintendent of the boys training school for youth, or his or her designated agent; or the director

of any facility, or his or her designated agent, whether or not the person shall have been admitted

and is a patient at the time of the petition. A petition under this section shall be filed only after the

petitioner has investigated what alternatives to certification are available and determined why the

alternatives are not deemed suitable.

     (b) Contents of petition. The petition shall state that it is based upon a personal

observation of the person concerned by the petitioner within a ten-day (10) period prior to filing.

It shall include a description of the behavior that constitutes the basis for the petitioner's judgment

that the person concerned is in need of care and treatment and that a likelihood of serious harm by

reason of mental disability exists. In addition, the petitioner shall indicate what alternatives to

certification are available; what alternatives have been investigated; and why the investigated

alternatives are not deemed suitable.

     (c) Certificates and contents thereof. A petition hereunder shall be accompanied by the

certificates of two (2) physicians unless the petitioner is unable to afford, or is otherwise unable

to obtain, the services of a physician or physicians qualified to make the certifications. The

certificates shall be rendered pursuant to the provisions of � 40.1-5-5, except when the patient is a

resident in a facility, the attending physician and one other physician from the facility may sign

the certificates, and shall set forth that the prospective patient is in need of care and treatment in a

facility and would likely benefit therefrom, and is one whose continued unsupervised presence in

the community would create a likelihood of serious harm by reason of mental disability together

with the reasons therefor. The petitions and accompanying certificates shall be executed under

penalty of perjury, but shall not require the signature of a notary public thereon.

     (d) Preliminary hearing.

     (1) Upon a determination that the petition sets forth facts constituting reasonable grounds

to support certification, the court shall summon the person to appear before the court at a

preliminary hearing, scheduled no later than five (5) business days from the date of filing. This

hearing shall be treated as a priority on the court calendar and may be continued only for good

cause shown. In default of an appearance, the court may issue a warrant directing a police officer

to bring the person before the court.

     (2) At the preliminary hearing, the court shall serve a copy of the petition upon the person

and advise him or her of the nature of the proceedings and of his or her right to counsel. If the

person is unable to afford counsel, the court forthwith shall appoint the mental health advocate for

him or her. If the court finds that there is no probable cause to support certification, the petition

shall be dismissed, and the person shall be discharged unless the person applies for voluntary

admission. However, if the court is satisfied by the testimony that there is probable cause to

support certification, a final hearing shall be held not less than seven (7) days, nor more than

twenty-one (21) days, after the preliminary hearing, unless continued at the request of counsel for

the person, and notice of the date set down for the hearing shall be served on the person. Copies

of the petition and notice of the date set down for the hearing shall also be served immediately

upon the person's nearest relatives or legal guardian, if known, and to any other person designated

by the patient, in writing, to receive copies of notices. The preliminary hearing can be waived by

a motion of the patient to the court if the patient is a resident of a facility.

     (e) Petition for examination.

     (1) Upon motion of either the petitioner or the person, or upon its own motion, the court

may order that the person be examined by a psychiatrist appointed by the court. The examination

may be conducted on an outpatient basis and the person shall have the right to the presence of

counsel while it is being conducted. A report of the examination shall be furnished to the court,

the petitioner, and the person and his or her counsel at least forty-eight (48) hours prior to the

hearing.

     (2) If the petition is submitted without two (2) physicians' certificates as required under

subsection (c), the petition shall be accompanied by a motion for a psychiatric examination to be

ordered by the court. The motion shall be heard on the date of the preliminary hearing set by the

court pursuant to subsection (d), or as soon thereafter as counsel for the subject person is

engaged, appointed, and ready to proceed. The motion shall be verified or accompanied by

affidavits and shall set forth facts demonstrating the efforts made to secure examination and

certification by a physician or physicians and shall indicate the reasons why the efforts failed.

     (3) After considering the motion and such testimony as may be offered on the date of

hearing the motion, the court may deny the application and dismiss the petition, or upon finding:

(i) That there is a good cause for the failure to obtain one or more physician's certificates in

accordance with subsection (c); and (ii) That there is probable cause to substantiate the

allegations of the petition, the court shall order an immediate examination by two (2) qualified

psychiatrists, pursuant to subsection (e)(1).

     (f) Professional assistance. A person with respect to whom a court hearing has been

ordered under this section shall have, and be informed of, a right to employ a mental health

professional of his or her choice to assist him or her in connection with the hearing and to testify

on his or her behalf. If the person cannot afford to engage such a professional, the court shall, on

application, allow a reasonable fee for the purpose.

     (g) Procedure. Upon receipt of the required certificates and/or psychiatric reports as

applicable hereunder, the court shall schedule the petition for final hearing unless, upon review of

the reports and certificates, the court concludes that the certificates and reports do not indicate,

with supporting reasons, that the person who is the subject of the petition is in need of care and

treatment; that his or her unsupervised presence in the community would create a likelihood of

serious harm by reason of mental disability; and that all alternatives to certification have been

investigated and are unsuitable, in which event the court may dismiss the petition.

     (h) Venue. An application for certification under this section shall be made to, and all

proceedings pursuant thereto shall be conducted in, the district court, or family court in the case

of a person who has not yet reached his or her eighteenth (18th) birthday, of the division or

county in which the subject of an application may reside or may be, or when the person is already

a patient in a facility, in the district court or family court of the division or county in which the

facility is located, subject, however, to application by any interested party for change of venue

because of inconvenience of the parties or witnesses or the condition of the subject of the petition

or other valid judicial reason for the change of venue.

     (i) Hearing. A hearing scheduled under this section shall be conducted pursuant to the

following requirements:

     (1) All evidence shall be presented according to the usual rules of evidence that apply in

civil, non-jury cases. The subject of the proceedings shall have the right to present evidence in his

or her own behalf and to cross examine all witnesses against him or her, including any physician

who has completed a certificate or filed a report as provided hereunder. The subject of the

proceedings shall have the further right to subpoena witnesses and documents, the cost of such to

be borne by the court where the court finds, upon an application of the subject that the person

cannot afford to pay for the cost of subpoenaing witnesses and documents.

     (2) A verbatim transcript or electronic recording shall be made of the hearing that shall be

impounded and obtained or examined only with the consent of the subject thereof (or in the case

of a person who has not yet attained his or her eighteenth (18th) birthday, his or her parent,

guardian, or next of kin) or by order of the court.

     (3) The hearing may be held at a location other than a court, including any facility where

the subject may currently be a patient, where it appears to the court that holding the hearing at

another location would be in the best interests of the subject thereof.

     (4) The burden of proceeding and the burden of proof in a hearing held pursuant to this

section shall be upon the petitioner. The petitioner has the burden of demonstrating that the

subject of the hearing is in need of care and treatment in a facility, is one whose continued

unsupervised presence in the community would create a likelihood of serious harm by reason of

mental disability, and what alternatives to certification are available, what alternatives to

certification were investigated, and why these alternatives were not deemed suitable.

     (5) The court shall render a decision within forty-eight (48) hours after the hearing is

concluded.

     (j) Order. If the court at a final hearing finds by clear and convincing evidence that the

subject of the hearing is in need of care and treatment in a facility, and is one whose continued

unsupervised presence in the community would, by reason of mental disability, create a

likelihood of serious harm, and that all alternatives to certification have been investigated and

deemed unsuitable, it shall issue an order committing the person to the custody of the director for

care and treatment or to an appropriate facility. In either event, and to the extent practicable, the

person shall be cared for in a facility that imposes the least restraint upon the liberty of the person

consistent with affording him or her the care and treatment necessary and appropriate to his or her

condition. No certification shall be made under this section unless and until full consideration has

been given by the certifying court to the alternatives to in-patient care, including, but not limited

to, a determination of the person's relationship to the community and to his or her family, of his

or her employment possibilities, and of all available community resources, alternate available

living arrangements, foster care, community residential facilities, nursing homes, and other

convalescent facilities. A certificate ordered pursuant to this section shall be valid for a period of

six (6) months from the date of the order. At the end of that period the patient shall be discharged,

unless he or she is discharged prior to that time, in which case the certification shall expire on the

date of the discharge.

     (k) Appeals.

     (1) A person certified under this section shall have a right to appeal from a final hearing

to the supreme court of the state within thirty (30) days of the entry of an order of certification.

The person shall have the right to be represented on appeal by counsel of his or her choice or by

the mental health advocate if the supreme court finds that he or she cannot afford to retain

counsel. Upon a showing of indigency, the supreme court shall permit an appeal to proceed

without payment of costs, and a copy of the transcript of the proceedings below shall be furnished

to the subject of the proceedings, or to his or her attorney, at the expense of the state. The

certifying court shall advise the person of all his or her rights pursuant to this section immediately

upon the entry of an order of certification.

     (2) Appeals under this section shall be given precedence, insofar as practicable, on the

supreme court dockets. The district and family courts shall promulgate rules with the approval of

the supreme court to insure the expeditious transmission of the record and transcript in all appeals

pursuant to this chapter.

     (l) Submission to NICS database.

     (1) The district court shall submit the name, date of birth, gender, race or ethnicity, and

date of civil commitment to the NICS database of all persons subject to a civil court certification

order pursuant to this section within forty-eight (48) hours of certification.

     (2) Any person affected by the provisions of this section, after the lapse of a period of

three (3) years from the date such civil certification is terminated, shall have the right to appear

before the relief from disqualifiers board.

     (3) Upon notice of a successful appeal pursuant to � 40.1-5-8(k) subsection (k), the

district court shall, as soon as practicable, cause the appellant's record to be updated, corrected,

modified, or removed from any database maintained and made available to the National Instant

Criminal Background Check System (NICS) and reflect that the appellant is no longer subject to

a firearms prohibition as it relates to 18 U.S.C. � 922(d)(4) and 18 U.S.C. � 922(g)(4).

     (m) Equitable authority. In addition to the powers heretofore exercised, the district and

family courts are hereby empowered, in furtherance of their jurisdiction under this chapter, to

grant petitions for instructions for the provision or withholding of treatment as justice and equity

may require.


 

320)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-4-14

139 and 296

 

 

42-4-14. State flagships.

     The replica of the Continental sailing vessel known as "Providence" Class A Tall Ship,

commonly known as the "SSV Oliver Hazard Perry", is hereby designated as the official flagship

and tall ship ambassador of the state.


 

 

 

 

321)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-9-12.1

319 and 347

 

 

42-9-12.1. Annual gun crimes law enforcement report.

     (a) The attorney general shall annually, on or before March 31, make a report in writing

to the general assembly showing the transactions of their the attorney general�s office in relation

to the enforcement of law with respect to crimes involving a gun during the prior year ending on

December 31.

     (b) The report shall show for each of the counties of the state the number of non-

warranted indictments and information cases with respect to crimes involving a gun pending at

the beginning of the year, and the number of warranted indictments and informations

information cases with respect to crimes involving a gun pending at the beginning of the year,

the number of indictments returned and informations filed in such these cases during the year, the

number of indictments and informations disposed of in such these cases during the year:

     (1) By jury trial;

     (2) By jury waived trial;

     (3) Without jury trial on plea of guilty or nolo contendere; and

     (4) By a nol pros; and the number of non-warranted and warranted indictments and

informations pending at the end of the year.

     (c) The report shall also show the number of offenders in such these cases punished by

sentence or imprisonment, or by the payment of a fine, or by both fine and imprisonment, or by

suspended or deferred sentence or probation, with the sentences and fines specified in each

instance.

     (d) The report shall be subdivided to show the sex of the offenders and the age of the

offenders, arranged by decades. The report shall be compiled using statistics provided by the

Rhode Island statewide judicial information system.


322)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-11.4

122 and 225

 

 

CHAPTER 11.4

THE RHODE ISLAND MUNICIPAL INFRASTRUCTURE GRANT PROGRAM


323)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-11.4-1

122 and 225

 

 

42-11.4-1. Establishment.

     The Rhode Island municipal infrastructure grant program is hereby created within the

department of administration and is subject to grant funding. State funds or appropriations shall

not be utilized in connection with the implementation of this section. The department of

administration is authorized to:

     (1) Issue public infrastructure grants to municipalities and other public instrumentalities

for design, construction, building, land acquisition, rehabilitation, repair, and other improvements

to publicly-owned publicly owned infrastructure including, but not limited to, sewers, utility

extensions, streets, roads, curb-cuts, parking, water-treatment systems, telecommunications

systems, transit improvements, and pedestrian ways; and

     (2) Assist municipalities to advance projects that support job creation and expansion,

housing development and rehabilitation, community development projects in areas or districts

that communities have determined are best suited to efficiently accommodate future growth and

redevelopment, largely in previously developed areas with some level of existing or planned

infrastructure.


 

324)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-11.4-2

122 and 225

 

 

42-11.4-2. Eligibility.

     Eligible public infrastructure projects authorized by this chapter shall be located on

public land or on public leasehold, right-of-way or easement. A project that uses grants to

municipalities for public infrastructure provided by this chapter shall be procured by a

municipality in accordance with chapter 55 of title 45.


 

325)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-11.4-3

122 and 225

 

 

42-11.4-3. Solicitations.

     (a) There shall be at least one open solicitation period each year to accept and consider

new applications. Not less than twelve (12) weeks before the annual open solicitation period, the

department of administration shall release the criteria upon which the applications shall be judged

including, but not limited to, a minimum project readiness standard, overall spending targets by

project type, preferences for projects that align with the state's prevailing economic development

plan, and other preferences applying to that funding round. Grants may be made outside of the

open solicitation period at the discretion of the director of administration subject to the provisions

of this section. All grant awards shall be made after consultation with the Rhode Island statewide

planning program and the Rhode Island infrastructure bank.

     (b) An eligible city or town, acting by and through its municipal officers or by and

through any agency designated by such the municipal officers to act on their behalf, may apply to

the program for a grant in a specific amount to fund a specified project. Two (2) or more

municipalities may apply jointly, with one municipality acting as fiscal agent. The grants may be

made in addition to other forms of local, state, and federal assistance. Receipt of a grant which

that is part of a joint application shall not preclude a municipality from receiving additional funds under a separate application.


 

326)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-11.4-4

122 and 225

 

 

42-11.4-4. Rules and regulations.

     The director of administration may establish reasonable rules and regulations to govern

the application and distribution of grants under the program, to include, but not be limited to,

provisions for joint applications by two (2) or more eligible municipalities for a single project

serving those municipalities.


 

327)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-11.4-5

122 and 225

 

 

42-11.4-5. Reports.

     The director of administration shall report annually to the governor, speaker of the house,

president of the senate, and the chairs of the house committee on finance, senate committee on

finance, house committee on oversight, senate committee on government oversight, house

committee on municipal government, senate committee on housing and municipal government,

and the permanent joint committee on economic development. The report shall include a list and

description of all projects that received grant funds under the program,; the amount of the grant

awarded to the project,; other sources of public funds that supported the project,; and a detailed

analysis of the economic impact of each project including, where applicable, the number of

construction and full-time equivalent jobs to be created, number of housing units to be created,

the private investment in the project, and the expected tax revenue generated from the project.


 

328)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-13-2.1

47 and 228

 

 

42-13-2.1. Duties of the department - Rhode Works project.

     (a) It shall be the responsibility of the department to identify the businesses affected and

the specific impact of Rhode Works rhode works projects on small businesses and to deliver and

communicate this information to the department of commerce. The department shall identify the

traffic flow to Rhode Island small business commercial areas as it relates to road and bridge

closings due to Rhode Works rhode works projects, and the realignment of the Newport Bridge

ramps, identify road and bridge closings, parking restrictions, and alterations in traffic patterns to

accommodate road and bridge repairs, including proposed dates of work, road closures, and re-

routing of any traffic and parking patterns.

     (b) During construction season (April through October), the department shall share the

information collected in subsection (a) of this section with the commerce corporation to allow at

least two (2) months for the commerce corporation to assist small businesses affected by Rhode

Works rhode works projects in the affected communities and neighborhoods as set forth in

subsection

(c) of this section. During emergencies, the department will contact the commerce corporation in

order to coordinate a plan of action in the affected area. The department will meet with the

commerce corporation on a regular basis in order to review upcoming projects and coordinate a

plan of action for the affected businesses.

     (c) The commerce corporation shall provide those affected businesses in the construction

areas with a list of available resources, programs, and/or services that, if utilized, might minimize

the economic and financial impact upon those businesses during road and bridge construction,

including, but not limited to, contact by the commerce corporation to affected businesses and if

desired, meeting with affected businesses during construction.


 

329)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-14.5-3

169 and 253

 

 

42-14.5-3. Powers and duties [Contingent effective date; see effective dates under this section.]

     The health insurance commissioner shall have the following powers and duties:

     (a) To conduct quarterly public meetings throughout the state, separate and distinct from

rate hearings pursuant to � 42-62-13, regarding the rates, services, and operations of insurers

licensed to provide health insurance in the state; the effects of such rates, services, and operations

on consumers, medical care providers, patients, and the market environment in which such the

insurers operate; and efforts to bring new health insurers into the Rhode Island market. Notice of

not less than ten (10) days of said the hearing(s) shall go to the general assembly, the governor,

the Rhode Island Medical Society, the Hospital Association of Rhode Island, the director of

health, the attorney general, and the chambers of commerce. Public notice shall be posted on the

department's web site website and given in the newspaper of general circulation, and to any entity

in writing requesting notice.

     (b) To make recommendations to the governor and the house of representatives and

senate finance committees regarding health-care insurance and the regulations, rates, services,

administrative expenses, reserve requirements, and operations of insurers providing health

insurance in the state, and to prepare or comment on, upon the request of the governor or

chairpersons of the house or senate finance committees, draft legislation to improve the regulation

of health insurance. In making such the recommendations, the commissioner shall recognize that

it is the intent of the legislature that the maximum disclosure be provided regarding the

reasonableness of individual administrative expenditures as well as total administrative costs. The

commissioner shall make recommendations on the levels of reserves, including consideration of:

targeted reserve levels; trends in the increase or decrease of reserve levels; and insurer plans for

distributing excess reserves.

     (c) To establish a consumer/business/labor/medical advisory council to obtain

information and present concerns of consumers, business, and medical providers affected by

health-insurance decisions. The council shall develop proposals to allow the market for small

business health insurance to be affordable and fairer. The council shall be involved in the

planning and conduct of the quarterly public meetings in accordance with subsection (a). The

advisory council shall develop measures to inform small businesses of an insurance complaint

process to ensure that small businesses that experience rate increases in a given year may request

and receive a formal review by the department. The advisory council shall assess views of the

health-provider community relative to insurance rates of reimbursement, billing, and

reimbursement procedures, and the insurers' role in promoting efficient and high-quality health

care. The advisory council shall issue an annual report of findings and recommendations to the

governor and the general assembly and present its findings at hearings before the house and

senate finance committees. The advisory council is to be diverse in interests and shall include

representatives of community consumer organizations; small businesses, other than those

involved in the sale of insurance products; and hospital, medical, and other health-provider

organizations. Such representatives shall be nominated by their respective organizations. The

advisory council shall be co-chaired by the health insurance commissioner and a community

consumer organization or small business member to be elected by the full advisory council.

     (d) To establish and provide guidance and assistance to a subcommittee ("the

professional-provider-health-plan work group") of the advisory council created pursuant to

subsection (c), composed of health-care providers and Rhode Island licensed health plans. This

subcommittee shall include in its annual report and presentation before the house and senate

finance committees the following information:

     (1) A method whereby health plans shall disclose to contracted providers the fee

schedules used to provide payment to those providers for services rendered to covered patients;

     (2) A standardized provider application and credentials-verification process, for the

purpose of verifying professional qualifications of participating health-care providers;

     (3) The uniform health plan claim form utilized by participating providers;

     (4) Methods for health maintenance organizations, as defined by � 27-41-2, and nonprofit

hospital or medical-service corporations, as defined by chapters 19 and 20 of title 27, to make

facility-specific data and other medical service-specific data available in reasonably consistent

formats to patients regarding quality and costs. This information would help consumers make

informed choices regarding the facilities and/or clinicians or physician practices at which to seek

care. Among the items considered would be the unique health services and other public goods

provided by facilities and/or clinicians or physician practices in establishing the most appropriate

cost comparisons;

     (5) All activities related to contractual disclosure to participating providers of the

mechanisms for resolving health plan/provider disputes;

     (6) The uniform process being utilized for confirming, in real time, patient insurance

enrollment status, benefits coverage, including co-pays and deductibles;

     (7) Information related to temporary credentialing of providers seeking to participate in

the plan's network and the impact of said the activity on health-plan accreditation;

     (8) The feasibility of regular contract renegotiations between plans and the providers in

their networks; and

     (9) Efforts conducted related to reviewing impact of silent PPOs on physician practices.

     (e) To enforce the provisions of Title 27 and Title 42 as set forth in � 42-14-5(d).

     (f) To provide analysis of the Rhode Island affordable health plan reinsurance fund. The

fund shall be used to effectuate the provisions of �� 27-18.5-9 and 27-50-17.

     (g) To analyze the impact of changing the rating guidelines and/or merging the individual

health-insurance market, as defined in chapter 18.5 of title 27, and the small-employer-health-

insurance market, as defined in chapter 50 of title 27, in accordance with the following:

     (1) The analysis shall forecast the likely rate increases required to effect the changes

recommended pursuant to the preceding subsection (g) in the direct-pay market and small-

employer-health-insurance market over the next five (5) years, based on the current rating

structure and current products.

     (2) The analysis shall include examining the impact of merging the individual and small-

employer markets on premiums charged to individuals and small-employer groups.

     (3) The analysis shall include examining the impact on rates in each of the individual and

small-employer-health-insurance markets and the number of insureds in the context of possible

changes to the rating guidelines used for small-employer groups, including: community rating

principles; expanding small-employer rate bonds beyond the current range; increasing the

employer group size in the small-group market; and/or adding rating factors for broker and/or

tobacco use.

     (4) The analysis shall include examining the adequacy of current statutory and regulatory

oversight of the rating process and factors employed by the participants in the proposed, new

merged market.

     (5) The analysis shall include assessment of possible reinsurance mechanisms and/or

federal high-risk pool structures and funding to support the health-insurance market in Rhode

Island by reducing the risk of adverse selection and the incremental insurance premiums charged

for this risk, and/or by making health insurance affordable for a selected at-risk population.

     (6) The health insurance commissioner shall work with an insurance market merger task

force to assist with the analysis. The task force shall be chaired by the health insurance

commissioner and shall include, but not be limited to, representatives of the general assembly, the

business community, small-employer carriers as defined in � 27-50-3, carriers offering coverage

in the individual market in Rhode Island, health-insurance brokers, and members of the general

public.

     (7) For the purposes of conducting this analysis, the commissioner may contract with an

outside organization with expertise in fiscal analysis of the private-insurance market. In

conducting its study, the organization shall, to the extent possible, obtain and use actual health-

plan data. Said data shall be subject to state and federal laws and regulations governing

confidentiality of health care and proprietary information.

     (8) The task force shall meet as necessary and include its findings in the annual report,

and the commissioner shall include the information in the annual presentation before the house

and senate finance committees.

     (h) To establish and convene a workgroup representing health-care providers and health

insurers for the purpose of coordinating the development of processes, guidelines, and standards

to streamline health-care administration that are to be adopted by payors and providers of health-

care services operating in the state. This workgroup shall include representatives with expertise

who would contribute to the streamlining of health-care administration and who are selected from

hospitals, physician practices, community behavioral-health organizations, each health insurer,

and other affected entities. The workgroup shall also include at least one designee each from the

Rhode Island Medical Society, Rhode Island Council of Community Mental Health

Organizations, the Rhode Island Health Center Association, and the Hospital Association of

Rhode Island. The workgroup shall consider and make recommendations for:

     (1) Establishing a consistent standard for electronic eligibility and coverage verification.

Such standard shall:

     (i) Include standards for eligibility inquiry and response and, wherever possible, be

consistent with the standards adopted by nationally recognized organizations, such as the Centers

for Medicare and Medicaid Services;

     (ii) Enable providers and payors to exchange eligibility requests and responses on a

system-to-system basis or using a payor-supported web browser;

     (iii) Provide reasonably detailed information on a consumer's eligibility for health-care

coverage; scope of benefits; limitations and exclusions provided under that coverage; cost-sharing

requirements for specific services at the specific time of the inquiry; current deductible amounts;

accumulated or limited benefits; out-of-pocket maximums; any maximum policy amounts; and

other information required for the provider to collect the patient's portion of the bill;

     (iv) Reflect the necessary limitations imposed on payors by the originator of the

eligibility and benefits information;

     (v) Recommend a standard or common process to protect all providers from the costs of

services to patients who are ineligible for insurance coverage in circumstances where a payor

provides eligibility verification based on best information available to the payor at the date of the

request of eligibility.

     (2) Developing implementation guidelines and promoting adoption of such the guidelines

for:

     (i) The use of the National Correct Coding Initiative code-edit policy by payors and

providers in the state;

     (ii) Publishing any variations from codes and mutually exclusive codes by payors in a

manner that makes for simple retrieval and implementation by providers;

     (iii) Use of Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act standard group codes,

reason codes, and remark codes by payors in electronic remittances sent to providers;

     (iv) The processing of corrections to claims by providers and payors.

     (v) A standard payor-denial review process for providers when they request a

reconsideration of a denial of a claim that results from differences in clinical edits where no

single, common-standards body or process exists and multiple conflicting sources are in use by

payors and providers.

     (vi) Nothing in this section, nor in the guidelines developed, shall inhibit an individual

payor's ability to employ, and not disclose to providers, temporary code edits for the purpose of

detecting and deterring fraudulent billing activities. The guidelines shall require that each payor

disclose to the provider its adjudication decision on a claim that was denied or adjusted based on

the application of such edits and that the provider have access to the payor's review and appeal

process to challenge the payor's adjudication decision.

     (vii) Nothing in this subsection shall be construed to modify the rights or obligations of

payors or providers with respect to procedures relating to the investigation, reporting, appeal, or

prosecution under applicable law of potentially fraudulent billing activities.

     (3) Developing and promoting widespread adoption by payors and providers of

guidelines to:

     (i) Ensure payors do not automatically deny claims for services when extenuating

circumstances make it impossible for the provider to obtain a preauthorization before services are

performed or notify a payor within an appropriate standardized timeline of a patient's admission;

     (ii) Require payors to use common and consistent processes and time frames when

responding to provider requests for medical management approvals. Whenever possible, such

time frames shall be consistent with those established by leading national organizations and be

based upon the acuity of the patient's need for care or treatment. For the purposes of this section,

medical management includes prior authorization of services, preauthorization of services,

precertification of services, post-service review, medical-necessity review, and benefits advisory;

     (iii) Develop, maintain, and promote widespread adoption of a single, common website

where providers can obtain payors' preauthorization, benefits advisory, and preadmission

requirements;

     (iv) Establish guidelines for payors to develop and maintain a website that providers can

use to request a preauthorization, including a prospective clinical necessity review; receive an

authorization number; and transmit an admission notification.

     (4) To provide a report to the house and senate, on or before January 1, 2017, with

recommendations for establishing guidelines and regulations for systems that give patients

electronic access to their claims information, particularly to information regarding their

obligations to pay for received medical services, pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 164.524.

     (i) To issue an anti-cancer medication report. Not later than June 30, 2014 and annually

thereafter, the office of the health insurance commissioner (OHIC) shall provide the senate

committee on health and human services, and the house committee on corporations, with: (1)

Information on the availability in the commercial market of coverage for anti-cancer medication

options; (2) For the state employee's health benefit plan, the costs of various cancer-treatment

options; (3) The changes in drug prices over the prior thirty-six (36) months; and (4) Member

utilization and cost-sharing expense.

     (j) To monitor the adequacy of each health plan's compliance with the provisions of the

federal Mental Health Parity Act, including a review of related claims processing and

reimbursement procedures. Findings, recommendations, and assessments shall be made available

to the public.

     (k) To monitor the transition from fee-for-service and toward global and other alternative

payment methodologies for the payment for health-care services. Alternative payment

methodologies should be assessed for their likelihood to promote access to affordable health

insurance, health outcomes, and performance.

     (l) To report annually, no later than July 1, 2014, then biannually thereafter, on hospital

payment variation, including findings and recommendations, subject to available resources.

     (m) Notwithstanding any provision of the general or public laws or regulation to the

contrary, provide a report with findings and recommendations to the president of the senate and

the speaker of the house, on or before April 1, 2014, including, but not limited to, the following

information:

     (1) The impact of the current, mandated health-care benefits as defined in �� 27-18-48.1,

27-18-60, 27-18-62, 27-18-64, similar provisions in chapters 19, 20 and 41, of title 27, and �� 27-

18-3(c), 27-38.2-1 et seq., or others as determined by the commissioner, on the cost of health

insurance for fully insured employers, subject to available resources;

     (2) Current provider and insurer mandates that are unnecessary and/or duplicative due to

the existing standards of care and/or delivery of services in the health-care system;

     (3) A state-by-state comparison of health-insurance mandates and the extent to which

Rhode Island mandates exceed other states benefits; and

     (4) Recommendations for amendments to existing mandated benefits based on the

findings in (m)(1), (m)(2), and (m)(3) above.

     (n) On or before July 1, 2014, the office of the health insurance commissioner, in

collaboration with the director of health and lieutenant governor's office, shall submit a report to

the general assembly and the governor to inform the design of accountable care organizations

(ACOs) in Rhode Island as unique structures for comprehensive health-care delivery and value-

based payment arrangements, that shall include, but not be limited to:

     (1) Utilization review;

     (2) Contracting; and

     (3) Licensing and regulation.

     (o) On or before February 3, 2015, the office of the health insurance commissioner shall

submit a report to the general assembly and the governor that describes, analyzes, and proposes

recommendations to improve compliance of insurers with the provisions of � 27-18-76 with

regard to patients with mental-health and substance-use disorders.

     (p) To work to ensure the health insurance coverage of behavioral health care under the

same terms and conditions as other health care, and to integrate behavioral health parity

requirements into the OHIC office of the health insurance commissioner insurance oversight

and health care transformation efforts.

     (q) To work with other state agencies to seek delivery system improvements that enhance

access to a continuum of mental-health and substance-use disorder treatment in the state; and

integrate that treatment with primary and other medical care to the fullest extent possible.

     (r) To direct insurers toward policies and practices that address the behavioral health

needs of the public and greater integration of physical and behavioral health care delivery.

     (s) The office of the health insurance commissioner shall conduct an analysis of the

impact of the provisions of � 27-38.2-1(i) on health insurance premiums and access in Rhode

Island and submit a report of its findings to the general assembly on or before June 1, 2023.


 

330)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-17.1-2

37 and 43

 

 

42-17.1-2. Powers and duties.

     The director of environmental management shall have the following powers and duties:

     (1) To supervise and control the protection, development, planning, and utilization of the

natural resources of the state, such resources, including, but not limited to: water, plants, trees,

soil, clay, sand, gravel, rocks and other minerals, air, mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians, fish,

shellfish, and other forms of aquatic, insect, and animal life;

     (2) To exercise all functions, powers, and duties heretofore vested in the department of

agriculture and conservation, and in each of the divisions of the department, such as the

promotion of agriculture and animal husbandry in their several branches, including the inspection

and suppression of contagious diseases among animals; the regulation of the marketing of farm

products; the inspection of orchards and nurseries; the protection of trees and shrubs from

injurious insects and diseases; protection from forest fires; the inspection of apiaries and the

suppression of contagious diseases among bees; the prevention of the sale of adulterated or

misbranded agricultural seeds; promotion and encouragement of the work of farm bureaus, in

cooperation with the University of Rhode Island, farmers' institutes, and the various organizations

established for the purpose of developing an interest in agriculture; together with such other

agencies and activities as the governor and the general assembly may, from time to time, place

under the control of the department; and as heretofore vested by such of the following chapters

and sections of the general laws as are presently applicable to the department of environmental

management and that were previously applicable to the department of natural resources and the

department of agriculture and conservation or to any of its divisions: chapters 1 through 22,

inclusive, as amended, in title 2 entitled "Agriculture and Forestry"; chapters 1 through 17,

inclusive, as amended, in title 4 entitled "Animals and Animal Husbandry"; chapters 1 through

19, inclusive, as amended, in title 20 entitled "Fish and Wildlife"; chapters 1 through 32,

inclusive, as amended, in title 21 entitled "Food and Drugs"; chapter 7 of title 23, as amended,

entitled "Mosquito Abatement"; and by any other general or public law relating to the department

of agriculture and conservation or to any of its divisions or bureaus;

     (3) To exercise all the functions, powers, and duties heretofore vested in the division of

parks and recreation of the department of public works by chapters 1, 2, and 5 in title 32 entitled

"Parks and Recreational Areas"; by chapter 22.5 of title 23, as amended, entitled "Drowning

Prevention and Lifesaving"; and by any other general or public law relating to the division of

parks and recreation;

     (4) To exercise all the functions, powers, and duties heretofore vested in the division of

harbors and rivers of the department of public works, or in the department itself by such as were

previously applicable to the division or the department, of chapters 1 through 22 and sections

thereof, as amended, in title 46 entitled "Waters and Navigation"; and by any other general or

public law relating to the division of harbors and rivers;

     (5) To exercise all the functions, powers, and duties heretofore vested in the department

of health by chapters 25, 18.9, and 19.5 of title 23, as amended, entitled "Health and Safety"; and

by chapters 12 and 16 of title 46, as amended, entitled "Waters and Navigation"; by chapters 3, 4,

5, 6, 7, 9, 11, 13, 18, and 19 of title 4, as amended, entitled "Animals and Animal Husbandry";

and those functions, powers, and duties specifically vested in the director of environmental

management by the provisions of � 21-2-22, as amended, entitled "Inspection of Animals and

Milk"; together with other powers and duties of the director of the department of health as are

incidental to, or necessary for, the performance of the functions transferred by this section;

     (6) To cooperate with the Rhode Island commerce corporation in its planning and

promotional functions, particularly in regard to those resources relating to agriculture, fisheries,

and recreation;

     (7) To cooperate with, advise, and guide conservation commissions of cities and towns

created under chapter 35 of title 45 entitled "Conservation Commissions", as enacted by chapter

203 of the Public Laws, 1960;

     (8) To assign or reassign, with the approval of the governor, any functions, duties, or

powers established by this chapter to any agency within the department, except as hereinafter

limited;

     (9) To cooperate with the water resources board and to provide to the board facilities,

administrative support, staff services, and such other services as the board shall reasonably

require for its operation and, in cooperation with the board and the statewide planning program,

to formulate and maintain a long-range guide plan and implementing program for development of

major water-sources transmission systems needed to furnish water to regional- and local-

distribution systems;

     (10) To cooperate with the solid waste management corporation and to provide to the

corporation such facilities, administrative support, staff services, and such other services within

the department as the corporation shall reasonably require for its operation;

     (11) To provide for the maintenance of waterways and boating facilities, consistent with

chapter 6.1 of title 46, by: (i) Establishing minimum standards for upland beneficial use and

disposal of dredged material; (ii) Promulgating and enforcing rules for water quality, ground

water protection, and fish and wildlife protection pursuant to � 42-17.1-24; (iii) Planning for the

upland beneficial use and/or disposal of dredged material in areas not under the jurisdiction of the

council pursuant to � 46-23-6(2); and (iv) Cooperating with the coastal resources management

council in the development and implementation of comprehensive programs for dredging as

provided for in �� 46-23-6(1)(ii)(H) and 46-23-18.3; and (v) Monitoring dredge material

management and disposal sites in accordance with the protocols established pursuant to � 46-6.1-

5(3) 46-6.1-5(a)(3) and the comprehensive program provided for in � 46-23-6(1)(ii)(H); no

powers or duties granted herein shall be construed to abrogate the powers or duties granted to the

coastal resources management council under chapter 23 of title 46, as amended;

     (12) To establish minimum standards, subject to the approval of the environmental

standards board, relating to the location, design, construction, and maintenance of all sewage-

disposal systems;

     (13) To enforce, by such means as provided by law, the standards for the quality of air,

and water, and the design, construction, and operation of all sewage-disposal systems; any order

or notice issued by the director relating to the location, design, construction, or maintenance of a

sewage-disposal system shall be eligible for recordation under chapter 13 of title 34. The director

shall forward the order or notice to the city or town wherein the subject property is located and

the order or notice shall be recorded in the general index by the appropriate municipal official in

the land evidence records in the city or town wherein the subject property is located. Any

subsequent transferee of that property shall be responsible for complying with the requirements of

the order or notice. Upon satisfactory completion of the requirements of the order or notice, the

director shall provide written notice of the same, which notice shall be similarly eligible for

recordation. The original written notice shall be forwarded to the city or town wherein the subject

property is located and the notice of satisfactory completion shall be recorded in the general index

by the appropriate municipal official in the land evidence records in the city or town wherein the

subject property is located. A copy of the written notice shall be forwarded to the owner of the

subject property within five (5) days of a request for it, and, in any event, shall be forwarded to

the owner of the subject property within thirty (30) days after correction;

     (14) To establish minimum standards for the establishment and maintenance of salutary

environmental conditions, including standards and methods for the assessment and the

consideration of the cumulative effects on the environment of regulatory actions and decisions,

which standards for consideration of cumulative effects shall provide for: (i) Evaluation of

potential cumulative effects that could adversely effect affect public health and/or impair

ecological functioning; (ii) Analysis of such other matters relative to cumulative effects as the

department may deem appropriate in fulfilling its duties, functions, and powers; which standards

and methods shall only be applicable to ISDS systems in the town of Jamestown in areas that are

dependent for water supply on private and public wells, unless broader use is approved by the

general assembly. The department shall report to the general assembly not later than March 15,

2008, with regard to the development and application of such the standards and methods in

Jamestown;

     (15) To establish and enforce minimum standards for permissible types of septage,

industrial-waste disposal sites, and waste-oil disposal sites;

     (16) To establish minimum standards, subject to the approval of the environmental

standards board, for permissible types of refuse disposal facilities; the design, construction,

operation, and maintenance of disposal facilities; and the location of various types of facilities;

     (17) To exercise all functions, powers, and duties necessary for the administration of

chapter 19.1 of title 23 entitled "Rhode Island Hazardous Waste Management Act";

     (18) To designate, in writing, any person in any department of the state government or

any official of a district, county, city, town, or other governmental unit, with that official's

consent, to enforce any rule, regulation, or order promulgated and adopted by the director under

any provision of law; provided, however, that enforcement of powers of the coastal resources

management council shall be assigned only to employees of the department of environmental

management, except by mutual agreement or as otherwise provided in chapter 23 of title 46;

     (19) To issue and enforce such the rules, regulations, and orders as may be necessary to

carry out the duties assigned to the director and the department by any provision of law; and to

conduct such investigations and hearings and to issue, suspend, and revoke such licenses as may

be necessary to enforce those rules, regulations, and orders. Any license suspended under such

the rules, regulations, and/or orders shall be terminated and revoked if the conditions that led to

the suspension are not corrected to the satisfaction of the director within two (2) years; provided

that written notice is given by certified mail, return receipt requested, no less than sixty (60) days

prior to the date of termination.

     Notwithstanding the provisions of � 42-35-9 to the contrary, no informal disposition of a

contested licensing matter shall occur where resolution substantially deviates from the original

application unless all interested parties shall be notified of said the proposed resolution and

provided with opportunity to comment upon said the resolution pursuant to applicable law and

any rules and regulations established by the director;

     (20) To enter, examine, or survey, at any reasonable time, such places as the director

deems necessary to carry out his or her responsibilities under any provision of law subject to the

following provisions:

     (i) For criminal investigations, the director shall, pursuant to chapter 5 of title 12, seek a

search warrant from an official of a court authorized to issue warrants, unless a search without a

warrant is otherwise allowed or provided by law;

     (ii) (A) All administrative inspections shall be conducted pursuant to administrative

guidelines promulgated by the department in accordance with chapter 35 of title 42;

     (B) A warrant shall not be required for administrative inspections if conducted under the

following circumstances, in accordance with the applicable constitutional standards:

     (I) For closely regulated industries;

     (II) In situations involving open fields or conditions that are in plain view;

     (III) In emergency situations;

     (IV) In situations presenting an imminent threat to the environment or public health,

safety, or welfare;

     (V) If the owner, operator, or agent in charge of the facility, property, site, or location

consents; or

     (VI) In other situations in which a warrant is not constitutionally required.

     (C) Whenever it shall be constitutionally or otherwise required by law, or whenever the

director in his or her discretion deems it advisable, an administrative search warrant, or its

functional equivalent, may be obtained by the director from a neutral magistrate for the purpose

of conducting an administrative inspection. The warrant shall be issued in accordance with the

applicable constitutional standards for the issuance of administrative search warrants. The

administrative standard of probable cause, not the criminal standard of probable cause, shall

apply to applications for administrative search warrants;

     (I) The need for, or reliance upon, an administrative warrant shall not be construed as

requiring the department to forfeit the element of surprise in its inspection efforts;

     (II) An administrative warrant issued pursuant to this subsection must be executed and

returned within ten (10) days of its issuance date unless, upon a showing of need for additional

time, the court orders otherwise;

     (III) An administrative warrant may authorize the review and copying of documents that

are relevant to the purpose of the inspection. If documents must be seized for the purpose of

copying, and the warrant authorizes such the seizure, the person executing the warrant shall

prepare an inventory of the documents taken. The time, place, and manner regarding the making

of the inventory shall be set forth in the terms of the warrant itself, as dictated by the court. A

copy of the inventory shall be delivered to the person from whose possession or facility the

documents were taken. The seized documents shall be copied as soon as feasible under

circumstances preserving their authenticity, then returned to the person from whose possession or

facility the documents were taken;

     (IV) An administrative warrant may authorize the taking of samples of air, water, or soil

or of materials generated, stored, or treated at the facility, property, site, or location. Upon

request, the department shall make split samples available to the person whose facility, property,

site, or location is being inspected;

     (V) Service of an administrative warrant may be required only to the extent provided for

in the terms of the warrant itself, by the issuing court.

     (D) Penalties. Any willful and unjustified refusal of right of entry and inspection to

department personnel pursuant to an administrative warrant shall constitute a contempt of court

and shall subject the refusing party to sanctions, which in the court's discretion may result in up to six (6) months imprisonment and/or a monetary fine of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per

refusal.

     (21) To give notice of an alleged violation of law to the person responsible therefor

whenever the director determines that there are reasonable grounds to believe that there is a

violation of any provision of law within his or her jurisdiction or of any rule or regulation adopted

pursuant to authority granted to him or her, unless other notice and hearing procedure is

specifically provided by that law. Nothing in this chapter shall limit the authority of the attorney

general to prosecute offenders as required by law;

     (i) The notice shall provide for a time within which the alleged violation shall be

remedied, and shall inform the person to whom it is directed that a written request for a hearing

on the alleged violation may be filed with the director within ten (10) days after service of the

notice. The notice will be deemed properly served upon a person if a copy thereof is served him

or her personally; or sent by registered or certified mail to his or her last known address; or if he

or she is served with notice by any other method of service now or hereafter authorized in a civil

action under the laws of this state. If no written request for a hearing is made to the director

within ten (10) days of the service of notice, the notice shall automatically become a compliance

order;

     (ii) (A) Whenever the director determines that there exists a violation of any law, rule, or

regulation within his or her jurisdiction that requires immediate action to protect the environment, he or she may, without prior notice of violation or hearing, issue an

immediate-compliance order stating the existence of the violation and the action he or she deems

necessary. The compliance order shall become effective immediately upon service or within such time as is specified by the director in such order. No request for a hearing on an immediate-

compliance order may be made;

     (B) Any immediate-compliance order issued under this section without notice and prior

hearing shall be effective for no longer than forty-five (45) days; provided, however, that for

good cause shown, the order may be extended one additional period not exceeding forty-five (45)

days.

     (iii) The director may, at his or her discretion and for the purposes of timely and effective

resolution and return to compliance, cite a person for alleged noncompliance through the issuance

of an expedited citation in accordance with subsection  42-17.6-3(c);

     (iv) If a person upon whom a notice of violation has been served under the provisions of

this section or if a person aggrieved by any such notice of violation requests a hearing before the

director within ten (10) days of the service of notice of violation, the director shall set a time and

place for the hearing, and shall give the person requesting that hearing at least five (5) days

written notice thereof. After the hearing, the director may make findings of fact and shall sustain,

modify, or withdraw the notice of violation. If the director sustains or modifies the notice, that

decision shall be deemed a compliance order and shall be served upon the person responsible in

any manner provided for the service of the notice in this section;

     (v) The compliance order shall state a time within which the violation shall be remedied,

and the original time specified in the notice of violation shall be extended to the time set in the

order;

     (vi) Whenever a compliance order has become effective, whether automatically where no

hearing has been requested, where an immediate compliance order has been issued, or upon

decision following a hearing, the director may institute injunction proceedings in the superior

court of the state for enforcement of the compliance order and for appropriate temporary relief,

and in that proceeding, the correctness of a compliance order shall be presumed and the person

attacking the order shall bear the burden of proving error in the compliance order, except that the

director shall bear the burden of proving in the proceeding the correctness of an immediate

compliance order. The remedy provided for in this section shall be cumulative and not exclusive

and shall be in addition to remedies relating to the removal or abatement of nuisances or any

other remedies provided by law;

     (vii) Any party aggrieved by a final judgment of the superior court may, within thirty (30)

days from the date of entry of such judgment, petition the supreme court for a writ of certiorari to

review any questions of law. The petition shall set forth the errors claimed. Upon the filing of the

petition with the clerk of the supreme court, the supreme court may, if it sees fit, issue its writ of

certiorari.

     (22) To impose administrative penalties in accordance with the provisions of chapter 17.6

of this title and to direct that such penalties be paid into the account established by subdivision

(26);

     (23) The following definitions shall apply in the interpretation of the provisions of this

chapter:

     (i) Director: The term "director" shall mean the director of environmental management of

the state of Rhode Island or his or her duly authorized agent;

     (ii) Person: The term "person" shall include any individual, group of individuals, firm,

corporation, association, partnership, or private or public entity, including a district, county, city,

town, or other governmental unit or agent thereof, and in the case of a corporation, any individual

having active and general supervision of the properties of such the corporation;

     (iii) Service: (A) Service upon a corporation under this section shall be deemed to include

service upon both the corporation and upon the person having active and general supervision of

the properties of such the corporation;

     (B) For purposes of calculating the time within which a claim for a hearing is made

pursuant to subdivision (21)(i), service shall be deemed to be the date of receipt of such notice or

three (3) days from the date of mailing of said the notice, whichever shall first occur.

     (24) (i) To conduct surveys of the present private and public camping and other

recreational areas available and to determine the need for and location of such other camping and

recreational areas as may be deemed necessary and in the public interest of the state of Rhode

Island and to report back its findings on an annual basis to the general assembly on or before

March 1 of every year;

     (ii) Additionally, the director of the department of environmental management shall take

such additional steps, including, but not limited to, matters related to funding as may be necessary

to establish such other additional recreational facilities and areas as are deemed to be in the public

interest.

     (25) (i) To apply for and accept grants and bequests of funds, with the approval of the

director of administration, from other states, interstate agencies, and independent authorities, and

private firms, individuals, and foundations, for the purpose of carrying out his or her lawful

responsibilities. The funds shall be deposited with the general treasurer in a restricted receipt

account created in the natural resources program for funds made available for that program's

purposes or in a restricted receipt account created in the environmental protection program for

funds made available for that program's purposes. All expenditures from the accounts shall be

subject to appropriation by the general assembly, and shall be expended in accordance with the

provisions of the grant or bequest. In the event that a donation or bequest is unspecified, or in the

event that the trust account balance shows a surplus after the project as provided for in the grant

or bequest has been completed, the director may utilize said the appropriated unspecified or

appropriated surplus funds for enhanced management of the department's forest and outdoor

public recreation areas, or other projects or programs that promote the accessibility of recreational

opportunities for Rhode Island residents and visitors;

     (ii) The director shall submit to the house fiscal advisor and the senate fiscal advisor, by

October 1 of each year, a detailed report on the amount of funds received and the uses made of

such funds.

     (26) To establish fee schedules by regulation, with the approval of the governor, for the

processing of applications and the performing of related activities in connection with the

department's responsibilities pursuant to subsection (12); chapter 19.1 of title 23, as it relates to

inspections performed by the department to determine compliance with chapter 19.1 and rules

and regulations promulgated in accordance therewith; chapter 18.9 of title 23, as it relates to

inspections performed by the department to determine compliance with chapter 18.9 and the rules

and regulations promulgated in accordance therewith; chapters 19.5 and 23 of title 23; chapter 12

of title 46, insofar as it relates to water-quality certifications and related reviews performed

pursuant to provisions of the federal Clean Water Act, 33 U.S.C. � 1251 et seq.; the regulation

and administration of underground storage tanks and all other programs administered under

chapter 12 of title 46 and � 2-1-18 et seq., and chapter 13.1 of title 46 and chapter 13.2 of title 46,

insofar as they relate to any reviews and related activities performed under the provisions of the

Groundwater Protection Act; chapter 24.9 of title 23 as it relates to the regulation and

administration of mercury-added products; and chapter 17.7 of this title, insofar as it relates to

administrative appeals of all enforcement, permitting and licensing matters to the administrative

adjudication division for environmental matters. Two (2) fee ranges shall be required: for

"Appeal of enforcement actions", a range of fifty dollars ($50) to one hundred dollars ($100), and

for "Appeal of application decisions", a range of five hundred dollars ($500) to ten thousand

dollars ($10,000). The monies from the administrative adjudication fees will be deposited as

general revenues and the amounts appropriated shall be used for the costs associated with

operating the administrative adjudication division.

     There is hereby established an account within the general fund to be called the water and

air protection program. The account shall consist of sums appropriated for water and air pollution

control and waste-monitoring programs and the state controller is hereby authorized and directed

to draw his or her orders upon the general treasurer for the payment of such the sums, or such

portions thereof, as may be required, from time to time, upon receipt by him or her of properly

authenticated vouchers. All amounts collected under the authority of this subdivision for the

sewage-disposal-system program and fresh-waters freshwaters wetlands program will be

deposited as general revenues and the amounts appropriated shall be used for the purposes of

administering and operating the programs. The director shall submit to the house fiscal advisor

and the senate fiscal advisor by January 15 of each year a detailed report on the amount of funds

obtained from fines and fees and the uses made of such the funds.

     (27) To establish and maintain a list or inventory of areas within the state worthy of

special designation as "scenic" to include, but not be limited to, certain state roads or highways,

scenic vistas, and scenic areas, and to make the list available to the public;

     (28) To establish and maintain an inventory of all interests in land held by public and

private land trust and to exercise all powers vested herein to insure ensure the preservation of all

identified lands;

     (i) The director may promulgate and enforce rules and regulations to provide for the

orderly and consistent protection, management, continuity of ownership and purpose, and

centralized records-keeping for lands, water, and open spaces owned in fee or controlled in full or

in part through other interests, rights, or devices such as conservation easements or restrictions,

by private and public land trusts in Rhode Island. The director may charge a reasonable fee for

filing of each document submitted by a land trust;

     (ii) The term "public land trust" means any public instrumentality created by a Rhode

Island municipality for the purposes stated herein and financed by means of public funds

collected and appropriated by the municipality. The term "private land trust" means any group of

five (5) or more private citizens of Rhode Island who shall incorporate under the laws of Rhode

Island as a nonbusiness corporation for the purposes stated herein, or a national organization such

as the nature conservancy. The main purpose of either a public or a private land trust shall be the

protection, acquisition, or control of land, water, wildlife, wildlife habitat, plants, and/or other

natural features, areas, or open space for the purpose of managing or maintaining, or causing to

be managed or maintained by others, the land, water, and other natural amenities in any

undeveloped and relatively natural state in perpetuity. A private land trust must be granted

exemption from federal income tax under Internal Revenue Code 501c(3) [26 U.S.C. � 501(c)(3)]

within two (2) years of its incorporation in Rhode Island or it may not continue to function as a

land trust in Rhode Island. A private land trust may not be incorporated for the exclusive purpose

of acquiring or accepting property or rights in property from a single individual, family,

corporation, business, partnership, or other entity. Membership in any private land trust must be

open to any individual subscribing to the purposes of the land trust and agreeing to abide by its

rules and regulations including payment of reasonable dues;

     (iii) (A) Private land trusts will, in their articles of association or their bylaws, as

appropriate, provide for the transfer to an organization, created for the same or similar purposes,

of the assets, lands and land rights, and interests held by the land trust in the event of termination

or dissolution of the land trust.

     (B) All land trusts, public and private, will record in the public records, of the appropriate

towns and cities in Rhode Island, all deeds, conservation easements, or restrictions or other

interests and rights acquired in land and will also file copies of all such documents and current

copies of their articles of association, their bylaws, and their annual reports with the secretary of

state and with the director of the Rhode Island department of environmental management. The

director is hereby directed to establish and maintain permanently a system for keeping records of

all private and public land trust land holdings in Rhode Island.

     (29) The director will contact in writing, not less often than once every two (2) years,

each public or private land trust to ascertain: that all lands held by the land trust are recorded with

the director; the current status and condition of each land holding; that any funds or other assets

of the land trust held as endowment for specific lands have been properly audited at least once

within the two-year (2) period; the name of the successor organization named in the public or

private land trust's bylaws or articles of association; and any other information the director deems

essential to the proper and continuous protection and management of land and interests or rights

in land held by the land trust. In the event that the director determines that a public or private land trust holding land or interest in land appears to have become inactive, he or she shall initiate

proceedings to effect the termination of the land trust and the transfer of its lands, assets, land

rights, and land interests to the successor organization named in the defaulting trust's bylaws or

articles of association or to another organization created for the same or similar purposes. Should

such a transfer not be possible, then the land trust, assets, and interest and rights in land will be

held in trust by the state of Rhode Island and managed by the director for the purposes stated at

the time of original acquisition by the trust. Any trust assets or interests other than land or rights

in land accruing to the state under such circumstances will be held and managed as a separate

fund for the benefit of the designated trust lands;

     (30) Consistent with federal standards, issue and enforce such rules, regulations, and

orders as may be necessary to establish requirements for maintaining evidence of financial

responsibility for taking corrective action and compensating third parties for bodily injury and

property damage caused by sudden and non-sudden accidental releases arising from operating

underground storage tanks;

     (31) To enforce, by such means as provided by law, the standards for the quality of air,

and water, and the location, design, construction, and operation of all underground storage

facilities used for storing petroleum products or hazardous materials; any order or notice issued

by the director relating to the location, design, construction, operation, or maintenance of an

underground storage facility used for storing petroleum products or hazardous materials shall be

eligible for recordation under chapter 13 of title 34. The director shall forward the order or notice

to the city or town wherein the subject facility is located, and the order or notice shall be recorded

in the general index by the appropriate municipal officer in the land-evidence records in the city

or town wherein the subject facility is located. Any subsequent transferee of that facility shall be

responsible for complying with the requirements of the order or notice. Upon satisfactory

completion of the requirements of the order or notice, the director shall provide written notice of

the same, which notice shall be eligible for recordation. The original, written notice shall be

forwarded to the city or town wherein the subject facility is located, and the notice of satisfactory

completion shall be recorded in the general index by the appropriate municipal official in the

land-evidence records in the city or town wherein the subject facility is located. A copy of the

written notice shall be forwarded to the owner of the subject facility within five (5) days of a

request for it, and, in any event, shall be forwarded to the owner of the subject facility within

thirty (30) days after correction;

     (32) To manage and disburse any and all funds collected pursuant to � 46-12.9-4, in

accordance with � 46-12.9-5, and other provisions of the Rhode Island Underground Storage

Tank Financial Responsibility Act, as amended;

     (33) To support, facilitate, and assist the Rhode Island Natural History Survey, as

appropriate and/or as necessary, in order to accomplish the important public purposes of the

survey in gathering and maintaining data on Rhode Island natural history; making public

presentations and reports on natural history topics; ranking species and natural communities;

monitoring rare species and communities; consulting on open-space acquisitions and management

plans; reviewing proposed federal and state actions and regulations with regard to their potential

impact on natural communities; and seeking outside funding for wildlife management, land

management, and research;

     (34) To promote the effective stewardship of lakes, ponds, rivers, and streams including,

but not limited to, collaboration with watershed organizations and associations of lakefront

property owners on planning and management actions that will prevent and mitigate water quality

degradation, reduce the loss of native habitat due to infestation of non-native species, abate

nuisance conditions that result from excessive growth of algal or non-native plant species as well

as promote healthy freshwater riverine ecosystems;

     (35) In implementing the programs established pursuant to this chapter, to identify

critical areas for improving service to customers doing business with the department, and to

develop and implement strategies to improve performance and effectiveness in those areas. Key

aspects of a customer-service program shall include, but not necessarily be limited to, the

following components:

     (a) Maintenance of an organizational unit within the department with the express purpose

of providing technical assistance to customers and helping customers comply with environmental

regulations and requirements;

     (b) Maintenance of an employee-training program to promote customer service across the

department;

     (c) Implementation of a continuous business process evaluation and improvement effort,

including process reviews to encourage development of quality proposals; ensure timely and

predictable reviews; and result in effective decisions and consistent follow up and implementation

throughout the department; and publish an annual report on such efforts;

     (d) Creation of a centralized location for the acceptance of permit applications and other

submissions to the department;

     (e) Maintenance of a process to promote, organize, and facilitate meetings prior to the

submission of applications or other proposals in order to inform the applicant on options and

opportunities to minimize environmental impact; improve the potential for sustainable

environmental compliance; and support an effective and efficient review and decision-making

process on permit applications related to the proposed project;

     (f) Development of single permits under multiple authorities otherwise provided in state

law to support comprehensive and coordinated reviews of proposed projects. The director may

address and resolve conflicting or redundant process requirements in order to achieve an effective

and efficient review process that meets environmental objectives; and

     (g) Exploration of the use of performance-based regulations coupled with adequate

inspection and oversight, as an alternative to requiring applications or submissions for approval

prior to initiation of projects. The department shall work with the office of regulatory reform to

evaluate the potential for adopting alternative compliance approaches and provide a report to the

governor and the general assembly by May 1, 2015; and

     (36) To formulate and promulgate regulations requiring any dock or pier longer than

twenty feet (20') and located on a freshwater lake or pond to be equipped with reflective

materials, on all sides facing the water, of an appropriate width and luminosity such that it can be

seen by operators of watercraft.; and

     (37) To temporarily waive any control or prohibition respecting the use of a fuel or fuel

additive required or regulated by the department if the director finds that:

     (i) Extreme or unusual fuel or fuel additive supply circumstances exist in the state or the

New England region which that prevent the distribution of an adequate supply of the fuel or fuel

additive to consumers;

     (ii) Extreme or unusual fuel or fuel additive supply circumstance circumstances are the

result of a natural disaster, an act of god, a pipeline or refinery equipment failure, or another event

that could not reasonably have been foreseen; and

     (iii) It is in the public interest to grant the waiver.

     Any such temporary waiver shall be made in writing and shall be effective for twenty

(20) calendar days; provided, that the director may renew the temporary waiver, in writing, if it is

deemed necessary.


 

331)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-29-32

130 and 192

 

 

42-29-32. Restraint of prisoners and detainees.

     (a) No handcuffs, shackles, or other restraints shall be used on a prisoner or detainee

known to be in her third trimester of pregnancy during transport to or from a court proceeding,

except in accordance with the provisions of � 42-56.3-3(b). If restraints are used, the type of

restraint applied and the application of the restraint shall be done in the least restrictive manner

necessary.

     (b) If restraints are used on a prisoner or detainee pursuant to subsection (a) of this

section, the sheriff shall submit to the director of the department of public safety within five (5)

days a report articulating the grounds that dictated the use of restraints. The department shall

submit to the general assembly in January of each year a report disclosing the number of

prisoners or detainees who were subjected to restraints pursuant to subsection (a) of this section,

and the grounds for their use. No individually identifying information of any prisoner or detainee

shall be included in the report.


 

 

 

332)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30-3

104 and 109

 

 

42-30-3. Appointment of justices.

     The governor shall appoint as many notaries public for the state, and as many justices of

the peace for the several towns and cities, as he or she may deem expedient; and every notary

public and justice of the peace, so appointed, shall hold office for four (4) years.


 

333)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30-4

104 and 109

 

 

42-30-4. Certificate of engagement -- Term of engagement.

     (a) Except as otherwise provided, each notary public and justice of the peace shall, at the

time of receiving his or her commission, file with the secretary of state a certificate that he or she

has been duly engaged thereon, signed by the person before whom the engagement shall have

been taken, and the secretary of state shall, at the request of the notary public or justice of the

peace and upon payment of the actual cost thereof, issue a wallet-size identification card to such

the person.

     (b) The term of engagement for each notary public and justice of the peace shall be for a

period of four (4) years.


 

334)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30-5

104 and 109

 

 

42-30-5. Application for appointment.

     (a) Application. Any individual desiring to be appointed a notary public, or a justice of

the peace, shall make written application to the governor over his or her own signature.

     (b) Qualifications of applicants.:

     (1) The Person person qualified for a notary public justice of the peace commission shall

be at least eighteen (18) years of age and reside legally or conduct business on a regular basis

within Rhode Island.; and

     (2) The applicant for appointment to the office of notary public or justice of the peace can

speak, read, and write the English language and has sufficient knowledge of the powers and

duties pertaining to that office.

     (c) Attorneys and accountants. A member of the Rhode Island bar, and certified public

accountants under � 5-3.1-5, shall, regardless of residence, be appointed a notary public justice of

the peace upon application and presentment of a certified copy of his or her certificate of

admission to the bar or certificate of public accountancy.

     (d) Any such person making written application to be appointed a notary public or justice

of the peace shall, at the time of application, pay to the secretary of state the sum of eighty dollars

($80.00).


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

335)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30-7

104 and 109

 

 

42-30-7. Powers of justices.

     The officers mentioned in �� 42-30-3 -- 42-30-5, inclusive, shall possess all the powers

which that now are, or hereafter may be, conferred by law upon justices of the peace or notaries

public.


 336)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

42-3-8

104 and 109

 

 

42-30-8. [Repealed]


 

337)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30-9

104 and 109

 

 

42-30-9. [Repealed]


 

338)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30-10

104 and 109

 

 

42-30-10. Removal of justices, and commissioners.

     Any notary public, justice of the peace or commissioner of deeds, appointed by the

governor, may be removed for cause by the governor, in his or her discretion, within the term for

which that officer shall have been appointed, after giving to that officer a copy of the charges

against him or her and an opportunity to be heard in his or her defense; provided, however, that

any notary public, justice of the peace or commissioner of deeds who is convicted of a felony and

incarcerated shall have his or her commission revoked. Said The notary public, justice of the

peace or commissioner of deeds shall not be eligible to apply for a new commission until his or

her voting rights are restored pursuant to R.I. Const., Art. II, Sec. 1.


 

339)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30-11

104 and 109

 

 

42-30-11. Continuation of powers without reappointment.

     Every justice of the peace and notary public appointed by the governor and not

reappointed, may continue to officiate for a space of thirty (30) days after the date on which his or

her commission expires.


 

340)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30-12

104 and 109

 

 

42-30-12. [Repealed]


 

341)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30-13

104 and 109

 

 

42-30-13. [Repealed]


 

342)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30-14

104 and 109

 

 

42-30-14. [Repealed}


 

343)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30-15

104 and 109

 

 

42-30-15. [Repealed]


 

344)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30-16

104 and 109

 

 

42-30-16. [Repealed]


  

345)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1

104 and 109

 

 

CHAPTER 30.1

UNIFORM LAW ON NOTARIAL ACTS


 

346)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-1

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-1. Title.

     This chapter shall be known and may be cited as the Uniform Law on Notarial Acts.


 

347)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-2

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-2. Definitions.

     For purposes of this chapter, the following definitions apply:

     (1) "Acknowledgment" means a declaration by an individual before a notarial officer that

the individual has signed a record for the purpose stated in the record and, if the record is signed

in a representative capacity, that the individual signed the record with proper authority and signed

it as the act of the individual or entity identified in the record.

     (2) "Commissioning agency" means the Rhode Island office of the secretary of state.

     (3) "Commissioning officer" means the governor of the state of Rhode Island.

     (4) "Electronic" means relating to technology having electrical, digital, magnetic,

wireless, optical, electromagnetic, or similar capabilities.

     (5) "Electronic signature" means an electronic symbol, sound, or process attached to, or

logically associated with, a record and executed or adopted by an individual with the intent to

sign the record.

     (6) "In a representative capacity" means acting as:

     (i) An authorized officer, agent, partner, trustee, or other representative for a person other

than an individual;

     (ii) A public officer, personal representative, guardian, or other representative, in the

capacity stated in a record;

     (iii) An agent or attorney-in-fact for a principal; or

     (iv) An authorized representative of another in any other capacity.

     (7) "Notarial act" means an act, whether performed with respect to a tangible or

electronic record, that a notarial officer may perform under the law of this state. The term

includes taking an acknowledgment, administering an oath or affirmation, taking a verification on

oath or affirmation, witnessing or attesting a signature, certifying or attesting a copy, noting a

protest of a negotiable instrument and transact, do and finish all matters and things relating to

protests and protesting bills of exchange and promissory notes, and all other matters within their

office required by law, take depositions as prescribed by law, and acknowledgments of deeds and

other instruments.

     (8) "Notarial officer" means a notary public or other individual authorized to perform a

notarial act.

     (9) "Notary public" means an individual commissioned to perform a notarial act by the

commissioning officer.

     (10) "Official stamp" means a physical image affixed to a tangible record or an electronic

image attached to, or logically associated with, an electronic record.

     (11) "Person" means an individual, corporation, business trust, statutory trust, estate,

trust, partnership, limited-liability company, association, joint venture, public corporation,

government or governmental subdivision, agency, or instrumentality, or any other legal or

commercial entity.

     (12) "Record" means information that is inscribed on a tangible medium or that is stored

in an electronic or other medium and is retrievable in perceivable form.

     (13) "Sign" means, with present intent to authenticate or adopt a record:

     (i) To execute or adopt a tangible symbol; or

     (i)(ii) To attach to, or logically associate with, the record an electronic symbol, sound, or

process.

     (14) "Signature" means a tangible symbol or an electronic signature that evidences the

signing of a record.

     (15) "Stamping device" means:

     (i) A physical device capable of affixing an official stamp upon a tangible record; or

     (ii) An electronic device or process capable of attaching to, or logically associating an

official stamp with, an electronic record.

     (16) "State" means a state of the United States of America, the District of Columbia,

Puerto Rico, the United States Virgin Islands, or any territory or insular possession subject to the

jurisdiction of the United States.

     (17) "Verification on oath or affirmation" means a declaration that a statement in a record

is true, made by an individual under oath or by affirmation before a notarial officer.


 

 348)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-3

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-3. Authority to perform notarial act.

     A notarial officer may perform a notarial act authorized by this chapter or by law of this

state other than this chapter.


 

349)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-4

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-4. Requirements for certain notarial acts.

     (a) A notarial officer who takes an acknowledgment of a record shall determine, from

personal knowledge or satisfactory evidence of the identity of the individual, that the individual

appearing before the officer and making the acknowledgment has the identity claimed and that

the signature on the record is the signature of the individual.

     (b) A notarial officer who takes a verification of a statement on oath or affirmation shall

determine, from personal knowledge or satisfactory evidence of the identity of the individual, that

the individual appearing before the notarial officer and making the verification has the identity

claimed and that the signature on the statement verified is the signature of the individual.

     (c) A notarial officer who witnesses or attests to a signature shall determine, from

personal knowledge or satisfactory evidence of the identity of the individual, that the individual

appearing before the notarial officer and signing the record has the identity claimed.


 

350)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-5

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-5. Personal appearance required.

     If a notarial act relates to a statement made in, or a signature executed upon, a record, the

individual making the statement or executing the signature shall appear personally before the

notarial officer.


 

351)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-6

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-6. Identification of individual.

     (a) A notarial officer has personal knowledge of the identity of an individual appearing

before the notarial officer if the individual is personally known to the notarial officer through

dealings sufficient to provide reasonable certainty regarding the legal identity of the individual.

     (b) A notarial officer has satisfactory evidence of the identity of an individual appearing

before the notarial officer if the notarial officer can identify the individual:

     (1) By means of:

     (i) A passport, driver's license, or government-issued, non-driver identification card,

which that is current or expired not more than three (3) years before performance of the notarial

act; or

     (ii) Another form of government identification issued to an individual, which that is

current or expired not more than three (3) years before performance of the notarial act, contains

the signature or a photograph of the individual, and is satisfactory to the notarial officer; or

     (c) A notarial officer may require an individual to provide additional information or

identification credentials necessary to assure the notarial officer of the identity of the individual.


 

 

 

 

 

 

352)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-7

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-7. Authority to refuse to perform notarial act.

     (a) A notarial officer may refuse to perform a notarial act if the notarial officer is not

satisfied that:

     (1) The individual executing the record is competent or has the capacity to execute the

record; or

     (2) The individual's signature is knowingly and voluntarily made.

     (b) A notarial officer may refuse to perform a notarial act unless refusal is prohibited by

law other than this chapter.


 

353)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-8

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-8. Signature if individual unable to sign.

     If an individual is physically unable to sign a record, the individual may direct an

individual other than the notarial officer to sign the individual's name on the record. The notarial

officer shall insert "Signature affixed by (name of other individual) at the direction of (name of

individual)" or words of similar import.


 

354)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-9

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-9. Notarial act in this state.

     The signature and title of an individual performing a notarial act in this state are prima

facie evidence that the signature is genuine and that the individual holds the designated title.


 

355)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-10

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-10. Notarial act in another state.

     (a) A notarial act performed in another state has the same effect under the law of this

state as if performed by a notarial officer of this state, if the act performed in that state is

performed by:

     (1) A notary public of that state;

     (2) A judge, clerk, or deputy clerk of a court of that state; or

     (3) Any other individual authorized by the law of that state to perform the notarial act.

     (b) The signature and title of an individual performing a notarial act in another state are

prima facie evidence that the signature is genuine and that the individual holds the designated

title.

     (c) The signature and title of a notarial officer described in subsection (a)(1) or (a)(2) of

this section conclusively establish the authority of the officer to perform the notarial act.


 

 

 

 

356)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-11

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-11. Notarial act under federal authority.

     (a) A notarial act performed under federal law has the same effect under the law of this

state as if performed by a notarial officer of this state, if the act performed under federal law is

performed by:

     (1) A judge, clerk, or deputy clerk of a court;

     (2) An individual in military service, or performing duties under the authority of military

service, who is authorized to perform notarial acts under federal law;

     (3) An individual designated a notarizing officer by the United States Department of

State for performing notarial acts overseas; or

     (4) Any other individual authorized by federal law to perform the notarial act.

     (b) The signature and title of an individual acting under federal authority and performing

a notarial act are prima facie evidence that the signature is genuine and that the individual holds

the designated title.

     (c) The signature and title of an officer described in subsection (a)(1), (a)(2), or (a)(3) of

this section conclusively establish the authority of the officer to perform the notarial act.


 

357)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-12

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-12. Foreign notarial act.

     (a) In this section, "foreign state" means a government other than the United States of

America or a state not including the state of Rhode Island.

     (b) If a notarial act is performed under authority and in the jurisdiction of a foreign state

or constituent unit of the foreign state, the act has the same effect under the law of this state as if

performed by a notarial officer of this state.

     (c) If the title of office and indication of authority to perform notarial acts in a foreign

state appears in a digest of foreign law or in a list customarily used as a source for that

information, the authority of an officer with that title to perform notarial acts is conclusively

established.

     (d) The signature and official stamp of an individual holding an office described in

subsection (c) of this section are prima facie evidence that the signature is genuine and the

individual holds the designated title.

     (e) A consular authentication issued by an individual designated by the United States

Department of State as a notarizing officer for performing notarial acts overseas and attached to

the record with respect to which the notarial act is performed conclusively establishes that the

signature of the notarial officer is genuine and that the officer holds the indicated office.


 

358)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-13

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-13. Official stamp.

     The official stamp of a notary public must:

     (1) Include the notary public's name, the words "notary public,", jurisdiction, and other

information required by the rules of the commissioning agency; and

     (2) Be capable of being copied together with the record to which it is affixed or attached

or with which it is logically associated;

     (3) This section shall not preclude a notarial officer who is a member of the general

assembly in this state from notarizing a document without the use of a stamp on the floor of the

general assembly during open session.


 

359)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-14

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-14. Notification regarding performance of notarial act on electronic record;

selection of technology.

     (a) A notary public may select one or more tamper-evident technologies to perform

notarial acts with respect to electronic records. A person may not require a notary public to

perform a notarial act with respect to an electronic record with a technology that the notary public

has not selected.

     (b) Before a notary public performs the notary public's initial notarial act with respect to

an electronic record, a notary public shall notify the commissioning agency that the notary public

will be performing notarial acts with respect to electronic records and identify the technology the

notary public intends to use. If the commissioning agency has established standards for approval

of technology, such the technology must conform to the standards. If the technology conforms to

the standards, the commissioning agency shall approve the use of the technology.


 

360)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-15

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-15. Commission as notary public; qualifications; no immunity or benefit.

     (a) A notarial act may be performed in this state by:

     (1) A notary public of this state;

     (2) An individual qualified under subsection (b) of this section may apply to the

commissioning officer for a commission as a notary public. The applicant shall comply with the

information required herein and pay the sum of eighty dollars ($80.00).

     (b) An applicant for a commission as a notary public must:

     (1) Be at least eighteen (18) years of age;

     (2) Be a citizen or permanent legal resident of the United States;

     (3) Be a resident of or have a place of employment or practice in this state;

     (4) Be able to read and write English;

     (5) Not be disqualified to receive a commission under � 42-30.1-16; and

     (6) Demonstrate sufficient knowledge of the powers and duties pursuant to the

requirements of this chapter.

     (c) A member in good standing of the Rhode Island bar and certified public accountants

under � 5-3.1-5, shall, regardless of residence, be appointed a notary public upon application and

presentment of a certified copy of their certificate of admission to the bar or certificate of public

accountancy;

     (d) Every state senator, state representative, member of a city or town council, chief,

deputy, and assistant clerk of any state court, clerks of the board of canvassers and workers'

compensation court, municipal clerks, and the board of canvassers registrar may be appointed a

notary public following election, appointment, or hiring, as applicable, and upon application and

presentment of reasonable evidence of said the office or employment, and shall retain such the

appointment throughout the uninterrupted duration and term of such the office, appointment, or

employment;

     (1) No notary public set forth in � 42-30.1-15(d) subsection (d) shall be required to pay

an application fee. The notaries public set forth in � 42-30.1-15(d) subsection (d) must complete

the appropriate oath of office as set forth in � 42-30.1-15(2) subsection (2). The notaries public

set forth in � 42-30.1-15(d) subsection (d) who may be reappointed or continued in office, may

continue to officiate while in office without taking a new oath of office.

     (2) Before issuance of a commission as a notary public, an applicant for the commission

shall execute an oath of office and submit it to the commissioning agency.

     (e) Two (2) police officers from each state and local police department of this state, as

identified in writing by the chief of police.

     (f) On compliance with this section, the commissioning officer shall issue a commission

as a notary public to an applicant for a term of four (4) years.

     (g) Every notary public appointed by the commissioning officer and not reappointed, may

continue to officiate for a space of thirty (30) days after the date on which their his or her

commission expires.

     (h) A commission to act as a notary public authorizes the notary public to perform

notarial acts. The commission does not provide the notary public any immunity or benefit

conferred by law of this state on public officials or employees.


 

361)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-16

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-16. Grounds to deny, refuse to renew, revoke, suspend, or condition

commission of notary public.

     (a) The commissioning officer may deny, refuse to renew, revoke, suspend, or impose a

condition on a commission as notary public for any act or omission that demonstrates the

individual lacks the honesty, integrity, competence, or reliability to act as a notary public,

including without limitation:

     (1) Failure to comply with this chapter;

     (2) A fraudulent, dishonest, or deceitful misstatement or omission in the application for a

commission as a notary public submitted to the commissioning officer and/or agency;

     (3) A conviction of the applicant or notary public of any crime which that involves fraud,

dishonesty, or deceit; provided that in determining whether to deny, refuse to renew, revoke,

suspend, or condition the commission, the commissioning officer shall consider such factors as

the seriousness of the crime; whether the crime relates directly to the training and skills needed

for the commission of a notary public; how much time has elapsed since the crime was

committed; and the applicant's actions and conduct since the crime was committed;

     (4) A finding against, or admission of liability by, the applicant or notary public in any

legal proceeding or disciplinary action based on the applicant's or notary public's fraud,

dishonesty, or deceit;

     (5) Use of false or misleading advertising or representation by the notary public

representing that the notary public has a duty, right, or privilege that the notary public does not

have;

     (6) Denial, refusal to renew, revocation, suspension, or conditioning of a notary public

commission in another state; or

     (7) Termination or revocation of a certificate of admission to the Rhode Island bar or a

certificate of public accountancy.

     (b) If the commissioning officer denies, refuses to renew, revokes, suspends, or imposes

conditions on a commission as a notary public, the applicant or notary public is entitled to timely

notice and hearing in accordance with chapter 35 of this title 42.

     (c) The authority of the commissioning officer to deny, refuse to renew, suspend, revoke,

or impose conditions on a commission as a notary public does not prevent a person from seeking

and obtaining other criminal or civil remedies provided by law.


 

 

 

362)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-17

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-17. Database of notaries public.

     The commissioning agency shall maintain an electronic database of notaries public:

     (1) Through which a person may verify the authority of a notary public to perform

notarial acts; and

     (2) Which That indicates whether a notary public has notified the commissioning agency

that the notary public will be performing notarial acts on electronic records.


 

363)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-18

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-18. Prohibited acts.

     (a) A commission as a notary public does not authorize an individual to:

     (1) Assist persons in drafting legal records, give legal advice, or otherwise practice law;

     (2) Act as an immigration consultant or an expert on immigration matters;

     (3) Represent a person in a judicial or administrative proceeding relating to immigration

to the United States, United States citizenship, or related matters; or

     (4) Receive compensation for performing any of the activities listed in this subsection.

     (b) A notary public may not engage in false or deceptive advertising.

     (c) A notary public, other than an attorney licensed to practice law in this state, may not

use the term "notario" or "notario publico".

     (d) A notary public, other than an attorney licensed to practice law in this state, may not

advertise or represent that the notary public may assist persons in drafting legal records, give

legal advice, or otherwise practice law. If a notary public who is not an attorney licensed to

practice law in this state in any manner advertises or represents that the notary public offers

notarial services, whether orally or in a record, including broadcast media, print media, and the

Internet internet, the notary public shall include the following statement, or an alternate

statement authorized or required by the commissioning agency, in the advertisement or

representation, prominently and in each language used in the advertisement or representation: "I

am not an attorney licensed to practice law in this state. I am not licensed to draft legal records,

give advice on legal matters, including immigration, or charge a fee for those activities." If the

form of advertisement or representation is not broadcast media, print media, or the Internet

internet and does not permit inclusion of the statement required by this subsection because of

size, it must be displayed prominently or provided at the place of performance of the notarial act

before the notarial act is performed.

     (e) Except as otherwise allowed by law, a notary public may not withhold access to, or

possession of, an original record provided by a person that seeks performance of a notarial act by

the notary public.


 

364)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-19

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-19. Validity of notarial acts.

     Except as otherwise provided in � 42-30.1-3(b), the failure of a notarial officer to perform

a duty or meet a requirement specified in this chapter does not invalidate a notarial act performed

by the notarial officer. The validity of a notarial act under this chapter does not prevent an

aggrieved person from seeking to invalidate the record or transaction that is the subject of the

notarial act or from seeking other remedies based on the law of this state other than this chapter or

law of the United States of America. This section does not validate a purported notarial act

performed by an individual who does not have the authority to perform notarial acts.


 

 

 

 

 

365)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-20

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-20. Fees for authentication of a notary public signature.

     A fee of five dollars ($5.00) shall be charged and collected by the office of the secretary

of state for the authentication or certification of the signature of a notary public. In any event

where the office of the secretary of state shall authenticate or certify the signatures of a notary

public upon multiple relevant documents presented simultaneously, and all of which documents

pertain to the same matter or transaction and are to be filed at one time, the aggregate fee charged

for said the authentications or certifications shall be the lesser of the above-referenced fee

charged per each authentication or certification, or one hundred fifty dollars ($150).


366)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-21

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-21. Notary public � Fraud or deceit in office.

     A notary public, who, in the exercise of the powers, or in the performance of the duties of such the office, shall practice any fraud or deceit, the punishment for which is not

otherwise provided for by law, shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and fined not more than one thousand dollars ($1,000), or imprisoned not more than one year, or both.


367)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-22

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-22. Notary public commission effect.

     A commission as a notary public in effect on January 1, 2019, continues until its date of

expiration. A notary public who applies to renew a commission as a notary public on or after

January 1, 2019, is subject to and shall comply with this chapter. A notary public, in performing

notarial acts after January 1, 2019, shall comply with this chapter.


 

368)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-23

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-23. Savings Clause.

     This chapter does not affect the validity or effect of a notarial act performed before

January 1, 2019.


 

 369)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-30.1-24

104 and 109

 

 

42-30.1-24. Relation to electronic signatures in global and national commerce act.

     This chapter modifies, limits, and supersedes the Electronic Signatures in Global and

National Commerce Act, 15 U.S.C. Section 7001 et seq., but does not modify, limit, or supersede

Section 101(c) of that act, 15 U.S.C. Section 7001(c), or authorize electronic delivery of any of

the notices described in Section 103(b) of that act, 15 U.S.C. Section 7003(b).


 

370)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-51-11

146 and 238

 

 

42-51-11. Mary Brennan fellowship fund.

     (a) There is established the Mary Brennan fellowship fund ("the fellowship fund"), which

shall be utilized to create a fellowship program for college students and young adults with

disabilities.

     (b) These fellowships shall provide a semester-long, part-time placement with the

commission in Rhode Island, working on disability policy and research. Each fellow will be

assigned to a specific placement, providing assistance to the commission in disability policy.

Mentor experiences will introduce the fellows to disability policy issues and actions at the local,

state and federal levels. The fellowships will offer students an opportunity to:

     (1) Gain perspective on the role and responsibility of the commission;

     (2) Knowledge of national/state disability programs;

     (3) Policy issues and research;

     (4) Meet with decision makers, experts and critics in disability and related policy fields;

and

     (5) Develop networks with local, regional, and national based experts, and researchers

who can assist in career development and future endeavors.

     (c) The commission will provide each fellow with a stipend of at least one thousand five

hundred dollars ($1,500) and reimbursement for authorized travel.

     (d) This fellowship program is designed for individuals with demonstrated leadership and

expertise interest in policy and research affecting people with disabilities. Applicants must have:

     (1) Completed at least three (3) semesters of college-level study;

     (2) Be enrolled as a full or part-time student in an accredited college or university in

Rhode Island;

     (3) Leadership ability;

     (4) The endorsement of a current/former supervisor/teacher current or former

supervisor or teacher;

     (5) Approval on the part of the college/university to receive credit for the fellowship if

selected; and

     (6) The ability to participate in the semester-long program in Providence for at least two

hundred and forty (240) hours during the spring and fall semesters or in the summer.

     (e) The commission shall give preference in its selection of fellows to Rhode Island

residents who are:

     (1) College students Students and young adults with disabilities, and then to;

     (2) College students enrolled in a course of study in education and/or or human services

for persons with disabilities.

     (f) The general assembly shall appropriate ten thousand dollars ($10,000) for the fiscal

year ending June 30, 1998 and annually the sums it deems necessary to implement the purposes

of this section.

     (g) The commission is authorized and empowered to receive donations and grants from

sources including, but not limited to, the federal government, governmental and private

foundations, and corporate and individual donors; these donations and grants to be deposited in

the fellowship fund. The commission may create additional fellowships from available funds.


 

371)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-56.3-8

130 and 192

 

 

42-56.3-8. Reports.

     The department shall report to the general assembly in January of each year the number

of pregnant women incarcerated at the adult correctional institutions during the previous year, and

the number who were subject to the use of restraints as specified in � 42-56.3-3(e). These findings

shall be made available for public inspection, except that no individually identifying information

of any prisoner or detainee shall be made public without the prisoner or detainee's written

consent.


 

372)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-61-4

47 and 70

 

 

42-61-4. Powers and duties of director.

     The director shall have the power and it shall be his or her duty to:

     (1) Supervise and administer the operation of lotteries in accordance with this chapter,

chapter 61.2 of this title and with the rules and regulations of the division;

     (2) Act as the chief administrative officer having general charge of the office and records

and to employ necessary personnel to serve at his or her pleasure and who shall be in the

unclassified service and whose salaries shall be set by the director of the department of revenue,

pursuant to the provisions of � 42-61-3.;

     (3) In accordance with this chapter and the rules and regulations of the division, license

as agents to sell lottery tickets those persons, as in his or her opinion, who will best serve the

public convenience and promote the sale of tickets or shares. The director may require a bond

from every licensed agent, in an amount provided in the rules and regulations of the division.

Every licensed agent shall prominently display his or her license, or a copy of their his or her

license, as provided in the rules and regulations of the committee;

     (4) Confer regularly as necessary or desirable, and not less than nine (9) times per year,

with the permanent joint committee on state lottery on the operation and administration of the

lotteries; make available for inspection by the committee, upon request, all books, records, files,

and other information, and documents of the division; advise the committee and recommend

those matters that he or she deems necessary and advisable to improve the operation and

administration of the lotteries;

     (5) Suspend or revoke any license issued pursuant to this chapter, chapter 61.2 of this title

or the rules and regulations promulgated under this chapter and chapter 61.2 of this title;

     (6) Enter into contracts for the operation of the lotteries, or any part of the operation of

the lotteries, and into contracts for the promotion of the lotteries;

     (7) Ensure that monthly financial reports are prepared providing gross monthly revenues,

prize disbursements, other expenses, net income, and the amount transferred to the state general

fund for keno and for all other lottery operations; submit this report to the state budget officer, the

auditor general, the permanent joint committee on state lottery, the legislative fiscal advisors, and

the governor no later than the twentieth business day following the close of the month; the

monthly report shall be prepared in a manner prescribed by the members of the revenues revenue

estimating conference; at the end of each fiscal year the director shall submit an annual report

based upon an accrual system of accounting which that shall include a full and complete

statement of lottery revenues, prize disbursements, and expenses, to the governor and the general

assembly, which report shall be a public document and shall be filed with the secretary of state;

     (8) Carry on a continuous study and investigation of the state lotteries throughout the

state, and the operation and administration of similar laws, which may be in effect in other states

or countries; and the director shall continue to exercise his or her authority to study, evaluate,

and where deemed feasible and advisable by the director, implement lottery-related initiatives,

including but not limited to, pilot programs for limited periods of time, with the goal of

generating additional revenues to be transferred by the Lottery lottery to the general fund

pursuant to � 42-61-15(a)(3). Each such initiative shall be objectively evaluated from time to time

using measurable criteria to determine whether the initiative is generating revenue to be

transferred by the Lottery lottery to the general fund. Nothing herein shall be deemed to permit

the implementation of an initiative that would be inconsistent with existing law or that would

constitute an expansion of gambling requiring voter approval under applicable Rhode Island law.;

     (9) Implement the creation and sale of commercial advertising space on lottery tickets as

authorized by � 42-61-4 of this chapter this section as soon as practicable after June 22, 1994;

     (10) Promulgate rules and regulations, which shall include, but not be limited to:

     (i) The price of tickets or shares in the lotteries;

     (ii) The number and size of the prizes on the winning tickets or shares;

     (iii) The manner of selecting the winning tickets or shares;

     (iv) The manner of payment of prizes to the holders of winning tickets or shares;

     (v) The frequency of the drawings or selections of winning tickets or shares;

     (vi) The number and types of location locations at which tickets or shares may be sold;

     (vii) The method to be used in selling tickets or shares;

     (viii) The licensing of agents to sell tickets or shares, except that a person under the age

of eighteen (18) shall not be licensed as an agent;

     (ix) The license fee to be charged to agents;

     (x) The manner in which the proceeds of the sale of lottery tickets or shares are

maintained, reported, and otherwise accounted for;

     (xi) The manner and amount of compensation to be paid licensed sales agents necessary

to provide for the adequate availability of tickets or shares to prospective buyers and for the

convenience of the general public;

     (xii) The apportionment of the total annual revenue accruing from the sale of lottery

tickets or shares and from all other sources for the payment of prizes to the holders of winning

tickets or shares, for the payment of costs incurred in the operation and administration of the

lotteries, including the expense of the division and the costs resulting from any contract or

contracts entered into for promotional, advertising, consulting, or operational services or for the

purchase or lease of facilities, lottery equipment, and materials, for the repayment of moneys

appropriated to the lottery fund;

     (xiii) The superior court upon petition of the director after a hearing may issue subpoenas

to compel the attendance of witnesses and the production of documents, papers, books, records,

and other evidence in any matter over which it has jurisdiction, control, or supervision. If a

person subpoenaed to attend in the proceeding or hearing fails to obey the command of the

subpoena without reasonable cause, or if a person in attendance in the proceeding or hearing

refuses without lawful cause to be examined or to answer a legal or pertinent question or to

exhibit any book, account, record, or other document when ordered to do so by the court, that

person may be punished for contempt of the court;

     (xiv) The manner, standards, and specification for the process of competitive bidding for

division purchases and contracts; and

     (xv) The sale of commercial advertising space on the reverse side of, or in other available

areas upon, lottery tickets provided that all net revenue derived from the sale of the advertising

space shall be deposited immediately into the state's general fund and shall not be subject to the

provisions of � 42-61-15. 


 

 

 

373)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-61.2-1

47 and 70

 

 

42-61.2-1. Definitions.

     For the purpose of this chapter, the following words shall mean:

     (1)(2) "Central communication system" means a system approved by the lottery division,

linking all video-lottery machines at a licensee location to provide auditing program information

and any other information determined by the lottery. In addition, the central communications

system must provide all computer hardware and related software necessary for the establishment

and implementation of a comprehensive system as required by the division. The central

communications licensee may provide a maximum of fifty percent (50%) of the video-lottery

terminals.

     (2)(9) "Licensed, video-lottery retailer" means a pari-mutuel licensee specifically

licensed by the director subject to the approval of the division to become a licensed, video-lottery

retailer.

     (3)(11) "Net terminal income" means currency placed into a video-lottery terminal less

credits redeemed for cash by players.

     (4)(15) "Pari-mutuel licensee" means:

     (i) An entity licensed pursuant to � 41-3.1-3; and/or

     (ii) An entity licensed pursuant to � 41-7-3.

     (5)(26) "Technology provider" means any individual, partnership, corporation, or

association that designs, manufactures, installs, maintains, distributes, or supplies video-lottery

machines or associated equipment for the sale or use in this state.

     (6)(30) "Video-lottery games" means lottery games played on video-lottery terminals

controlled by the lottery division.

     (7)(31) "Video-lottery terminal" means any electronic computerized video game machine

that, upon the insertion of cash or any other representation of value that has been approved by the

division of lotteries, is available to play a video game authorized by the lottery division, and that

uses a video display and microprocessors in which, by chance, the player may receive free games

or credits that can be redeemed for cash. The term does not include a machine that directly

dispenses coins, cash, or tokens.

     (8)(1) "Casino gaming" means any and all table and casino-style games played with

cards, dice, or equipment, for money, credit, or any representative of value; including, but not

limited to, roulette, blackjack, big six, craps, poker, baccarat, paigow, any banking or percentage

game, or any other game of device included within the definition of Class III gaming as that term

is defined in Section 2703(8) of Title 25 of the United States Code and that is approved by the

state through the division of state lottery.

     (9)(10) "Net, table-game revenue" means win from table games minus counterfeit

currency.

     (10)(18) "Rake" means a set fee or percentage of cash and chips representing cash

wagered in the playing of a nonbanking table game assessed by a table games retailer for

providing the services of a dealer, gaming table, or location, to allow the play of any nonbanking

table game.

     (11)(24) "Table game" or "Table gaming" means that type of casino gaming in which

table games are played for cash or chips representing cash, or any other representation of value

that has been approved by the division of lotteries, using cards, dice, or equipment and conducted

by one or more live persons.

     (12)(25) "Table-game retailer" means a retailer authorized to conduct table gaming

pursuant to �� 42-61.2-2.1 or 42-61.2-2.3.

     (13)(4) "Credit facilitator" means any employee of a licensed, video-lottery retailer

approved in writing by the division whose responsibility is to, among other things, review

applications for credit by players, verify information on credit applications, grant, deny, and

suspend credit, establish credit limits, increase and decrease credit limits, and maintain credit

files, all in accordance with this chapter and rules and regulations approved by the division.

     (14)(12) "Newport Grand" means Newport Grand, LLC, a Rhode Island limited-liability

company, successor to Newport Grand Jai Alai, LLC, and each permitted successor to and

assignee of Newport Grand, LLC under the Newport Grand Master Contract, including, but not

limited to, Premier Entertainment II, LLC and/or Twin River-Tiverton, LLC, provided it is a pari-

mutuel licensee as defined in � 42-61.2-1 et seq.; provided, further, however, where the context

indicates that the term is referring to the physical facility, then it shall mean the gaming and

entertainment facility located at 150 Admiral Kalbfus Road, Newport, Rhode Island.

     (15)(13) "Newport Grand Marketing Year" means each fiscal year of the state or a

portion thereof between November 23, 2010, and the termination date of the Newport Grand

Master Contract.

     (16)(14) "Newport Grand Master Contract" means that certain master video-lottery

terminal contract made as of November 23, 2005, by and between the Division division of

Lotteries lotteries of the Rhode Island department of administration and Newport Grand, as

amended and extended from time to time as authorized therein and/or as such Newport Grand

Master Contract may be assigned as permitted therein.

     (17) "Premier" means Premier Entertainment II, LLC and/or its successor in interest by

reason of the acquisition of the stock, membership interests, or substantially all of the assets of

such entity.

     (18)(29) "Twin River-Tiverton" means Twin River-Tiverton, LLC and/or its successor in

interest by reason of the acquisition of the stock, membership interests, or substantially all of the

assets of such entity.

     (19)(22) "Sports-wagering revenue" means:

     (1) The total of cash or cash equivalents received from sports wagering minus the total

of:

     (i) Cash or cash equivalents paid to players as a result of sports wagering;

     (ii) The annual flat fee to the host communities as defined by � 42-61.2-2.4(c) � 42-61.2-

5(c) of the general laws;

     (iii) Marketing expenses related to sports wagering as agreed to by the division, the

sports-wagering vendor, and the host facilities, as approved by the division of the lottery; and

     (iv) Any federal excise taxes (if applicable).

      (2) The term does not include any of the following:

     (i) Counterfeit cash.

     (ii) Coins or currency of other countries received as a result of sports wagering, except to

the extent that the coins or currency are readily convertible to cash.

     (iii) Cash taken in a fraudulent act perpetrated against a hosting facility or sports-

wagering vendor for which the hosting facility or sports-wagering vendor is not reimbursed.

     (iv) Free play provided by the hosting facility or sports-wagering vendor as authorized by

the division of lottery to a patron and subsequently "won back" by the hosting facility or sports-

wagering vendor, for which the hosting facility or sports-wagering vendor can demonstrate that it

or its affiliate has not been reimbursed in cash.

     (20)(19) "Sporting event" means any professional sport or athletic event, any Olympic or

international sports competition event, and any collegiate sport or athletic event, or any portion

thereof, including, but not limited to, the individual performance statistics of athletes in a sports

event or combination of sports events, except "sports event" shall not include a prohibited sports

event.

      (21)(3) "Collegiate sports or athletic event" shall not include a collegiate sports contest

or collegiate athletic event that takes place in Rhode Island or a sports contest or athletic event in

which any Rhode Island college team participates regardless of where the event takes place.

     (22)(20) "Sports wagering" means the business of accepting wagers on sporting events or

a combination of sporting events, or on the individual performance statistics of athletes in a

sporting event or combination of sporting events, by any system or method of wagering. The term

includes, but is not limited to, exchange wagering, parlays, over-under, moneyline, pools, and

straight bets, and the term includes the placement of such bets and wagers. However, the term

does not include, without limitation, the following:

     (1) Lotteries, including video-lottery games and other types of casino gaming operated by

the state, through the division, on the date this act is enacted.

     (2) Pari-mutuel betting on the outcome of thoroughbred or harness horse racing, or

greyhound dog racing, including but not limited to, pari-mutuel wagering on a race that is

"simulcast" (as defined in section  41-11-1 of the general laws), as regulated elsewhere pursuant

to the general laws, including in chapters 41-3, 41-3.1, 41-4 and 41-11 of the general laws 3, 3.1,

4, and 11 of title 41.

     (3) Off-track betting on racing events, as regulated elsewhere pursuant to the general

laws, including in chapter 41-10 of the general laws 10 of title 41.

     (4) Wagering on the respective scores or points of the game of jai alai or pelota and the

sale of pari-mutuel pools related to such games, as regulated elsewhere pursuant to the general

laws, including in chapter 41-7 of the general laws 7 of title 41.

     (5) Lotteries, charitable gaming, games of chance, bingo games, raffles, and pull-tab

lottery tickets, to the extent permitted and regulated pursuant to chapter 11-19 of the general laws

19 of title 11.

     (23)(21) "Sports-wagering device" means any mechanical, electrical, or computerized

contrivance, terminal, machine, or other device, apparatus, equipment, or supplies approved by

the division and used to conduct sports wagering.

     (24)(23) "Sports-wagering vendor" means any entity authorized by the division of lottery

to operate sports betting on the division�s behalf in accordance with this chapter.

     (25)(16) "Payoff", when used in connection with sports wagering, means cash or cash

equivalents paid to a player as a result of the player�s winning a sports wager. A "payoff" is a

type of "prize," as the term "prize" is used in chapter 42-61, chapter 42-61.2 and in chapter 42-

61.3 chapters 61, 61.2, and 61.3 of this title.

     (26)(27) "Tiverton gaming facility" (sometimes referred to as "Twin River�Tiverton")

means the gaming and entertainment facility located in the Town town of Tiverton at the

intersection of William S. Canning Boulevard and Stafford Road.

     (27)(28) "Twin River" (sometimes referred to as "UTGR") means UTGR, Inc., a

Delaware corporation, and each permitted successor to and assignee of UTGR, Inc.; provided

further, however, where the context indicates that the term is referring to a physical facility, then

"Twin River" or "Twin River gaming facility" shall mean the gaming and entertainment facility

located at 100 Twin River Road in Lincoln, Rhode Island.

     (28)(8) "Hosting facility" refers to Twin River and the Tiverton gaming facility.

     (29)(5) "DBR" means the department of business regulation, division of licensing and

gaming and athletics gaming and athletics licensing, and/or any successor in interest thereto.

     (30)(7) "Division,", "division of lottery,", "division of lotteries", or "lottery division"

means the division of lotteries within the department of revenue and/or any successor in interest

thereto.

     (31)(6) "Director" means the director of the division.


 

374)

Section

Add and Amend� Chapter Numbers:

 

42-61.2-2.4

47 (Add) and 70(Amend)

 

 

42-61.2-2.4. State to conduct sports-wagering hosted by Twin River and the

Tiverton Gaming Facility.

     (a) The state, through the division of lotteries, shall implement, operate, conduct, and

control sports wagering at the Twin River gaming facility and the Twin River-Tiverton gaming

facility, once Twin River-Tiverton is licensed as a video-lottery and table-game retailer. In

furtherance thereof, the state, through the division, shall have full operational control to operate

such the sports wagering, including, without limitation, the power and authority to:

     (1) Establish, with respect to sports wagering, one or more systems for linking, tracking,

depositing, and reporting of receipts, audits, annual reports, prohibited conduct, and other such

matters determined by the division from time to time;

     (2) Collect all sports-wagering revenue indirectly through Twin River and Tiverton

gaming facilities, require that the Twin River and Tiverton gaming facilities collect all sports-

wagering revenue in trust for the state (through the division), deposit such sports-wagering

revenue into an account or accounts of the division�s choice, allocate such sports-wagering

revenue according to law, and otherwise maintain custody and control over all sports-wagering

revenue;

     (3) Hold and exercise sufficient powers over the Twin River and Tiverton gaming

facilities� accounting and finances to allow for adequate oversight and verification of the financial

aspects of sports wagering hosted at their respective facilities in Lincoln and Tiverton, including,

without limitation:

     (i) The right to require the Twin River and Tiverton gaming facilities to maintain an

annual balance sheet, profit and loss statement, and any other necessary information or reports;

     (ii) The authority and power to conduct periodic compliance or special or focused audits

of the information or reports provided, as well as the premises within the facilities containing

records of sports wagering or in which the sports-wagering activities are conducted; and

     (4) Monitor the sports-wagering operations hosted by the Twin River and Tiverton

gaming facilities and have the power to terminate or suspend any sports-wagering activities in the

event of an integrity concern or other threat to the public trust, and in furtherance thereof, require

Twin River and Tiverton, respectively, to provide a specified area or areas from which to conduct

such monitoring activities;

     (5) Through the use of a sports-wagering vendor, define and limit the rules of play and

odds of authorized sports-wagering games, including, without limitation, the minimum and

maximum wagers for each sports-wagering game. Sports-wagering payoffs shall not be subject to

any limitation or restriction related to sports-wagering revenue or lottery revenue.

     (6) Establish compulsive gambling treatment programs;

     (7) Promulgate, or propose for promulgation, any legislative, interpretive, and procedural

rules necessary for the successful implementation, administration, and enforcement of this

chapter; and

     (8) Hold all other powers necessary and proper to fully effectively execute and administer

the provisions of this chapter for the purpose of allowing the state to operate sports wagering

hosted by the Twin River and Tiverton gaming facilities.

     (b) The state, through the division and/or the DBR, shall have approval rights over

matters relating to the employment of individuals to be involved, directly or indirectly, with the

operation of sports wagering at the Twin River and Tiverton gaming facilities.;

     (c) Nothing in this chapter 42-61.2 or elsewhere in the general laws shall be construed to

create a separate license governing the hosting of sports wagering in Rhode Island by licensed

video-lottery and table-game retailers.

     (d) The state, through the division, shall have authority to issue such regulations as it

deems appropriate pertaining to the control, operation, and management of sports wagering. The

state, through DBR, shall have authority to issue such regulations as it deems appropriate

pertaining to the employment of individuals to be involved, directly or indirectly, with the

operations of sports wagering as set forth in subsection (b) of this section.

     (e) Any list or other identifiable data of sports-wagering players generated or maintained

by the sports-wagering vendor or the hosting facility as a result of sports wagering shall be the

exclusive property of the division, provided that the hosting facilities shall be permitted to use

any such list or other identifiable data for marketing purposes to the extent it currently uses

similar data, and, as approved by the division and for other marketing purposes to directly or

indirectly generate additional gaming revenue, as approved by the division.


 

375)

Section

Add and Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-61.2-3.3

47 (Add) and 70 (Amend)

 

 

42-61.2-3.3. Sports wagering regulation.

     (a) In addition to the powers and duties of the division director under �� 42-61-4, 42-

61.2-3, 42-61.2-4 and 42-61.2-3.1, and pursuant to � 42-61.2-2.4, the division director shall

promulgate rules and regulations relating to sports wagering and set policy therefor. These rules

and regulations shall establish standards and procedures for sports waging wagering and

associated devices, equipment, and accessories, and shall include, but not be limited to:

     (1) Approve standards, rules, and regulations to govern the conduct of sports wagering

and the system of wagering associated with sports wagering, including without limitation:

     (i) The objects of the sports wagering (i.e., the sporting events upon which sports-

wagering bets may be accepted) and methods of play, including what constitutes win, loss, or tie

bets;

     (ii) The manner in which sports-wagering bets are received, payoffs are remitted, and

point spreads, lines, and odds are determined for each type of available sports wagering bet;

     (iii) Physical characteristics of any devices, equipment, and accessories related to sports

wagering;

     (iv) The applicable inspection procedures for any devices, equipment, and accessories

related to sports wagering;

     (v) Procedures for the collection of bets and payoffs, including but not limited to,

requirements for internal revenue service purposes;

     (vi) Procedures for handling suspected cheating and sports-wagering irregularities; and

     (vii) Procedures for handling any defective or malfunctioning devices, equipment, and

accessories related to sports wagering.

     (2) Establishing the method for calculating sports-wagering revenue and standards for the

daily counting and recording of cash and cash equivalents received in the conduct of sports

wagering, and ensuring that internal controls are followed and financial books and records are

maintained and audits are conducted;

     (3) Establishing the number and type of sports-wagering bets authorized at the hosting

facility, including any new sports-wagering bets or variations or composites of approved sports-

wagering bets, and all rules related thereto;

     (4) Establishing any sports-wagering rule changes, sports-wagering minimum and

maximum bet changes, and changes to the types of sports-wagering products offered at a

particular hosting facility, including but not limited to, any new sports-wagering bets or variations

or composites of approved sports-wagering bets, and including all rules related thereto;

     (5) Requiring the hosting facility and/or sports-wagering vendor to:

     (i) Provide written information at each sports-wagering location within the hosting

facility about wagering rules, payoffs on winning sports wagers, and other information as the

division may require.;

     (ii) Provide specifications approved by the division to integrate and update the hosting

facility�s surveillance system to cover all areas within the hosting facility where sports wagering

is conducted and other areas as required by the division. The specifications shall include

provisions providing the division and other persons authorized by the division with onsite access

to the system.;

     (iii) Designate one or more locations within the hosting facility where sports-wagering

bets are received.;

     (iv) Ensure that visibility in a hosting facility is not obstructed in any way that could

interfere with the ability of the division, the sports wagering vendor hosting facility, or other

persons authorized under this section or by the division to oversee the surveillance of the conduct

of sports wagering.;

     (v) Ensure that the count rooms for sports wagering has have appropriate security for the

counting and storage of cash.;

     (vi) Ensure that drop boxes are brought into or removed from an area where sports

wagering is conducted or locked or unlocked in accordance with procedures established by the

division.;

     (vii) Designate secure locations for the inspection, service, repair, or storage of sports-

wagering equipment and for employee training and instruction to be approved by the division.;

     (vii)(viii) Establish standards prohibiting persons under eighteen (18) years of age from

participating in sports wagering.;

     (ix) Establish compulsive and problem gambling standards and/or programs pertaining to

sports wagering consistent with general laws chapter 42-61. 2 this chapter.

     (6) Establishing the minimal proficiency requirements for those individuals accepting

sports wagers and administering payoffs on winning sports wagers. The foregoing requirements

of this subsection may be in addition to any rules or regulations of the DBR requiring licensing of

personnel of state-operated gaming facilities;

     (7) Establish appropriate eligibility requirements and standards for traditional sports-

wagering equipment suppliers; and

     (8) Any other matters necessary for conducting sports wagering.

     (b) The hosting facility shall provide secure, segregated facilities as required by the

division on the premises for the exclusive use of the division staff and the gaming enforcement

unit of the state police. Such The space shall be located proximate to the gaming floor and shall

include surveillance equipment, monitors with full camera control capability, as well as other

office equipment that may be deemed necessary by the division. The location and size of the

space and necessary equipment shall be subject to the approval of the division.


 

376)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-64.2-4

231 and 258

 

 

42-64.2-4. General powers.

     Except to the extent inconsistent with any specific provision of this chapter, the Rhode

Island public rail corporation shall have power:

     (1) To sue and be sued, complain and defend, in its corporate name;

     (2) To have a seal, which may be altered at pleasure, and to use the seal by causing it, or

a facsimile thereof, to be impressed or affixed or in any other manner reproduced;

     (3) To purchase, take, receive, lease, or otherwise acquire, own, hold, improve, use, and

otherwise deal in and with, real or personal property, or any interest therein, wherever situated;

     (4) To re-convey, lease, or sell real property acquired. Upon the sale of any real property

or interest therein which that is held by the corporation, the proceeds from the sale shall be

transferred to the general fund of the state.

     (5) To make contracts and guarantees and incur liabilities, and borrow money at any rates

of interest that the corporation may determine;

     (6) To make and execute agreements of lease, conditional sales contracts, installment

sales contracts, loan agreements, mortgages, construction contracts, operation contracts, and other

contracts and instruments necessary or convenient in the exercise of the powers and functions of

the corporation granted by this chapter;

     (7) To lend money for its purposes, invest and reinvest its funds, and at its option to take

and hold real and personal property as security for the payment of funds so loaned or invested;

     (8) To acquire, or contract to acquire, from any person, firm, corporation, municipality,

the federal government or the state, or any agency of either the federal government or state, by

grant, purchase, lease, gift, condemnation or otherwise, or to obtain options for the acquisition of

any property, real or personal, improved or unimproved, and interests in land less than the fee

thereof; and to own, hold, improve, develop, and rehabilitate, and to sell, assign, exchange,

transfer, convey, lease, mortgage, or otherwise dispose or encumber the property for the purposes

of carrying out the provisions and intent of this chapter, for any consideration the corporation

shall determine;

     (9) To conduct its activities, carry on its operations, and have offices, and exercise the

powers granted by this chapter, within or without the state;

     (10) To elect or appoint officers and agents of the corporation, and define their duties and

fix their compensation;

     (11) To make and alter by-laws bylaws, not inconsistent with this chapter, for the

administration and regulation of the affairs of the corporation; those by-laws bylaws may contain

provisions indemnifying any person who is or was a director, officer, employee, or agent of the

corporation, or is or was serving at the request of the corporation as a director, officer, employee,

or agent of another corporation, partnership, joint venture, trust, or other enterprise, in the manner

and to the extent provided in � 7-1.2-814;

     (12) To be a promoter, partner, member, associate, or manager of any partnership,

enterprise, or venture; and

     (13) To have and exercise all powers necessary or convenient to effect its purposes.;

     (14) To defend, indemnify and save harmless the National Railroad Passenger

Corporation ("Amtrak") and third parties for all damage or liability for personal injury or property

damages which that would not have occurred or would not have been incurred but for the

existence of commuter rail service south of Providence in Rhode Island or the presence on

Amtrak's properties of any trains, passengers, employees, contractors, or invitees of the state or

its designated operator.; and

     (15) To defend, indemnify and save harmless its designated operator for all damage or

liability for personal injury or property damages which that would not have occurred or would

not have been incurred but for the existence of commuter rail service south of Providence in

Rhode Island or the designated operator's activities pursuant to the terms and conditions set forth

in the designated operator's agreement for commuter rail service south of Providence in Rhode

Island.


 

377)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-64.2-5

231 and 258

 

 

42-64.2-5. Additional general powers.

     In addition to the powers enumerated in � 42-64.2-4, except to the extent inconsistent

with any specific provisions of this chapter, the Rhode Island public rail corporation shall have

the power to:

     (1) Receive from the state title to certain real estate situated in Providence, Rhode Island,

more specifically described as: all of the right, title and interest, to the railroad right of way

known as the Bristol Secondary, identified as Line Code 4165 in the records of the United States

railway association and situated in the city of Providence and city of East Providence, county of

Providence and state of Rhode Island, as extends in a general eastwardly direction from the

westerly side of Canal Street in the city of Providence and to the Harbor Line of the Seekonk

River in the city of East Providence on the East; the railroad right of way is set out and designed

by -- PS -- on case plan no. 66190, together with all the real property in the cities lying in, under,

above, along, and immediately contiguous to those lines as herein designated.

     Being a part or portion of that same premises which that Robert W. Blanchett, Richard

C. Bond and John H. McArthur, as trustees of the property of Penn Central transportation

company, debtor, by conveyance document no. PC-CRC-RP-223, dated March 30, 1976 and

recorded in East Providence, Rhode Island on October 18, 1978 in book 372, page 244 etc., and

conveyance document no. PC-CRC-RP-227, recorded in the city of Providence, Rhode Island on

October 18, 1978 in book 1208, page 752 etc., granted and conveyed into the consolidated rail

corporation.

     (2) To acquire property and railroad operating rights from the Providence and Worcester

railroad including that property and those rights relating to the railroad lines known as:

     (i) Washington secondary branch;

     (ii) Warwick industrial track;

     (iii) Wrentham industrial track;

     (iv) Pontiac secondary branch;

     (v) Moshassuck Valley industrial track;

     (vi) East Providence secondary branch.

     (3) To transfer property rights and railroad operator's rights as it deems proper to achieve

the purposes of this chapter to the state.

     (4) Upon notification to the director of the department of transportation, to defend,

indemnify, and save harmless the national railroad passenger corporation National Railroad

Passenger Corporation (Amtrak) and third-parties to the extent that Amtrak is required to

defend and indemnify third-parties, for all claims, damages, losses, liabilities, and expenses for

personal injury, bodily injury, death, or property damage (including, but not limited to,

environmental conditions and pre-existing environmental conditions) and interference with the

use of Amtrak's property which that would not have occurred, would not have been discovered,

or would not have been incurred but for the existence of any platform, structure, building, road, or

bridge, or appurtenance to any of the foregoing thereto, located or to be located on, above, under,

or within the boundary of any property owned or controlled by Amtrak, or within the boundary of

any railroad safety envelope established pursuant to a federal program of safety regulations, and

owned or used by the State of Rhode Island or any municipality, public corporation, or

instrumentality of the State of Rhode Island, or but for the activities of any employee, agent,

contractor, subcontractor, or invitee of the state or any municipality, public corporation, or

instrumentality of the state relating to any platform, structure, building, road, or bridge, or

appurtenance to any of the foregoing, thereto located or to be located on, above, under or within

the boundary of any property owned or controlled by Amtrak, or within the boundary of any

railroad safety envelope established pursuant to a federal program or safety regulations. The

indemnity authorized by this section shall extend to any existing agreements between the State of

Rhode Island and Amtrak without any further act.


 

 

378)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-64.14-5

221 and 256

 

 

42-64.14-5. The I-195 redevelopment district created.

     (a) The I-195 redevelopment district is hereby constituted as an independent public

instrumentality and body corporate and politic for the purposes set forth in this chapter with a

separate legal existence from the city of Providence and from the state and the exercise by the

commission of the powers conferred by this chapter shall be deemed and held to be the

performance of an essential public function. The boundaries of the district are established in  37-

5-8. However, parcels P2 and P4, as delineated on that certain plan of land captioned

"Improvements to Interstate Route 195, Providence, Rhode Island, Proposed Development Parcel

Plans 1 through 10, Scale: 1" =20', May 2010, Bryant Associates, Inc., Engineers-Surveyors-

Construction Managers, Lincoln, RI, Maguire Group, Inc., Architects/Engineers/Planners,

Providence, RI," shall be developed and continued to be used as parks or park supporting activity;

provided, however, the commission may, from time to time, pursuant to action taken at a meeting

of the commission in public session, adjust the boundaries of parcel P4 provided that at all times

parcel P4 shall contain no fewer than one hundred eighty-six thousand one hundred eighty-six

square feet (186,186 ft2) of land and provided, further, that the city of Providence shall not be

responsible for the upkeep of the parks unless a memorandum of understanding is entered into

between the commission or the state and the city of Providence that grants full funding to the city

for that purpose.

     (b) The I-195 redevelopment district commission established in this chapter shall oversee,

plan, implement, and administer the development of the areas within the district consistent with

and subject to the city of Providence comprehensive plan adopted by the city pursuant to  45-22-

2.1 et seq. and the city of Providence zoning ordinances pursuant to  45-24-27 et seq. as

previously enacted by the city of Providence, and as may be enacted and/or amended from time to

time through July 1, 2012, or enacted and/or amended thereafter with the consent of the

commission.

     (c) The city of Providence shall not be required to install or pay for the initial installation

of any public or private utility infrastructure within the district.

     (d) It is the intent of the general assembly by the passage of this chapter to vest in the

commission all powers, authority, rights, privileges, and titles which that may be necessary to

enable it to accomplish the purposes herein set forth, and this chapter and the powers granted

hereby shall be liberally construed in conformity with those purposes.


 

379)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

42-66-4

159 and 208

 

 

42-66-4. Duties of the division.

     (a) The department division shall be the principal agency of the state to mobilize the

human, physical, and financial resources available to plan, develop, and implement innovative

programs to insure ensure the dignity and independence of elderly persons, including the

planning, development, and implementation of a home and long-term-care program for the

elderly in the communities of the state.

     (b) (1) The department division shall serve as an advocate for the needs of the adult with

a disability as these needs and services overlap the needs and services of elderly persons.

     (2) The department division shall serve as the state's central agency for the administration

and coordination of a long-term-care entry system, using community-based access points, that

will provide the following services related to long-term care: information and referral,; initial

screening for service and benefits eligibility,; and a uniform assessment program for state-

supported long-term care.

     (3) The department division shall investigate reports of elder abuse, neglect, exploitation,

or self-neglect and shall provide and/or coordinate protective services.

     (c) To accomplish these objectives, the director is authorized:

     (1) To provide assistance to communities in solving local problems with regard to elderly

persons including, but not limited to, problems in identifying and coordinating local resources to

serve the needs of elderly persons;

     (2) To facilitate communications and the free flow of information between communities

and the offices, agencies, and employees of the state;

     (3) To encourage and assist communities, agencies, and state departments to plan,

develop, and implement home- and long-term care programs;

     (4) To provide and act as a clearinghouse for information, data, and other materials

relative to elderly persons;

     (5) To initiate and carry out studies and analyses which that will aid in solving local,

regional, and statewide problems concerning elderly persons;

     (6) To coordinate those programs of other state agencies designed to assist in the solution

of local, regional, and statewide problems concerning elderly persons;

     (7) To advise and inform the governor on the affairs and problems of elderly persons in

the state;

     (8) To exercise the powers and discharge the duties assigned to the director in the fields

of health care, nutrition, homemaker services, geriatric day care, economic opportunity, local and

regional planning, transportation, and education and pre-retirement programs;

     (9) To further the cooperation of local, state, federal, and private agencies and institutions

providing for services or having responsibility for elderly persons;

     (10) To represent and act on behalf of the state in connection with federal grant programs

applicable to programs for elderly persons in the functional areas described in this chapter;

     (11) To seek, accept, and otherwise take advantage of all federal aid available to the

department division, and to assist other agencies of the state, local agencies, and community

groups in taking advantage of all federal grants and subventions available for elderly persons and

to accept other sources of funds with the approval of the director of administration which that

shall be deposited as general revenues;

     (12) To render advice and assistance to communities and other groups in the preparation

and submission of grant applications to state and federal agencies relative to programs for elderly

persons;

     (13) To review and coordinate those activities of agencies of the state and of any political

subdivision of the state at the request of the subdivision, which that affect the full and fair

utilization of community resources for programs for elderly persons, and initiate programs that

will help assure ensure such utilization;

     (14) To encourage the formation of councils on aging and to assist local communities in

the development of the councils;

     (15) To promote, and coordinate day-care facilities for the frail elderly who are in need of

supportive care and supervision during the daytime;

     (16) To provide and coordinate the delivery of in-home services to the elderly, as defined

under the rules and regulations adopted by the department division of elderly affairs;

     (17) To advise and inform the public of the risks of accidental hypothermia;

     (18) To establish a clearinghouse for information and education of the elderly citizens of

the state, including, but not limited to, a web-based caregiver support information center;

     (19) To establish and operate, in collaboration with community and aging service

agencies, a statewide family-caregiver resource network to provide and coordinate family-

caregiver training and support services to include counseling and elder caregiver respite services,

which shall be subject to available funding, and include home health/homemaker care, adult day

services, assisted living, and nursing facility care;

     (20) To supervise the citizens' commission for the safety and care of the elderly created

pursuant to the provisions of chapter 1.4 of title 12.

     (d) In order to assist in the discharge of the duties of the department division, the director

may request from any agency of the state information pertinent to the affairs and problems of

elderly persons.


������������������

380)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-157-5.1

124 and 194

 

 

42-157-5.1. Small business health options program (SHOP) innovation waiver.

     (a) As small business owners and sole proprietors are the life blood of this state's

economy, a recent change in the Federal Affordable Care Act effective on January 1, 2016, has

caused irreparable harm to the economic well-being of small business owners and sole proprietors

by requiring them to secure health insurance coverage on the individual market as opposed to

securing health insurance coverage on the small group market.

     (b) In an effort to reduce and/or eliminate the irreparable economic harm, the director of

the department of administration, with assistance from the commissioner of health insurance,

shall seek a waiver under Section 1332 of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, Pub. L.

No. 111-148, as amended by the Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010, Pub. L.

No. 111-152, for the purpose of allowing businesses classified as self-employed and sole

proprietors to purchase insurance in the small group market through the Health Source health

source RI for Employers employers SHOP program and not be forced into the individual market.


 

381)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-157.1

220 and 228

 

 

CHAPTER 157.1

RHODE ISLAND MARKET STABILITY AND REINSURANCE ACT


 

 

382)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-157.1-1

220 and 228

 

 

42-157.1-1. Short title and purpose.

     (a) This chapter shall be known and may be cited as the "Rhode Island Market Stability

and Reinsurance Act."

     (b) The purpose of this chapter is to authorize the director to create the Rhode Island

reinsurance program to stabilize health insurance rates and premiums in the individual market and

provide greater financial certainty to consumers of health insurance in this state.

     (c) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as obligating the state to appropriate funds

or make payments to carriers.


 

383)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-157.1-2

220 and 228

 

 

42-157.1-2. Definitions.

     As used in this chapter:

     (1) "Director" means the director of the Rhode Island health benefits exchange.

     (2) "Exchange" means the Rhode Island health benefits exchange established within the

department of administration by � 42-157-1.

     (3) "Health insurance carrier" or "carrier" has the same meaning as it does in � 27-18.5-2.

     (4) "Health insurance coverage" has the same meaning as it does in � 27-18.5-2.

     (5) "Individual market" has the same meaning as it does in �27-18.5-2.

     (6) "Office of the health insurance commissioner" means the entity established by � 42-

14.5-1 within the department of business regulation.

     (7) "Program" means the Rhode Island reinsurance program established by � 42-157.1-3.

     (8) "Program fund" or "fund" means the fund established by � 42-157.1-5.

     (9) "State" means the state of Rhode Island.


 ������������������������������

384)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-157.1-3

220 and 228

 

 

42-157.1-3. Establishment of the Rhode Island reinsurance program.

     (a) The director is authorized to establish and implement a state-based reinsurance

program, to be known as the Rhode Island reinsurance program:

     (1) To provide reinsurance to carriers that offer health insurance coverage on the

individual market in the state;

     (2) That meets the requirements of a waiver approved under 42 U.S.C. � 18052; and

     (3) That is consistent with state and federal law.

     (b) The program is intended to mitigate the impact of high-risk individuals on health

insurance rates offered in the individual insurance market on and off of the exchange.

     (c) The director is authorized to establish reinsurance payment parameters for calendar

year 2020 and each subsequent calendar year that include:

     (1) An attachment point;

     (2) A coinsurance rate; and

     (3) A coinsurance cap.

     (d) Carriers must provide the exchange and the office of the health insurance

commissioner with data the director prescribes by rules and regulations as necessary to determine

reinsurance payments in a time and manner determined by the director.

     (e) The director may alter the parameters established in accordance with �� 42-157.1-3(c)

and 42-157.1-3 (d) subsections (c) and (d) of this section as necessary to secure federal approval

for a waiver submitted in accordance with � 42-157.1-6.


 

385)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-157.1-4

220 and 278

 

 

42-157.1-4. Powers of the director.

     (a) The director may:

     (1) Contract with the federal government or another unit of government to ensure

coordination of the program;

     (2) Apply for any available federal funding for the program;

     (3) Undertake, directly or through contracts with other persons or entities, studies or

demonstration programs to develop awareness of the benefits of this chapter; and

     (4) Formulate general policy and adopt rules and regulations that are reasonably

necessary to administer this chapter, including regulations establishing a reinsurance program to

mitigate the impact of high-risk individuals on health insurance rates.


 

386)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-157.1-5

220 and 278

 

 

42-157.1-5. Establishment of program fund.

     (a) A fund shall be established to provide funding for the operation and administration of

the program in carrying out the purposes of the program under this chapter.

     (b) The director is authorized to administer the fund.

     (c) The fund shall consist of:

     (1) Any pass-through funds received from the federal government under a waiver

approved under 42 U.S.C. � 18052;

     (2) Any funds designated by the federal government to provide reinsurance to carriers

that offer individual health benefit plans in the state;

     (3) Any funds designated by the state to provide reinsurance to carriers that offer

individual health benefit plans in the state; and

     (4) Any other money from any other source accepted for the benefit of the fund.

     (d) Nothing in this chapter shall be construed as obligating the state to appropriate funds

or make payments to carriers.


 

 

 

 

 

387)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-157.1-6

220 and 278

 

 

42-157.1-6. State innovation waiver.

     In accordance with � 42-157-5, the director may apply to the United States Secretary of

Health and Human Services under 42 U.S.C. � 18052, for a state innovation waiver to implement

the program and seek federal pass-through funding for calendar years beginning January 1, 2020,

and future years, to maximize federal funding.


 

 

388)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

42-157.1-7

220 and 278

 

 

42-157.1-7. Program contingent on federal waiver and appropriation of state

funding.

     If the state innovation waiver request in � 42-157.1-6 is not approved, the director shall

not implement the program or provide reinsurance payments to eligible carriers.


 

389)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-3

300, 307,308,311,325,330,332, and 335

 

 

44-3-3. Property exempt.

     (a) The following property is exempt from taxation:

     (1) Property belonging to the state, except as provided in � 44-4-4.1;

     (2) Lands ceded or belonging to the United States;

     (3) Bonds and other securities issued and exempted from taxation by the government of

the United States or of this state;

     (4) Real estate, used exclusively for military purposes, owned by chartered or

incorporated organizations approved by the adjutant general and composed of members of the

national guard, the naval militia, or the independent, chartered-military organizations;

     (5) Buildings for free public schools, buildings for religious worship, and the land upon

which they stand and immediately surrounding them, to an extent not exceeding five (5) acres so

far as the buildings and land are occupied and used exclusively for religious or educational

purposes;

     (6) Dwellings houses and the land on which they stand, not exceeding one acre in size, or

the minimum lot size for zone in which the dwelling house is located, whichever is the greater,

owned by, or held in trust for, any religious organization and actually used by its officiating

clergy; provided, further, that in the town of Charlestown, where the property previously

described in this paragraph is exempt in total, along with dwelling houses and the land on which

they stand in Charlestown, not exceeding one acre in size, or the minimum lot size for zone in

which the dwelling house is located, whichever is the greater, owned by, or held in trust for, any

religious organization and actually used by its officiating clergy, or used as a convent, nunnery, or

retreat center by its religious order;

     (7) Intangible personal property owned by, or held in trust for, any religious or charitable

organization, if the principal or income is used or appropriated for religious or charitable

purposes;

     (8) Buildings and personal estate owned by any corporation used for a school, academy,

or seminary of learning, and of any incorporated public charitable institution, and the land upon

which the buildings stand and immediately surrounding them to an extent not exceeding one acre,

so far as they are used exclusively for educational purposes, but no property or estate whatever is

hereafter exempt from taxation in any case where any part of its income or profits, or of the

business carried on there, is divided among its owners or stockholders; provided, however, that

unless any private nonprofit corporation organized as a college or university located in the town

of Smithfield reaches a memorandum of agreement with the town of Smithfield, the town of

Smithfield shall bill the actual costs for police, fire, and rescue services supplied, unless

otherwise reimbursed, to said corporation commencing March 1, 2014;

     (9) Estates, persons, and families of the president and professors for the time being of

Brown University for not more than ten thousand dollars ($10,000) for each officer, the officer's

estate, person, and family included, but only to the extent that any person had claimed and

utilized the exemption prior to, and for a period ending, either on or after December 31, 1996;

     (10) Property especially exempt by charter unless the exemption has been waived in

whole or in part;

     (11) Lots of land exclusively for burial grounds;

     (12) Property, real and personal, held for, or by, an incorporated library, society, or any

free public library, or any free public library society, so far as the property is held exclusively for

library purposes, or for the aid or support of the aged poor, or poor friendless children, or the poor

generally, or for a nonprofit hospital for the sick or disabled;

     (13) Real or personal estate belonging to, or held in trust for, the benefit of incorporated

organizations of veterans of any war in which the United States has been engaged, the parent

body of which has been incorporated by act of Congress, to the extent of four hundred thousand

dollars ($400,000) if actually used and occupied by the association; provided, that the city council

of the city of Cranston may by ordinance exempt the real or personal estate as previously

described in this subdivision located within the city of Cranston to the extent of five hundred

thousand dollars ($500,000);

     (14) Property, real and personal, held for, or by, the fraternal corporation, association, or

body created to build and maintain a building or buildings for its meetings or the meetings of the

general assembly of its members, or subordinate bodies of the fraternity, and for the

accommodation of other fraternal bodies or associations, the entire net income of which real and

personal property is exclusively applied or to be used to build, furnish, and maintain an asylum or

asylums, a home or homes, a school or schools, for the free education or relief of the members of

the fraternity, or the relief, support, and care of worthy and indigent members of the fraternity,

their wives, widows, or orphans, and any fund given or held for the purpose of public education,

almshouses, and the land and buildings used in connection therewith;

     (15) Real estate and personal property of any incorporated volunteer fire engine company

or incorporated volunteer ambulance or rescue corps in active service;

     (16) The estate of any person who, in the judgment of the assessors, is unable from

infirmity or poverty to pay the tax; provided, that in the town towns of Burrillville and West

Greenwich, the tax shall constitute a lien for five (5) years on the property where the owner is

entitled to the exemption. At the expiration of five (5) years, the lien shall be abated in full.

Provided, if the property is sold or conveyed, or if debt secured by the property is refinanced

during the five-year (5) period, the lien immediately becomes due and payable; any person

claiming the exemption aggrieved by an adverse decision of an assessor shall appeal the decision

to the local board of tax review and thereafter according to the provisions of � 44-5-26;

     (17) Household furniture and family stores of a housekeeper in the whole, including

clothing, bedding, and other white goods, books, and all other tangible personal property items

that are common to the normal household;

     (18) Improvements made to any real property to provide a shelter and fallout protection

from nuclear radiation, to the amount of one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500); provided,

that the improvements meet applicable standards for shelter construction established, from time to

time, by the Rhode Island emergency management agency. The improvements are deemed to

comply with the provisions of any building code or ordinance with respect to the materials or the

methods of construction used and any shelter or its establishment is deemed to comply with the

provisions of any zoning code or ordinance;

     (19) Aircraft for which the fee required by � 1-4-6 has been paid to the tax administrator;

     (20) Manufacturer's inventory.

     (i) For the purposes of �� 44-4-10, 44-5-3, 44-5-20, and 44-5-38, a person is deemed to

be a manufacturer within a city or town within this state if that person uses any premises, room,

or place in it primarily for the purpose of transforming raw materials into a finished product for

trade through any or all of the following operations: adapting, altering, finishing, making, and

ornamenting; provided, that public utilities; non-regulated power producers commencing

commercial operation by selling electricity at retail or taking title to generating facilities on or

after July 1, 1997; building and construction contractors; warehousing operations, including

distribution bases or outlets of out-of-state manufacturers; and fabricating processes incidental to

warehousing or distribution of raw materials, such as alteration of stock for the convenience of a

customer; are excluded from this definition;

     (ii) For the purposes of this section and �� 44-4-10 and 44-5-38, the term "manufacturer's

inventory", or any similar term, means and includes the manufacturer's raw materials, the

manufacturer's work in process, and finished products manufactured by the manufacturer in this

state, and not sold, leased, or traded by the manufacturer or its title or right to possession

divested; provided, that the term does not include any finished products held by the manufacturer

in any retail store or other similar selling place operated by the manufacturer whether or not the

retail establishment is located in the same building in which the manufacturer operates the

manufacturing plant;

     (iii) For the purpose of � 44-11-2, a "manufacturer" is a person whose principal business

in this state consists of transforming raw materials into a finished product for trade through any or

all of the operations described in paragraph (i) of this subdivision. A person will be deemed to be

principally engaged if the gross receipts that person derived from the manufacturing operations in

this state during the calendar year or fiscal year mentioned in � 44-11-1 amounted to more than

fifty percent (50%) of the total gross receipts that person derived from all the business activities

in which that person engaged in this state during the taxable year. For the purpose of computing

the percentage, gross receipts derived by a manufacturer from the sale, lease, or rental of finished

products manufactured by the manufacturer in this state, even though the manufacturer's store or

other selling place may be at a different location from the location of the manufacturer's

manufacturing plant in this state, are deemed to have been derived from manufacturing;

     (iv) Within the meaning of the preceding paragraphs of this subdivision, the term

"manufacturer" also includes persons who are principally engaged in any of the general activities

coded and listed as establishments engaged in manufacturing in the Standard Industrial

Classification Manual prepared by the Technical Committee on Industrial Classification, Office

of Statistical Standards, Executive Office of the President, United States Bureau of the Budget, as

revised from time to time, but eliminating as manufacturers those persons, who, because of their

limited type of manufacturing activities, are classified in the manual as falling within the trade

rather than an industrial classification of manufacturers. Among those thus eliminated, and

accordingly also excluded as manufacturers within the meaning of this paragraph, are persons

primarily engaged in selling, to the general public, products produced on the premises from which

they are sold, such as neighborhood bakeries, candy stores, ice cream parlors, shade shops, and

custom tailors, except, that a person who manufactures bakery products for sale primarily for

home delivery, or through one or more non-baking retail outlets, and whether or not retail outlets

are operated by the person, is a manufacturer within the meaning of this paragraph;

     (v) The term "Person" means and includes, as appropriate, a person, partnership, or

corporation; and

     (vi) The department of revenue shall provide to the local assessors any assistance that is

necessary in determining the proper application of the definitions in this subdivision;

     (21) Real and tangible personal property acquired to provide a treatment facility used

primarily to control the pollution or contamination of the waters or the air of the state, as defined

in chapter 12 of title 46 and chapter 25 of title 23, respectively, the facility having been

constructed, reconstructed, erected, installed, or acquired in furtherance of federal or state

requirements or standards for the control of water or air pollution or contamination, and certified

as approved in an order entered by the director of environmental management. The property is

exempt as long as it is operated properly in compliance with the order of approval of the director

of environmental management; provided, that any grant of the exemption by the director of

environmental management in excess of ten (10) years is approved by the city or town in which

the property is situated. This provision applies only to water and air pollution control properties

and facilities installed for the treatment of waste waters and air contaminants resulting from

industrial processing; furthermore, it applies only to water or air pollution control properties and

facilities placed in operation for the first time after April 13, 1970;

     (22) New manufacturing machinery and equipment acquired or used by a manufacturer

and purchased after December 31, 1974. Manufacturing machinery and equipment is defined as:

     (i) Machinery and equipment used exclusively in the actual manufacture or conversion of

raw materials or goods in the process of manufacture by a manufacturer, as defined in subdivision

(20), and machinery, fixtures, and equipment used exclusively by a manufacturer for research and

development or for quality assurance of its manufactured products;

     (ii) Machinery and equipment that is partially used in the actual manufacture or

conversion of raw materials or goods in process of manufacture by a manufacturer, as defined in

subdivision (20), and machinery, fixtures, and equipment used by a manufacturer for research and

development or for quality assurance of its manufactured products, to the extent to which the

machinery and equipment is used for the manufacturing processes, research and development, or

quality assurance. In the instances where machinery and equipment is used in both manufacturing

and/or research and development and/or quality assurance activities and non-manufacturing

activities, the assessment on machinery and equipment is prorated by applying the percentage of

usage of the equipment for the manufacturing, research and development, and quality-assurance

activity to the value of the machinery and equipment for purposes of taxation, and the portion of

the value used for manufacturing, research and development, and quality assurance is exempt

from taxation. The burden of demonstrating this percentage usage of machinery and equipment

for manufacturing and for research and development and/or quality assurance of its manufactured

products rests with the manufacturer; and

     (iii) Machinery and equipment described in �� 44-18-30(7) and 44-18-30(22) that was

purchased after July 1, 1997; provided that the city or town council of the city or town in which

the machinery and equipment is located adopts an ordinance exempting the machinery and

equipment from taxation. For purposes of this subsection, city councils and town councils of any

municipality may, by ordinance, wholly or partially exempt from taxation the machinery and

equipment discussed in this subsection for the period of time established in the ordinance and

may, by ordinance, establish the procedures for taxpayers to avail themselves of the benefit of

any exemption permitted under this section; provided, that the ordinance does not apply to any

machinery or equipment of a business, subsidiary, or any affiliated business that locates or

relocates from a city or town in this state to another city or town in the state;

     (23) Precious metal bullion, meaning any elementary metal that has been put through a

process of melting or refining, and that is in a state or condition that its value depends upon its

content and not its form. The term does not include fabricated precious metal that has been

processed or manufactured for some one or more specific and customary industrial, professional,

or artistic uses;

     (24) Hydroelectric power-generation equipment, which includes, but is not limited to,

turbines, generators, switchgear, controls, monitoring equipment, circuit breakers, transformers,

protective relaying, bus bars, cables, connections, trash racks, headgates, and conduits. The

hydroelectric power-generation equipment must have been purchased after July 1, 1979, and

acquired or used by a person or corporation who or that owns or leases a dam and utilizes the

equipment to generate hydroelectric power;

     (25) Subject to authorization by formal action of the council of any city or town, any real

or personal property owned by, held in trust for, or leased to an organization incorporated under

chapter 6 of title 7, as amended, or an organization meeting the definition of "charitable trust" set

out in � 18-9-4, as amended, or an organization incorporated under the not-for-profits statutes of

another state or the District of Columbia, the purpose of which is the conserving of open space, as

that term is defined in chapter 36 of title 45, as amended, provided the property is used

exclusively for the purposes of the organization;

     (26) Tangible personal property, the primary function of which is the recycling, reuse, or

recovery of materials (other than precious metals, as defined in � 44-18-30(24)(ii) and (iii)), from,

or the treatment of "hazardous wastes", as defined in � 23-19.1-4, where the "hazardous wastes"

are generated primarily by the same taxpayer and where the personal property is located at, in, or

adjacent to a generating facility of the taxpayer. The taxpayer may, but need not, procure an order

from the director of the department of environmental management certifying that the tangible

personal property has this function, which order effects a conclusive presumption that the tangible

personal property qualifies for the exemption under this subdivision. If any information relating

to secret processes or methods of manufacture, production, or treatment is disclosed to the

department of environmental management only to procure an order, and is a "trade secret" as

defined in � 28-21-10(b), it shall not be open to public inspection or publicly disclosed unless

disclosure is otherwise required under chapter 21 of title 28 or chapter 24.4 of title 23;

     (27) Motorboats as defined in � 46-22-2 for which the annual fee required in � 46-22-4

has been paid;

     (28) Real and personal property of the Providence Performing Arts Center, a non-

business corporation as of December 31, 1986;

     (29) Tangible personal property owned by, and used exclusively for the purposes of, any

religious organization located in the city of Cranston;

     (30) Real and personal property of the Travelers Aid Society of Rhode Island, a nonprofit

corporation, the Union Mall Real Estate Corporation, and any limited partnership or limited

liability company that is formed in connection with, or to facilitate the acquisition of, the

Providence YMCA Building;

     (31) Real and personal property of Meeting Street Center or MSC Realty, Inc., both not-

for-profit Rhode Island corporations, and any other corporation, limited partnership, or limited

liability company that is formed in connection with, or to facilitate the acquisition of, the

properties designated as the Meeting Street National Center of Excellence on Eddy Street in

Providence, Rhode Island;

     (32) The buildings, personal property, and land upon which the buildings stand, located

on Pomham Island, East Providence, currently identified as Assessor's Map 211, Block 01, Parcel

001.00, that consists of approximately twenty-one thousand three hundred (21,300) square feet

and is located approximately eight hundred sixty feet (860'), more or less, from the shore, and

limited exclusively to these said buildings, personal estate and land, provided that said property is

owned by a qualified 501(c)(3) organization, such as the American Lighthouse Foundation, and is

used exclusively for a lighthouse;

     (33) The Stadium Theatre Performing Arts Centre building located in Monument Square,

Woonsocket, Rhode Island, so long as said Stadium Theatre Performing Arts Center is owned by

the Stadium Theatre Foundation, a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation;

     (34) Real and tangible personal property of St. Mary Academy -- Bay View, located in

East Providence, Rhode Island;

     (35) Real and personal property of East Bay Community Action Program and its

predecessor, Self Help, Inc; provided, that the organization is qualified as a tax-exempt

corporation under � 501(c)(3) of the United States Internal Revenue Code;

     (36) Real and personal property located within the city of East Providence of the

Columbus Club of East Providence, a Rhode Island charitable nonprofit corporation;

     (37) Real and personal property located within the city of East Providence of the

Columbus Club of Barrington, a Rhode Island charitable nonprofit corporation;

     (38) Real and personal property located within the city of East Providence of Lodge 2337

BPO Elks, a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation;

     (39) Real and personal property located within the city of East Providence of the St.

Andrews Lodge No. 39, a Rhode Island charitable nonprofit corporation;

     (40) Real and personal property located within the city of East Providence of the Trustees

of Methodist Health and Welfare service a/k/a United Methodist Elder Care, a Rhode Island

nonprofit corporation;

     (41) Real and personal property located on the first floor of 90 Leonard Avenue within

the city of East Providence of the Zion Gospel Temple, Inc., a religious nonprofit corporation;

     (42) Real and personal property located within the city of East Providence of the Cape

Verdean Museum Exhibit, a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation;

     (43) The real and personal property owned by a qualified 501(c)(3) organization that is

affiliated and in good standing with a national, congressionally chartered organization and

thereby adheres to that organization's standards and provides activities designed for recreational,

educational, and character building purposes for children from ages six (6) years to seventeen

(17) years;

     (44) Real and personal property of the Rhode Island Philharmonic Orchestra and Music

School; provided, that the organization is qualified as a tax-exempt corporation under � 501(c)(3)

of the United States Internal Revenue Code;

     (45) The real and personal property located within the town of West Warwick at 211

Cowesett Avenue, Plat 29-Lot 25, which consists of approximately twenty-eight thousand seven

hundred fifty (28,750) square feet and is owned by the Station Fire Memorial Foundation of East

Greenwich, a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation;

     (46) Real and personal property of the Comprehensive Community Action Program, a

qualified tax-exempt corporation under � 501(c)(3) of the United States Internal Revenue Code;

     (47) Real and personal property located at 52 Plain Street, within the city of Pawtucket of

the Pawtucket Youth Soccer Association, a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation;

     (48) Renewable energy resources, as defined in � 39-26-5, used in residential systems

and associated equipment used therewith in service after December 31, 2015;

     (49) Renewable energy resources, as defined in � 39-26-5, if employed by a

manufacturer, as defined in subsection (a) of this section, shall be exempt from taxation in

accordance with subsection (a) of this section;

     (50) Real and personal property located at 415 Tower Hill Road within the town of North

Kingstown, of South County Community Action, Inc., a qualified tax-exempt corporation under �

501(c)(3) of the United States Internal Revenue Code;

     (51) As an effort to promote business growth, tangible business or personal property, in

whole or in part, within the town of Charlestown's community limits, subject to authorization by

formal action of the town council of the town of Charlestown;

     (52) All real and personal property located at 1300 Frenchtown Road, within the town of

East Greenwich, identified as assessor's map 027, plat 019, lot 071, and known as the New

England Wireless and Steam Museum, Inc., a qualified tax-exempt corporation under � 501(c)(3)

of the United States Internal Revenue Code;

     (53) Real and tangible personal property of Mount Saint Charles Academy located within

the city of Woonsocket, specifically identified as the following assessor's plats and lots: Logee

Street, plat 23, lot 62, Logee Street, plat 24, lots 304 and 305; Welles Street, plat 23, lot 310;

Monroe Street, plat 23, lot 312; and Roberge Avenue, plat 24, lot 47;

     (54) Real and tangible personal property of Steere House, a Rhode Island nonprofit

corporation, located in Providence, Rhode Island;

     (55) Real and personal property located within the town of West Warwick of Tides

Family Services, Inc., a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation;

     (56) Real and personal property of Tides Family Services, Inc., a Rhode Island nonprofit

corporation, located in the city of Pawtucket at 242 Dexter Street, plat 44, lot 444;

     (57) Real and personal property located within the town of Middletown of Lucy's Hearth,

a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation;

     (58) Real and tangible personal property of Habitat for Humanity of Rhode Island--

Greater Providence, Inc., a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation, located in Providence, Rhode

Island;

     (59) Real and personal property of the Artic Playhouse, a Rhode Island nonprofit

corporation, located in the town of West Warwick at 1249 Main Street;

     (60) Real and personal property located at 321 Main Street, within the town of South

Kingstown, of the Contemporary Theatre Company, a qualified, tax-exempt corporation under �

501(c)(3) of the United States Internal Revenue Code; and

     (61) Real and personal property of The Samaritans, Inc., a Rhode Island nonprofit �

501(c)(3) corporation located at 67 Park Place, Pawtucket, Rhode Island, to the extent the city

council of Pawtucket may from time to time determine.

 ���� (62) Real and personal property located within the city of East Providence of Foster

Forward (formerly the Rhode Island Foster Parents Association), a Rhode Island charitable

nonprofit corporation;

 ���� (63) Real and personal property located at 54 Kelly Avenue within the town of East

Providence, of the Associated Radio Amateurs of Southern New England, a Rhode Island

nonprofit corporation.

  �  (64) Real and personal property of North Kingstown, Exeter Animal Protection League,

Inc., dba "Pet Refuge," 500 Stony Lane, a Rhode Island nonprofit corporation, located in North

Kingstown, Rhode Island.

     (b) Except as provided below, when a city or town taxes a for-profit hospital facility, the

value of its real property shall be the value determined by the most recent full revaluation or

statistical property update performed by the city or town; provided, however, in the year a

nonprofit hospital facility converts to or otherwise becomes a for-profit hospital facility, or a for-

profit hospital facility is initially established, the value of the real property and personal property

of the for-profit hospital facility shall be determined by a valuation performed by the assessor for

the purpose of determining an initial assessed value of real and personal property, not previously

taxed by the city or town, as of the most recent date of assessment pursuant to � 44-5-1, subject to

a right of appeal by the for-profit hospital facility which shall be made to the city or town tax

assessor with a direct appeal from an adverse decision to the Rhode Island superior court business

calendar.

     A "for-profit hospital facility" includes all real and personal property affiliated with any

hospital as identified in an application filed pursuant to chapter 17 or 17.14 of title 23.

Notwithstanding the above, a city or town may enter into a stabilization agreement with a for-

profit hospital facility under � 44-3-9 or other laws specific to the particular city or town relating

to stabilization agreements. In a year in which a nonprofit hospital facility converts to, or

otherwise becomes, a for-profit hospital facility, or a for-profit hospital facility is otherwise

established, in that year only the amount levied by the city or town and/or the amount payable

under the stabilization agreement for that year related to the for-profit hospital facility shall not be

counted towards determining the maximum tax levy permitted under � 44-5-2.


 

390)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-4

48,53, 65, 68, 185, and 209

 

 

44-3-4. Veterans' exemptions.

     (a) (1) The property of each person who served in the military or naval service of the

United States in the war of the rebellion, the Spanish-American war, the insurrection in the

Philippines, the China-relief expedition, or World War I, and the property of each person who

served in the military or naval service of the United States in World War II at any time during the

period beginning December 7, 1941, and ending on December 31, 1946, and the property of each

person who served in the military or naval services of the United States in the Korean conflict at

any time during the period beginning June 27, 1950, and ending January 31, 1955, or in the

Vietnam conflict at any time during the period beginning February 28, 1961, and ending May 7,

1975, or who actually served in the Grenada or Lebanon conflicts of 1983-1984, or the Persian

Gulf conflict, the Haitian conflict, the Somalian conflict, and the Bosnian conflict, at any time

during the period beginning August 2, 1990, and ending May 1, 1994, or in any conflict or

undeclared war for which a campaign ribbon or expeditionary medal was earned, and who was

honorably discharged from the service, or who was discharged under conditions other than

dishonorable, or who, if not discharged, served honorably, or the property of the unmarried

widow or widower of that person, is exempted from taxation to the amount of one thousand

dollars ($1,000), except in:

     (i) Burrillville, where the exemption is four thousand dollars ($4,000);

     (ii) Cumberland, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of

a maximum of twenty-three thousand seven hundred seventy-two dollars ($23,772);

     (iii) Cranston, where the exemption shall not exceed three thousand dollars ($3,000);

     (iv) Jamestown, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption for

veterans, and a tax credit for one hundred percent (100%) service-related disabled veterans at the

discretion of the council;

     (v) Lincoln, where the exemption shall not exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000); and

where the town council may also provide for a real estate tax exemption not exceeding ten

thousand dollars ($10,000) for those honorably discharged active duty veterans who served in

Operation Desert Storm;

     (vi) Newport, where the exemption is four thousand dollars ($4,000);

     (vii) New Shoreham, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an

exemption of a maximum of thirty-six thousand four hundred fifty dollars ($36,450);

     (viii) North Kingstown, where the exemption is ten thousand dollars ($10,000);

     (ix) North Providence, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an

exemption of a maximum of five thousand dollars ($5,000);

     (x) [As amended by P.L. 2015, ch. 168, � 1]. Smithfield, where the exemption is ten

thousand dollars ($10,000);

     (x) [As amended by P.L. 2015, ch. 179, � 1]. Smithfield, where the exemption is four

thousand dollars ($4,000). Provided, effective July 1, 2016, the Smithfield town council may, by

ordinance, provide for an exemption of a maximum of ten thousand dollars ($10,000);

     (xi) Warren, where the exemption shall not exceed five thousand five hundred dollars

($5,500) on motor vehicles, or ten thousand one hundred seventy-five dollars ($10,175) on real

property;

     (xii) Westerly, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide an exemption of the

total value of the veterans' real and personal property to a maximum of forty thousand five

hundred dollars ($40,500);

     (xiii) Barrington, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of

six thousand dollars ($6,000) for real property;

     (xiv) Exeter, where the exemption is five thousand dollars ($5,000);

     (xv) Glocester, where the exemption shall not exceed thirty thousand dollars ($30,000);

     (xvi) West Warwick, where the city council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption

of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000);

     (xvii) Warwick, where the city council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of four thousand dollars ($4,000);

     (xviii) [As added by P.L 2016, ch. 238, � 1]. Charlestown, where the town council may,

by ordinance, provide for an additional exemption of a maximum of one hundred fifty dollars

($150) to any veteran of the United States armed services, regardless of their the veteran�s

qualified service dates, who was honorably discharged, or to the unmarried widow or widower of

that person who is not currently receiving this statutory exemption;

     (xix) [As added by P.L 2016, ch. 268, � 1]. Charlestown, where the town council may, by

ordinance, provide for an additional tax credit of one hundred fifty dollars ($150) to any veteran

of the United States armed services, regardless of their the veteran�s qualified service dates, who

was honorably discharged, or to the unmarried widow or widower of that person who is not

currently receiving this statutory exemption; and

     (xx) Narragansett, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption

of a maximum of twenty thousand dollars ($20,000) from the assessed value of real property, or

twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) from the assessed value of a motor vehicle; and

     (xxi) Tiverton, where the town council may provide, by ordinance as may be amended

from time to time, a tax credit of two hundred dollars ($200) or greater.

     (2) The exemption is applied to the property in the municipality where the person resides,

and if there is not sufficient property to exhaust the exemption, the person may claim the balance

in any other city or town where the person may own property; provided, that the exemption is not

allowed in favor of any person who is not a legal resident of the state, or unless the person

entitled to the exemption has presented to the assessors, on or before the last day on which sworn

statements may be filed with the assessors for the year for which exemption is claimed, evidence

that he or she is entitled, which evidence shall stand so long as his or her legal residence remains

unchanged; provided, however, that in the town of South Kingstown, the person entitled to the

exemption shall present to the assessors, at least five (5) days prior to the certification of the tax

roll, evidence that he or she is entitled to the exemption; and, provided, further, that the

exemption provided for in this subdivision to the extent that it applies in any city or town, shall be

applied in full to the total value of the person's real and tangible personal property located in the

city or town; and, provided, that there is an additional exemption from taxation in the amount of

one thousand dollars ($1,000), except in:

     (i) Central Falls, where the city council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500);

     (ii) Cranston, where the exemption shall not exceed three thousand dollars ($3,000);

     (iii) Cumberland, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of

a maximum of twenty-two thousand five hundred dollars ($22,500);

     (iv) Lincoln, where the exemption shall not exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000);

     (v) Newport, where the exemption is four thousand dollars ($4,000);

     (vi) New Shoreham, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an

exemption of a maximum of thirty-six thousand four hundred fifty dollars ($36,450);

     (vii) North Providence, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an

exemption of a maximum of five thousand dollars ($5,000);

     (viii) Smithfield, where the exemption is four thousand dollars ($4,000);

     (ix) Warren, where the exemption shall not exceed eleven thousand dollars ($11,000);

and

     (x) Barrington, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of

six thousand dollars ($6,000) for real property; of the property of every honorably discharged

veteran of World War I or World War II, Korean or Vietnam, Grenada or Lebanon conflicts, the

Persian Gulf conflict, the Haitian conflict, the Somalian conflict and the Bosnian conflict at any

time during the period beginning August 2, 1990, and ending May 1, 1994, or in any conflict or

undeclared war for which a campaign ribbon or expeditionary medal was earned, who is

determined by the Veterans Administration of the United States of America to be totally disabled

through service-connected disability and who presents to the assessors a certificate from the

veterans administration that the person is totally disabled, which certificate remains effectual so

long as the total disability continues.

    (xi) Charlestown, where the town council may, by ordinance, create a tax dollar credit

reduction to replace the tax assessment exemption, as so stated in all sections herein.

     (3) Provided, that:

     (i) Burrillville may exempt real property of the totally disabled persons in the amount of

six thousand dollars ($6,000);

     (ii) Cumberland town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of twenty-two thousand five hundred dollars ($22,500);

     (iii) Little Compton may, by ordinance, exempt real property of each of the totally

disabled persons in the amount of six thousand dollars ($6,000);

     (iv) Middletown may exempt the real property of each of the totally disabled persons in

the amount of five thousand dollars ($5,000);

     (v) New Shoreham town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of thirty-six thousand four hundred fifty dollars ($36,450);

     (vi) North Providence town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of five thousand dollars ($5,000);

     (vii) Tiverton town council may, by ordinance, exempt real property of each of the totally

disabled persons in the amount of five thousand dollars ($5,000), subject to voters' approval at the

financial town meeting The Tiverton town council may, by ordinance which may be amended

from time to time, provide for a four hundred dollars four-hundred-dollar ($400) tax credit or

greater on the real property of each of the totally disabled persons;

     (viii) West Warwick town council may exempt the real property of each of the totally

disabled persons in an amount of two hundred dollars ($200); and

     (ix) Westerly town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption on the total

value of real and personal property to a maximum of forty-six thousand five hundred dollars

($46,500).

     (4) There is an additional exemption from taxation in the town of:

     Warren, where its town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption not

exceeding eight thousand two hundred fifty dollars ($8,250), of the property of every honorably

discharged veteran of World War I or World War II, or Vietnam, Grenada or Lebanon conflicts,

the Persian Gulf conflict, the Haitian conflict, the Somalian conflict and the Bosnian conflict, at

any time during the period beginning August 2, 1990, and ending May 1, 1994, or in any conflict

or undeclared war for which a campaign ribbon or expeditionary medal was earned, who is

determined by the Veterans' Administration of the United States of America to be partially

disabled through a service-connected disability and who presents to the assessors a certificate that

he is partially disabled, which certificate remains effectual so long as the partial disability

continues. Provided, however, that the Barrington town council may exempt real property of each

of the above named persons in the amount of three thousand dollars ($3,000); Warwick city

council may, by ordinance, exempt real property of each of the above-named persons and to any

person who served in any capacity in the military or naval service during the period of time of the

Persian Gulf conflict, whether or not the person served in the geographical location of the

conflict, in the amount of four thousand dollars ($4,000).

     (5) Lincoln. There is an additional exemption from taxation in the town of Lincoln for the

property of each person who actually served in the military or naval service of the United States

in the Persian Gulf conflict and who was honorably discharged from the service, or who was

discharged under conditions other than dishonorable, or who, if not discharged, served honorably,

or of the unmarried widow or widower of that person. The exemption shall be determined by the

town council in an amount not to exceed ten thousand dollars ($10,000).

     (b) In addition to the exemption provided in subsection (a) of this section, there is a ten-

thousand dollar ($10,000) exemption from local taxation on real property for any veteran and the

unmarried widow or widower of a deceased veteran of the military or naval service of the United

States who is determined, under applicable federal law by the Veterans Administration of the

United States, to be totally disabled through service-connected disability and who, by reason of

the disability, has received assistance in acquiring "specially adopted housing" under laws

administered by the veterans' administration; provided, that the real estate is occupied as his or

her domicile by the person; and, provided, that if the property is designed for occupancy by more

than one family, then only that value of so much of the house as is occupied by the person as his

or her domicile is exempted; and, provided, that satisfactory evidence of receipt of the assistance

is furnished to the assessors except in:

     (1) Cranston, where the exemption shall not exceed thirty thousand dollars ($30,000);

     (2) Cumberland, where the town council may provide for an exemption not to exceed

seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500);

     (3) Newport, where the exemption is ten thousand dollars ($10,000) or ten percent (10%)

of assessed valuation, whichever is greater;

     (4) New Shoreham, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption

of a maximum of thirty-six thousand four hundred fifty dollars ($36,450);

     (5) North Providence, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an

exemption not to exceed twelve thousand five hundred dollars ($12,500);

     (6) Westerly, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of forty thousand five hundred dollars ($40,500);

     (7) Lincoln, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000); and

     (8) Narragansett, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of

a maximum of fifty thousand dollars ($50,000); and

     (9) Tiverton, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for a tax credit of two

hundred dollars ($200) or greater, as may be amended from time to time.

     (c) In addition to the previously provided exemptions, any veteran of the military or

naval service of the United States who is determined, under applicable federal law by the

Veterans' Administration of the United States to be totally disabled through service-connected

disability may, by ordinance, passed in the city or town where the veteran's property is assessed,

receive a ten thousand dollar ($10,000) exemption from local taxation on his or her property

whether real or personal and if the veteran owns real property may be exempt from taxation by

any fire and/or lighting district; provided, that in the town of: North Kingstown, where the

amount of the exemption shall be eleven thousand dollars ($11,000) commencing with the

December 31, 2002, assessment; and for the town of Westerly, where the amount of the

exemption shall be thirty-nine thousand dollars ($39,000) commencing with the December 31,

2005, assessment; and in the town of Cumberland, where the amount of the exemption shall not

exceed forty-seven thousand five hundred forty-four dollars ($47,544); and the town of

Narragansett, where the amount of the exemption shall not exceed twenty thousand dollars

($20,000) from the assessed value of real property or twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) from the

assessed value of a motor vehicle; and in the city of Cranston, commencing with the December

31, 2016, assessment, where the exemption will not exceed two hundred fifty thousand dollars

($250,000) and be extended to the unmarried widow or widower of such veteran, and in the town

of Tiverton, where, by ordinance, a tax credit of two hundred dollars ($200) or greater shall be

applied to the qualified veteran's property assessment tax bill.

     (d) In determining whether or not a person is the widow or widower of a veteran for the

purposes of this section, the remarriage of the widow or widower shall not bar the furnishing of

the benefits of the section if the remarriage is void, has been terminated by death, or has been

annulled or dissolved by a court of competent jurisdiction.

     (e) In addition to the previously provided exemptions, there may by ordinance passed in

the city or town where the person's property is assessed, be an additional fifteen thousand dollars

($15,000) exemption from local taxation on real and personal property for any veteran of military

or naval service of the United States or the unmarried widow or widower of person who has been

or shall be classified as, or determined to be, a prisoner of war by the Veterans' Administration of

the United States, except in:

     (1) Westerly, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of a

maximum of sixty-eight thousand dollars ($68,000);

     (2) Cumberland, where the town council may by ordinance provide for an exemption of a

maximum of forty-seven thousand five hundred forty-four dollars ($47,544); and

     (3) Narragansett, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for an exemption of

a maximum of forty thousand dollars ($40,000); and

     (4) Tiverton, where the town council may, by ordinance, provide for a tax credit of six

hundred dollars ($600) or greater.

     (f) Cities and towns granting exemptions under this section shall use the eligibility dates

specified in this section.

     (g) The several cities and towns not previously authorized to provide an exemption for

those veterans who actually served in the Persian Gulf conflict may provide that exemption in the

amount authorized in this section for veterans of other recognized conflicts.

     (h) Bristol, where the town council of Bristol may, by ordinance, provide for an

exemption for any veteran and the unmarried widow or widower of a deceased veteran of military

or naval service of the United States who is determined, under applicable federal law by the

Veterans' Administration of the United States to be partially disabled through service-connected

disability.

     (i) In addition to the previously provided exemption, any veteran who is discharged from

the military or naval service of the United States under conditions other than dishonorable, or an

officer who is honorably separated from military or naval service, who is determined, under

applicable federal law by the Veterans Administration of the United States to be totally and

permanently disabled through a service-connected disability, who owns a specially adapted

homestead that has been acquired or modified with the assistance of a special adaptive housing

grant from the Veteran's Administration and that meets Veteran's Administration and Americans

with disability act guidelines from adaptive housing or that has been acquired or modified using

proceeds from the sale of any previous homestead that was acquired with the assistance of a

special adaptive housing grant from the veteran's administration, the person or the person's

surviving spouse is exempt from all taxation on the homestead. Provided, that in the town of

Westerly where the amount of the above referenced exemption shall be forty-six thousand five

hundred dollars ($46,500).

     (j) The town of Coventry may provide, by ordinance, a one thousand dollars one-

thousand-dollar ($1,000) exemption for any person who is an active member of the armed forces

of the United States.

     (k) The town of Scituate may provide, by ordinance, in lieu of a tax exemption that grants

to all disabled veterans with a one hundred percent (100%) service-connected disability, a tax

credit in an amount to be determined from time to time by the town council.


 

391)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-5

48,53,65, and 68

 

 

44-3-5. Gold star parents' exemption.

     (a) The property of every person whose son or daughter has served with the armed forces

of the United States of America and has lost his or her life as a result of his or her service with the

armed forces of the United States of America, providing the death was determined to be in the

line of duty, shall be exempted from taxation to the amount of three thousand dollars ($3,000) in

accordance with similar provisions of � 44-3-4 applying to honorably discharged veterans of the

armed forces; provided, that there shall be but one exemption granted where both parents of the

deceased son or daughter are living; provided:

     (1) Cranston. The city of Cranston may provide, by ordinance, an exemption from

taxation not to exceed forty-five hundred dollars ($4,500);

     (2) Warren. The town of Warren may provide, by ordinance, an exemption from taxation

not to exceed nine thousand seven hundred eighty-three dollars ($9,783);

     (3) Cumberland. The town of Cumberland may provide, by ordinance, an exemption not

to exceed twenty-three thousand seven hundred seventy-two dollars ($23,772) for persons

receiving a gold star exemption;

     (4) North Providence. The town of North Providence may provide, by ordinance, an

exemption not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000) for persons receiving a gold star

exemption;

     (5) Smithfield. The town of Smithfield may provide, by ordinance, an exemption not to

exceed six thousand dollars ($6,000) for persons receiving a gold star exemption;

     (6) Westerly. The town of Westerly may provide, by ordinance, an exemption on the total

value of real and personal property not to exceed forty-six thousand five hundred dollars

($46,500);

     (7) Barrington. The town of Barrington may provide, by ordinance, an exemption not to

exceed six thousand dollars ($6,000) for real property for persons receiving a gold star

exemption;

     (8) Jamestown. The town of Jamestown may provide, by ordinance, an exemption on the

total value of real and personal property not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000);

     (9) Lincoln. The town of Lincoln may provide, by ordinance, an exemption not to exceed

five thousand dollars ($5,000) for persons receiving a gold star exemption;

     (10) West Warwick. The town of West Warwick may provide, by ordinance, an

exemption not to exceed two hundred twenty-five dollars ($225) for persons receiving a gold star

exemption; and

     (11) Narragansett. The town of Narragansett may provide, by ordinance, an exemption

not to exceed twenty thousand dollars ($20,000) from the assessed value of real property, or

twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) from the assessed value of a motor vehicle, for persons

receiving a gold star exemption; and

     (12) Tiverton. The town of Tiverton may provide, by ordinance, a tax credit of one

hundred twenty dollars ($120) or greater for persons receiving a gold star exemption.

     (b) The adjustment shall be made to reflect the same monetary savings that appeared on

the property tax bill that existed for the year prior to reevaluation of the real property. If any

provision of this section is held invalid, the remainder of this section and the application of its

provisions shall not be affected by that invalidity.


 

 

 

392)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-5.2

302 and 323

 

 

44-3-5.2. Exemptions in Barrington.

     (a) The town council of the town of Barrington is hereby authorized, by ordinance, to

exempt from taxation a specified dollar amount of real and/or personal property of qualified

individual individuals as defined pursuant to this section.

     (b) A "qualified individual" means a town of Barrington resident who is:

     (1) An honorably discharged veteran of the United States armed services, regardless of

their the veteran�s qualified service datesor the unmarried widow or widower of such the

veteran;

     (2) A veteran of the United States armed services who was not discharged, but has served

honorably, or the unmarried widow or widower of such the veteran;

     (3) An honorably discharged, service-connected one hundred percent (100%) totally

disabled veteran of the United States armed services, regardless of their the veteran�s qualified

service dates for as long as the service-connected total disability continues;

     (4) A parent of a member of the United States armed services who lost their his or her

life in the line of duty;

     (5) The unmarried widow or widower of a member of the United States armed services

who lost their his or her life in the line of duty; or

     (6) A veteran who was a prisoner of war;

     (b) The exemption granted shall be no less than the amounts allowed pursuant to �� 44-3-

4 and 44-3-5.


 

393)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-12

48,53,65, and 68

 

 

44-3-12. Visually impaired persons -- Exemption.

     (a) The property of each person who is legally blind according to federal standards as

certified by a licensed physician or as certified by the Rhode Island services for the blind and

visually impaired shall be exempted from taxation to the amount of six thousand dollars ($6,000),

except for the towns of:

     Tiverton. Which exemption shall be seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500)

provided by town ordinance as a tax credit of three hundred dollars ($300) or greater; and

     Warren. Which exemption shall be up to forty thousand eight hundred ninety-five dollars

($40,895); and

     Barrington. Which exemption shall be sixteen thousand dollars ($16,000) for real

property. The exemption shall apply to the property in the municipality where the person resides,

and if there is not sufficient property to exhaust the exemption, the person may proclaim the

balance in any city or town where he or she may own property; except for the town of

Cumberland, which exemption shall be up to forty-seven thousand five hundred forty-four dollars

($47,544); and

     Westerly. Which may provide, by ordinance, an exemption on the total value of real and

personal property not to exceed twenty-nine thousand dollars ($29,000). The city or town council

of any city or town may, by ordinance, increase the exemption within the city or town to an

amount not to exceed twenty-two thousand five hundred dollars ($22,500). The exemption shall

not be allowed in favor of any person who is not a legal resident of the state, or unless the person

entitled to the exemption shall have presented to the assessors, on or before the last day on which

sworn statements may be filed with the assessors for the year for which exemption is claimed,

due evidence that he or she is so entitled, which evidence shall stand so long as his or her legal

residence remains unchanged. The exemption provided for in this section, to the extent that it

shall apply to any city or town, shall be applied in full to the total value of the person's real and

tangible personal property located in the city or town and shall be applied to intangible personal

property only to the extent that there is not sufficient real property or tangible personal property

to exhaust the exemption. This exemption shall be in addition to any other exemption provided by

law except as provided in � 44-3-25.

     West Warwick. Which exemption shall be equal to three hundred thirty-five dollars

($335).

     (b) In each city or town that has not increased the exemption provided by subsection (a)

above the minimum of six thousand dollars ($6,000), except for the towns town of:

     Tiverton. Which exemption shall be seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500); and

     Barrington. Which exemption shall be sixteen thousand dollars ($16,000) for real

property. The exemption shall increase automatically each year by the same percentage as the

percentage increase in the total amount of taxes levied by the city or town. The automatic

increase shall not apply to cities or towns that have increased the exemption provided by

subsection (a) above the minimum of six thousand dollars ($6,000), except for the towns town of:

     Tiverton. Which exemption shall be seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500); and

     Barrington. Which exemption shall be sixteen thousand dollars ($16,000) for real

property. If the application of the automatic increase to an exemption of six thousand dollars

($6,000) on a continuous basis from December 31, 1987, to any subsequent assessment date

would result in a higher exemption than the exemption enacted by the city or town council, then

the amount provided by the automatic increase applies.

�� (c) The town of Charlestown may, by ordinance, provide a tax dollar credit reduction for

such legally blind person.


 

394)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-13

65 and 68

 

 

44-3-13. Persons over the age of 65 years � Exemption.

     (a) Bristol. The town of Bristol may exempt from taxation the real estate situated in the

town owned and occupied by any resident over the age of sixty-five (65) years, as of the

preceding December 31st; or, over the age of seventy (70) years, as of the preceding December

31st; or, over the age of seventy-five (75) years, as of the preceding December 31st, and which

exemption is in addition to any and all other exemptions from taxation to which the resident may

otherwise be entitled. The exemption shall be applied uniformly and without regard to ability to

pay. Only one exemption shall be granted to cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by the entirety,

even though all the cotenants, joint tenants and tenants by the entirety are sixty-five (65) years of

age or over as of the preceding December 31st. The exemption applies to a life tenant who has the

obligation for payment of the tax on real estate. The town council of the town of Bristol shall, by

ordinance, establish the value of this exemption.

     (b) Central Falls. The city of Central Falls may, by ordinance, exempt from taxation, real

or personal property located within the city of any person sixty-five (65) years or over, which

exemption shall be in an amount not exceeding seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500) of

valuation and which exemption is in addition to any and all other exemptions from taxation and

tax credits to which the person may be entitled by this chapter or any other provision of law.

     (c) Cranston.

     (1) The city council of the city of Cranston may, by ordinance, exempt from valuation for

taxation the real property situated in the city and owned and occupied by any person over the age

of sixty-five (65) years which exemption is in an amount not exceeding nine thousand dollars

($9,000) and which exemption is in addition to any and all other exemptions from taxation to

which the person may be otherwise entitled. The exemption shall be applied uniformly and

without regard to ability to pay.

     (2) The city council of the city of Cranston may, by ordinance, exempt from valuation for

taxation the property subject to the excise tax situated in the city and owned by any person over

the age of sixty-five (65) years, not owning real property, which exemption is in an amount not

exceeding three thousand dollars ($3,000) and which exemption is in addition to any and all other

exemptions from taxation to which the person may be otherwise entitled. The exemption shall be

applied uniformly and without regard to ability to pay.

     (d) East Greenwich. The town council of the town of East Greenwich may, by ordinance,

and upon any terms and conditions that it deems reasonable, exempt from taxation the real estate

situated in the town of East Greenwich owned and occupied by any resident of the age of sixty-

five (65) to seventy (70) years, as of the preceding December 31st up to an amount of twenty-six

thousand dollars ($26,000); or, of the age of seventy (70) to seventy-five (75) years, as of the

preceding December 31st up to an amount of thirty-four thousand dollars ($34,000); or, of the age

of seventy-five (75) to eighty (80) years, as of the preceding December 31st up to an amount of

forty-two thousand dollars ($42,000); or, of the age of eighty (80) to eighty-five (85) years, as of

the preceding December 31st up to an amount of fifty thousand dollars ($50,000); or, of the age

of eighty-five (85) years or more, as of the preceding December 31st up to an amount of fifty-

eight thousand dollars ($58,000), and which exemption is in addition to any and all other

exemptions from taxation to which the resident may otherwise be entitled. The exemption shall

be applied uniformly and without regard to ability to pay. Only one exemption shall be granted to

cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by the entirety, even though all the cotenants, joint tenants,

and tenants by the entirety are eligible for an exemption pursuant to this subsection. The

exemption applies to a life tenant who has the obligation for payment of the tax on real estate.

     (e) Lincoln. The town council of the town of Lincoln may, by ordinance, exempt from

taxation the real property, situated in said town, owned and occupied for a period of five (5) years

by any person over the age of sixty-five (65) years, which exemption shall be in an amount not

exceeding twenty-four thousand four hundred and forty dollars ($24,440) of valuation, and which

exemption shall be in addition to any and all other exemptions from taxation to which said person

may be otherwise entitled. Said exemption shall be applied uniformly and without regard to

ability to pay.

     (f) North Providence. The town council of the town of North Providence may, by

ordinance, exempt from valuation for taxation the real property located within the town of any

person sixty-five (65) years or over, which exemption is in amount not exceeding ten thousand

dollars ($10,000) of valuation and which exemption shall be in addition to any and all other

exemptions from taxation and tax credits to which the person may be entitled by this chapter or

any other provision of law.

     (g) Tiverton. The town council of the town of Tiverton may, by ordinance, exempt from

taxation the real property situated in the town owned and occupied by any person over the age of

sixty-five (65) years, and which exemption is in an amount not exceeding ten thousand dollars

($10,000) of valuation, and which exemption is in addition to any and all other exemptions from

taxation to which the person may be otherwise entitled. The exemption shall be applied uniformly

and without regard to ability to pay. Only one exemption shall be granted to cotenants, joint

tenants, and tenants by the entirety, even though all of the cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by

the entirety are sixty-five (65) years of age or over. The exemption applies to a life tenant who

has the obligation for the payment of the tax on real property.

     (h) Warren. The town council of the town of Warren may, by ordinance, exempt from

taxation the real property situated in the town owned and occupied by any person over the age of

sixty-five (65) years, and which exemption is in amount not exceeding thirty thousand six

hundred fifty-six dollars ($30,656) of valuation and which exemption is in addition to any and all

other exemptions from taxation to which the person may be otherwise entitled. The exemption

shall be applied uniformly and without regard to ability to pay. Only one exemption shall be

granted to cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by the entirety, even though all of the cotenants,

joint tenants, and tenants by the entirety are sixty-five (65) years of age or over. The exemption

applies to a life tenant who has the obligation for the payment of the tax on the real property.

     (i) Warwick. The finance director of the city of Warwick may, by ordinance, exempt

from taxation owner occupied residential real property or personal property located within the

city of any person sixty-five (65) years or over, which exemption is in an amount not exceeding

twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) of valuation and which exemption is in addition to any and all

other exemptions from taxation and tax credits to which the person may be entitled by this

chapter or any other provision of law.

     (j) Westerly. The town council of the town of Westerly may, by ordinance, exempt from

taxation a real property situated in the town owned and occupied for a period of five (5) years

next prior to filing of an application for a tax exemption, by any person over the age of sixty-five

(65) years, and which exemption is in an amount and pursuant to any income limitations that the

council may prescribe in the ordinance from time to time, and which exemption is in addition to

any and all other exemptions from taxation to which the person may be otherwise entitled. The

exemption shall be applied uniformly and without regard to ability to pay. Only one exemption

shall be granted to cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by the entirety, even though all of the

cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by the entirety are sixty-five (65) years of age or over. The

exemption applies to a life tenant who has the obligation for the payment of the tax on real

property.

     (k) Charlestown. The town council of the town of Charlestown may, by ordinance, and

upon any terms and conditions that it deems reasonable, create a tax dollar credit reduction of

taxation against real estate situated in the town of Charlestown owned and occupied by any

resident of the age of sixty-five (65) years or over, and which credit is in an amount and pursuant

to any income limitations that the council may prescribe in the ordinance, from time to time, and

which credit is in addition to any and all other exemptions from taxation to which the person may

be otherwise entitled. The credit shall be applied uniformly and without regard to ability to pay.

Only one credit shall be granted to cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by the entirety, even

though all of the cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by the entirety are sixty-five (65) years of

age or over. The credit applies to a life tenant who has the obligation for the payment of the tax

on real property.


 

395)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-14.1

310 and 329

 

 

44-3-14.1. Tiverton - Taxation of exempt property upon transfer.

     (a) Upon the sale of tax-exempt property to a purchaser who or that holds no tax-exempt

status, the tax assessor/collector may issue a prorated tax bill on the then-current tax assessment

from the date of sale. The prorated tax shall be assessed from the date of sale to the end of the

current calendar year.

     (b) Not later than ninety (90) days after the notice has been received pursuant to � 44-3-

14, the assessor shall prorate the tax from the date of the sale to the next date of assessment

(December 31). Taxes shall be based on the then-current property assessment and current fiscal

year tax rate for the property as classified.

     (c) Any person claiming to be aggrieved by the action of the assessor under this section

may appeal to the assessor within forty-five (45) days from the date of the notification of the

prorated tax assessed. If still aggrieved, an appeal may be filed with the tax assessment board of

review within thirty (30) days of the assessor's decision. If still aggrieved by the board's decision,

a petition in superior court may be filed within thirty (30) days of the notice from the tax board of

decision.

     (d) Upon receipt of the notice/bill from the assessor, the tax is due and payable in an

initial or single installment due and payable not sooner than thirty (30) days after the date the bill

is mailed or hand-delivered to the owner, and in any remaining, regular installments, as they are

due and payable, and the several installments of a tax due and payable are equal.


 

 

 

 

 

396)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-3-16

65 and 68

 

 

44-3-16. Elderly -- Freeze of tax rate and valuation.

     (a) The city or town councils of the various cities and towns except the towns of West

Warwick, Exeter, Coventry and Bristol may provide, by ordinance, for the freezing of the rate

and valuation of taxes on real property located therein to any person who is sixty-five (65) years

or older or to any person who is totally and permanently disabled regardless of age and who does

not have income from all sources in excess of four thousand dollars ($4,000) per year, or in the

case of the town of Johnston to any person who is sixty-five (65) years or older or to any person

who is totally and permanently disabled regardless of age and who does not have income from all

sources in excess of six thousand dollars ($6,000) per year, and a total income of seventy-two

hundred dollars ($7,200) for two (2) or more persons living in that dwelling, or in the case of the

city of Cranston to any person who is sixty-five (65) years or older or to any person who is totally

and permanently disabled regardless of age and who does not have income from all sources in

excess of twenty thousand dollars ($20,000) per year, or a lesser figure as determined by the city

council of the city of Cranston and a total income of twenty-three thousand dollars ($23,000), or a

lesser figure as determined by the city council of the city of Cranston, for two (2) or more persons

living in that dwelling; provided, that the freeze of rate and valuation on real property applies

only to owner occupied single or two-family (2) dwellings in which the person resides; and

provided, further, that the exemption is not allowed unless the person entitled to it has presented

to the assessors, on or before the last day on which sworn statements may be filed with the

assessors for the year for which the tax freeze is claimed, or for taxes assessed December 31,

2009, the deadline is April 15, 2010, evidence that he or she is entitled, which evidence shall

stand as long as his or her legal residence remains unchanged. The exemptions shall be in

addition to any other exemption provided by law, and provided, further, that the real estate is not

taken from the tax rolls and is subject to the bonded indebtedness of the city or town.

     (b) (1) The town council of the town of West Warwick may provide, by ordinance, for a

schedule of exemptions from the assessed valuation on real property located there for any person

who is sixty-five (65) years or older or to any person who is totally and permanently disabled

regardless of age, which exemption schedule is based upon gross annual income from all sources

as follows:

     (i) An exemption of three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375) for those having a gross

annual income from all sources of $0 to $15,000;

     (ii) An exemption of two hundred eighty dollars ($280) for those having a gross annual

income from all sources of $15,001 to $20,000;

     (iii) An exemption of two hundred thirty-five dollars ($235) for those having a gross

annual income from all sources of $20,001 to $25,000;

     (iv) An exemption of one hundred ninety dollars ($190) for those having a gross annual

income from all sources of $25,001 to $30,000;

     (v) An exemption of one hundred dollars ($100) for those having a gross annual income

from all sources of $30,001 to $35,000.

     (2) Provided, that the exemption schedule applies only to single family dwellings in

which the person resides; provided, further, that the person acquired the property for actual

consideration paid or inherited the property; provided, further, that the person has resided in the

town of West Warwick for a period of three (3) years ending with the date of assessment for the

year for which exemption is claimed; and provided, further, that the exemption is not allowed

unless the person entitled to it has presented to the assessors, on or before the last day on which

sworn statements may be filed with the tax assessor for the year for which the exemption is

claimed, evidence that he or she is entitled, which evidence shall stand as long as his or her

residence remains unchanged. In the case of married persons, the age requirement will be met as

soon as either the husband or wife reaches the age of sixty-five (65) years and in the event the

husband passes away, a widow sixty-two (62) years of age to sixty-five (65) years of age is

allowed the exemption as long as she remains unmarried.

     (3) Those persons granted tax relief under chapter 255 of the Public Laws of 1972 have

the option of retaining their current tax freeze or abandoning it to seek relief under this

subsection.

     (c) The town council of the town of Coventry may, by ordinance, exempt from taxation

the real property and/or mobile homes situated in the town which is owned and occupied as the

principal residence, by any one or more persons sixty-five (65) years of age or over or by one

who is totally and permanently disabled, regardless of age, domiciled in the town of Coventry,

upon terms and conditions that may be established by the town council in the ordinance. The

exemption is for taxes assessed December 31, 1975, and subsequent years. Any ordinance

adopted by the town council pursuant to the provisions of this subsection and subsections (d) and

(e) may be amended at any time and from time to time by the town council or any successor town

council.

     (d) The town council of the town of Coventry may, by ordinance, exempt from taxation

the real property situated in the town, owned and occupied by any person, who is a veteran as

defined in � 44-3-4, totally and permanently disabled or over the age of sixty-five (65) years,

which exemption is in an amount not exceeding nine thousand dollars ($9,000) of valuation,

retroactive to real property assessed on December 31, 1978, and which exemption is in addition

to any and all other exemptions from taxation to which the person may be entitled. The

exemption is applied uniformly, and without regard to ability to pay, provided, that only one

exemption is granted to co-tenants cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by the entirety, even

though all of the co-tenants cotenants, joint tenants, and tenants by the entirety are veterans,

totally and permanently disabled, or sixty-five (65) years of age or over. The exemption applies to

a life tenant who has the obligation for the payment of the tax on the real property.

     (e) The town council of the town of Coventry is authorized in the ordinance or ordinances

to provide that any person who obtains an exemption pursuant to the ordinance to which the

person is not entitled by the filing or making of any false statement or the proffering of any

document or other writing known by the person to have been altered, forged, or to contain any

false or untrue information is liable to the town of Coventry for an amount equal to double the

amount of reduction in taxes resulting from the exemption, which amount is recoverable by the

town in a civil action.

     (f) The town council of the town of Exeter may provide, by ordinance, for the freezing of

the rate and valuation of taxes on real property located in the town to any qualified person who is

sixty-five (65) years or older regardless of income, or to any person who is totally and

permanently disabled regardless of age, and income, provided, that the freeze of rate and

valuation on real property applies only to single family dwellings in which the person resides; and

provided, further, that the person acquired the property for actual consideration paid or inherited

the property; and provided that the qualified person has presented to the assessors, on or before

the last day on which sworn statements may be filed with the assessors for the year for which the

exemption is claimed, evidence that he or she is entitled, which evidence shall stand as long as his

or her legal residence remains unchanged. The stabilization of resulting tax assessments shall be

subject to reasonable definitions, terms and conditions as may otherwise be prescribed by

ordinance. The exemption is in addition to any other exemption provided by law, and provided,

further, that the real estate is not taken from the tax rolls and is subject to the bonded

indebtedness of the town.

     (g) (1) (i) The town council of the town of Bristol may provide, by ordinance, for the

freezing of the rate and valuation of taxes on real property located there to any person who is

sixty-five (65) years or older, or if not sixty-five (65) or older, the taxpayer's spouse who is

domiciled with him or her, is sixty-five (65) or older; who is fifty (50) years or older and who is

the widow or widower of a taxpayer who, prior to death, had qualified for, and was entitled to

relief under this subsection and who was domiciled with the decedent taxpayer on the date of

death or to any person who is totally and permanently disabled regardless of age. The taxpayer

shall reside in the town of Bristol for one year prior to filing the claim for relief.

     (ii) To qualify for relief, the taxpayer shall have "adjusted gross income", as the term is

defined for federal income tax purposes, for the preceding calendar year of less than ten thousand

dollars ($10,000).

     (2) The tax is calculated by fixing the tax at the tax rate as levied on the real property

during the year in which the taxpayer became age sixty-four (64) or totally and permanently

disabled regardless of age. The rate remains regardless of the taxpayer's age, date of application,

or date of qualification.

     (3) The taxpayer shall apply annually for tax relief on a form prepared by the tax

assessor. The application shall be filed between January 1 and May 15 for any year in which

benefits are claimed. The taxpayer shall file any supplemental information necessary to satisfy the

claim. Upon approval, the tax relief shall take effect in the next forthcoming tax roll.

     (4) The owner of the property or a tenant for life or for a term of years who meets the

qualifications previously enumerated is entitled to pay the tax levied on the property for the first

year in which the claim for tax relief is filed and approved. For each subsequent year the taxpayer

shall meet the qualifications hereafter enumerated, the taxpayer shall be entitled to continue to

pay the tax or the lesser amount as is levied.

     (h) The town council of the town of Tiverton may, by ordinance, provide for a tax credit

on the real property and/or mobile homes situated in the town and owned and occupied as the

principal residence by any one or more persons sixty-five (65) years of age or over, domiciled in

the town of Tiverton, upon terms and conditions as may be established by the town council in the

ordinance.

     (i) (1) The town of Tiverton may provide, by ordinance, for a schedule of tax credits for

any person who is sixty-five (65) years or older, which tax credit schedule is based upon annual

adjusted gross income as defined for federal income tax purposes.

     (2) Provided, that the tax credit schedule applies only to single-family dwellings in which

the person resides; provided, further, that the person acquired the property for actual

consideration paid or inherited the property; provided, further, that the person has resided in the

town of Tiverton for a period of three (3) years ending with the date of assessment for the year for

which the tax credit is claimed; and provided, further, that the tax credit is not allowed unless the

person entitled to it has presented to the assessors, on or before the last day on which sworn

statements may be filed with the tax assessor for the year for which the tax credit is claimed, due

evidence that he or she is so entitled, which evidence shall stand as long as his or her residence

remains unchanged.

     (3) In the case of married persons, the age requirement will be met as soon as either the

husband or wife reaches the age of sixty-five (65) years, and in the event a spouse passes away, a

widow(er) sixty-two (62) years of age to sixty-five (65) years of age is allowed the tax credit as

long as he or she remains unmarried.

     (j) The city council of the city of Warwick may provide, by ordinance, for the freezing of

the tax rate and valuation of real property for persons seventy (70) years of age or older who

reside in owner occupied single-family homes where the income from all sources does not exceed

seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500) for a single person and does not exceed fifteen

thousand dollars ($15,000) for married couples. Persons seeking relief shall apply for an

exemption to the tax assessor no later than March 15 of each year.

     (k) The town council of the town of East Greenwich may provide, by ordinance, and

upon such terms and conditions as it deems reasonable, for the freezing of both the tax rate

attributable to education and the valuation of taxes on real property located in the town of any

person who is sixty-five (65) years or older or of any person who is totally and permanently

disabled regardless of age; provided, that the freeze of rate and valuation on real property applies

only to single or two (2) family dwellings in which the person resides; and provided, further, that

the person acquired the property for actual consideration paid or inherited the property; and

provided, further, that the exemption is not allowed unless the person entitled to it has presented

to the tax assessor, on or before the last day on which sworn statements may be filed with the

assessor for the year for which the exemption is claimed, evidence that he or she is entitled,

which evidence shall stand as long as his or her legal residence remains unchanged. The

exemption is in addition to any other exemption provided by law; and provided, further, that the

real estate is not taken from the tax rolls and is subject to the bonded indebtedness of the town.

     (l) The town council of the town of Charlestown may create a tax dollar credit reduction

in lieu of such exemption, upon terms and conditions that the council may prescribe.


 

397)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-5-12.1

315 and 352

 

 

44-5-12.1. Assessment of tangible personal property.

     (a) All tangible personal property subject to taxation shall be assessed for taxation based

on the original purchase price (new or used) including all costs such as freight and installation.

Assets will be classified and depreciated as defined in this section.

     (b) The following classification and depreciation table shall be used in determining the

assessed value of tangible personal property.

State of Rhode Island Tangible Property Classification

Class of Assets Class I Short Life Class II Mid-Life Class III Long Life

Age 1-5 yrs 6-12 yrs 13+ yrs

1 95 95 95

2 80 90 90

3 60 80 85

4 30 70 80

5 20 60 75

6 20 50 70

7 20 40 65

8 20 30 60

9 20 30 55

10 20 30 50

11 20 30 45

12 20 30 40

13 20 30 35

14 20 30 30

15+ 20 30 30

     Assets Shall Not be Trended

     (c) Assets shall be classified on an annual basis by the Rhode Island Association of

Assessing Officers' Personal Property Committee based on the following table:

     INDUSTRY GROUP IN YEARS CLASS

     Aerospace industry II

     Agriculture machinery and equipment II

      cotton ginning II

     Aircraft and all helicopters II

     Amusement and theme parks II

     Apparel and fabricated textile manufacturing II

     Automobile repair shops II

     Bakeries and confectionery production II

     Barber and beauty shops II

     Billboards II III

     Brewery equipment not used directly in manufacturing II

     Cable television, headend facilities Cable television: All equipment including

      set top boxes, remotes, and other related equipment II

     Aerial, underground, and drops, including MDUS. III

      microwave systems II

      program origination II

      service and test II

      subscriber connection and distribution II

     Canneries and frozen food production II

     Cement manufacture processing III

     Chemical and allied production II

     Clay products manufacturing processing III

     Clocks and watches, manufacturing II

      electronic instrumentation I

     Cold storage and ice-making equipment III

     Cold storage warehouse equipment II

     Computers, personal computers (PC), laptops, tablets, cellphones,

      mainframe/servers, peripherals, keyboard, mouse, I

      mainframe I/II

      peripherals I

     Condiments, manufacturing and processing II

     Construction equipment, general construction, backhoes, forklifts, loaders,

      cranes, unregistered vehicles II

     Dairy products manufacturing processing II

     Data handling equipment, except computers II

     Printers, copiers, bridges, routers and gateways II

     Distilling II

     Electrical equipment not used in manufacturing II

     Electronic companies, steam production III

      other production, combined cycle III

      gas turbines III

      nuclear production III

      transmission III

      distribution III

     Electronic equipment manufacturing I II

     Fabricated metal products/special tools II

      special tools I

     Fishing equipment, excluding boats and barges, lines, nets, I

     Food and beverage production II

      special handling devices I

     Fur processing II

     Gas distribution, total distribution equipment III

     Optional - for equipment by category:

      mains and services, plastic III

      mains and services, steel III

      meters, regulators, installations III

      other distribution equipment III

     Glass and glass products/special tools II

      special tools I

     Grain and grain mill products manufacture processing III

     Gypsum products III

     Hand tools I II

     Hospital furnishings and equipment II

     Hotel and motel furnishings and equipment II

     Jewelry products and pens II

     Knitwear and knit products, ex, work uniforms I

     Laundry equipment II

     Leather and leather products II

     Logging, timber cutting I/II II

     Machinery manufacturing, except, as otherwise listed II

     Marine construction II

     Meatpacking II

     Medical and dental supply production II

     Metalworking machinery manufacturing processing II

     Mining and quarrying II

     Motion picture and television production II

     Motor vehicle and parts/special tools manufacturing II

      special tools I

     Office furniture and equipment II

     Optical lenses and instrument manufacturing processing II

     Paints and varnishes I

     Paper and pulp manufacturing II

      converted paper, paperboard and pump II

     Petroleum and natural gas, drilling, onshore II

drilling, offshore II

      exploration and production II

      petroleum refining III

      pipeline transportation III

     Plastics manufacturing I/II

     Plastic products manufacturing processing/special tools II

      special tools I

     Primary metals production, nonferrous and foundry products III

      special tools I III

     Primary steel mill products III

     Printing and publishing II

     Professional and scientific instruments II

     Radio and television, broadcasting I/II II

     Railroad transportation equipment manufacturing II

      locomotive manufacturing II

     Recreation and amusement II

     Retail trades, fixtures and equipment II

     Residential furniture II

     Restaurant and bar equipment II

     Restaurant equipment, fast foods II

     Rubber products manufacturing processing/special tools II

      special tools I

     Sawmills, permanent/portable II

      portable I

     Service establishments II

     Ship and boat building machinery and equipment/special tools II

      special tools I

     Soft drink manufacture processing and bottling II

     Steam production and distribution III

     Stone products manufacturing processing III

     Sugar and sugar products manufacturing III

     Telecommunications, local exchange and interstate II

      analog switching I/II II

      digital switching I/II

      circuit, digital, analog, optic I/II II

      circuit, analog II

      circuit, optic I/II

      other central office equipment I/II

      information/origination equipment I/II

      smart phones I

      metallic cable II III

      fiber cable, poles, conduit III

      poles III

      conduit III

     Telecommunications, interstate interexchange analog switching I/II

      digital switching I/II

      metallic cable II

      fiber cable III

      poles III

      conduit III

      all other equipment I/II II

     Telecommunications, cellular

     analog Analog/digital switching I/II II

      digital switching I/II

      radio frequency channel and control I/II II

      power equipment II

      antennae II

      towers III

      transmission equipment I/II II

      cellular phones I

     Textile products, including finishing and dyeing II

      manufacture of nonwoven fabrics II

      manufacture of yarn Yarn, thread and woven fabrics II

      manufacture of textured yarns II

     Theater equipment II

     Tobacco and tobacco products III

     Vegetable oil products III

     Utilities/power production III

     Generation, transmission, or distribution equipment III

     Waste reduction and resource recovery II

     Water transportation III

      vessels, barges and tugs III

     Water utilities III

     Wharves, docks and piers III

     Wholesale trade fixtures and equipment II

     Wood products and furniture manufacturing II

     (d) Any industry, group, or asset not enumerated in section (b) subsection (c) of this

section, shall be categorized as class II.


 

398)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-5-20.02

340 and 342

 

 

44-5-20.02. Central Falls -- Property tax classification -- List of ratable property.

     (a) On or before June 1, except in 1990, in which case the time is thirty (30) days after

June 1, 1990, the assessor in the city of Central Falls, after certification for classification, shall

submit to the director of revenue a list containing the true, full, and fair cash value of the ratable

estate and motor vehicles and shall classify the property according to the following use:

     (1) "Class 1" includes:

     (i) Residential property which is property used or held for human habitation, containing

one or more dwelling units including rooming houses and mobile homes with facilities designed

and used for living, sleeping, cooking, and eating on a non-transient basis. This property includes

accessory land, buildings, or improvements incidental to the habitation and used exclusively by

the residents of the property or their guests. This property does not include a hotel, motel,

commercial, or industrial property. Residential property shall consist of:

     (A) Owner-occupied dwellings of no more than five (5) units;

     (B) Non owner-occupied dwellings of no more than five (5) units, including properties

for mixed use as residential and commercial properties; and

     (C) Units or dwellings with six (6) or more units.

     (ii) Open space including "farm", "forest", and "open-space land" as defined in

accordance with � 44-27-2.

     (2) "Class 2" includes:

     (i) Personal property, previously subject to tax, includes all goods, chattels, and effects,

wherever they may be, except those that are exempt from taxation by the laws of the United

States or of this state; and

     (ii) Every vehicle and trailer registered under chapter 3 of title 31.

     (3) "Class 3" includes property used commercially or for industrial manufacturing.

     (b) The city of Central Falls may, by resolution or ordinance adopted by the city council,

provide for tax classification of property in the city of Central Falls to become effective in any

year in which the assessment roll reflects a general revaluation of all taxable property in the city

of Central Falls.


 

399)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

44-7-28

336 and 338

 

 

44-7-28. Glocester, Coventry and Burrillville tax lien on mobile or manufactured home in the

town.

     (a) Taxes assessed against any person in the towns of Glocester, and Coventry, and

Burrillville for either a mobile or manufactured home shall constitute a lien on the mobile or

manufactured home. The lien shall arise and attach as of the date of assessment of the taxes, as

defined in � 44-5-1.

     (b) The lien shall terminate at the expiration of twenty (20) years. The lien shall be

superior to any other lien, encumbrance, or interest in the mobile or manufactured home whether

by way of attachment or otherwise.


 

400)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-2-37

299 and 322

 

 

45-2-37. Town of Middletown -- Municipal court.

     (a) The town council of the town of Middletown may establish a municipal court and

confer upon the court original jurisdiction, notwithstanding any other provisions of the general

laws, to hear and determine causes involving the violation of any ordinance, including minimum

housing ordinances of the town and any violation of the provisions of chapter 24.3 of this title,

entitled the Rhode Island Housing Maintenance and Occupancy Code; provided, however, that

any defendant found guilty of any offense, excluding violation of the minimum housing

ordinances or chapter 24.3 within the jurisdiction of the court, may within seven (7) days of

conviction, file an appeal from the conviction to the superior court for Newport county and be

entitled in the latter court to a trial de novo; and provided further, however, that any defendant

found guilty of any violation of a minimum housing ordinance or of chapter 24.3, may, within

seven (7) days of the conviction, file an appeal from the conviction to the second division of the

district court and be entitled to a trial de novo in accordance with �� 8-8-3(a)(4) and 8-8-3.2.

     (b) With respect to violations of either municipal ordinances dealing with minimum

housing or chapter 24.3 et seq., of this title dealing with housing maintenance and occupancy, the

town council may also confer upon the municipal court, in furtherance of the court's jurisdiction,

the power to proceed according to equity:

     (1) To restrain, prevent, enjoin, abate, or correct a violation;

     (2) To order the repair, vacation, or demolition of any dwelling existing in violation; or

     (3) To otherwise compel compliance with all of the provisions of the ordinances and

statutes.

     (c) The town council of the town of Middletown is authorized and empowered to appoint

a judge of the municipal court. The town council of that town is authorized and empowered to

enact ordinances governing the personnel, operation, and procedure to be followed in the court

and to establish a schedule of fees and costs, and to otherwise provide for the operation and

management of the court. The municipal court may impose a sentence not to exceed thirty (30)

days in jail and impose a fine of not in excess of five hundred dollars ($500) one thousand dollars

($1,000), or both. The court is empowered to administer oaths,; compel the attendance of

witnesses and punish persons for contempt; and to execute search warrants to the extent the

warrants could be executed by a judge of the district court.


 

401)

Section

Repeal Chapter Numbers:

 

45-2-51

305 and 324

 

 

45-2-51. [Repealed]


 

402)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-2-51.1

305 and 324

 

 

45-2-51.1. Town of Lincoln -- Municipal court � Municipal housing court.

     (a) The town council of the town of Lincoln may establish a municipal court and confer

upon the court original jurisdiction, notwithstanding any other provisions of the general laws, to

hear and determine causes involving the violations of the town of Lincoln charter, or code of

ordinances; provided, however, that any defendant found guilty of any offense, excluding

violation of the minimum housing ordinances or chapter 24.3 of this title, may within seven (7)

days of conviction, file an appeal from the conviction to the superior court for Providence County

county and be entitled in the latter court to a trial de novo.

     (b) The town council of the town of Lincoln may establish a municipal housing court and

confer upon the court original jurisdiction, notwithstanding any other provisions of the general

laws, to hear and determine causes involving the violation of the zoning ordinances of the town

and any violation of the provisions of chapter 24 of this title (the Rhode Island zoning enabling

act of 1991); any violation of chapter 24.1 of this title (the historical zoning act); any violation of

chapter 24.2 of this title (minimum housing standards act); any violation of chapter 24.3 of this

title (housing maintenance and occupancy code); any violation of chapter 23 of this title

(subdivision and land development act); any violation of any local Lincoln ordinance or

regulation enacted pursuant to these chapters; and any violation of the provisions of chapter 27.3

of title 23 (the Rhode Island state building code); and any violation of the provisions of those

regulations promulgated by the state building code commission entitled SBC-1 Rhode Island state

building code; SBC-2 Rhode Island state one-and two-(2)family (2) dwelling code; SBC-3 Rhode

Island state plumbing code; SBC-4 Rhode Island state mechanical code; SBC-5 Rhode Island

state electrical code; SBC-6 state property maintenance code; SBC-8 Rhode Island state energy

conservation code; and SBC-20 Rhode Island state fuel and gas code; and provided, further, that

any party aggrieved by a final judgment, decree, or order of the Lincoln housing court may,

within twenty (20) days after entry of this judgment, decree, or order, file an appeal to the

superior court and be entitled in the latter court to a trial de novo.

     (c) With respect to violations falling under the jurisdiction of the Lincoln housing court,

as outlined in subsection (b) of this section, the town council may also confer upon the housing

court, in furtherance of the court's jurisdiction, the power to proceed according to equity:

     (1) To restrain, prevent, enjoin, abate, or correct a violation;

     (2) To order the repair, vacation, or demolition of any dwelling existing in violation;

     (3) To otherwise compel compliance with all of the provisions of those ordinances,

regulations, and statutes; and

     (4) To order a dwelling into receivership and to order the removal of any cloud on the

title to the building or property that shall be binding upon all those claiming by, through, under,

or by virtue of any inferior liens or encumbrances pursuant to chapter 44 of title 34.

     (d) The municipal court shall have concurrent jurisdiction with the Rhode Island traffic

tribunal to hear and adjudicate those violations conferred upon the municipal court and

enumerated in � 8-18-3. Adjudication of summons by the municipal court shall be in

conformance with � 8-18-4. The municipal court shall hear and decide traffic matters in a manner

consistent with the procedures of the traffic tribunal, and subject to review by the chief magistrate

of the traffic tribunal in accordance with � 8-18-11. Any person desiring to appeal from an

adverse decision of the municipal court for violations enumerated in � 8-18-3, may seek review

thereof pursuant to the procedures set forth in � 31-41.1-8.

     (e) The town council of the town of Lincoln is authorized and empowered to appoint a

judge and clerk of the municipal court. The town council of the town of Lincoln is also authorized

to appoint a judge and clerk of the housing court, who may be, but is not required to be, the same

person(s) holding the judgeship and clerk position in the municipal court. The town council of the

town of Lincoln is authorized and empowered to enact ordinances governing the personnel,

operation, and procedure to be followed in the court and to establish a schedule of fees and costs,

and to otherwise provide for the operation and management of these courts. The municipal and

housing courts may impose a sentence not to exceed thirty (30) days in jail and impose a fine not

in excess of five hundred dollars ($500), or both. The courts are empowered to administer oaths,

compel the attendance of witnesses and punish persons for contempt and to execute search

warrants to the extent the warrants could be executed by a judge of the district court.


 

403)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-4-19

1 and 3

 

 

45-4-19. Combination of voting districts for special city council election in the city of

Pawtucket.

     (a) Notwithstanding any provision of the general or public laws to the contrary, the

Pawtucket board of canvassers shall combine councilmatic voting districts for a special primary

election and special election in 2018 to fill a vacancy on the Pawtucket city council. The districts

shall be combined so that there shall be at least one voting district in each of the six (6) council

wards in the city.

     (b) Once the voting districts are combined as provided in subsection (a) of this section,

the local board must advertise the combination of districts in a newspaper of general circulation

in the city no less than seven (7) days before the special primary election and again no less than

seven (7) days prior to the special election.


 

 404)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-23-45

212 and 268

 

 

45-23-45. General provisions -- Public design and improvement standards.

     (a) Public design and improvement standards for development projects shall be specified,

through reasonable, objective standards and criteria, in the design and improvement standards

section of the local regulations. Appropriate public improvement standards shall be specified for

each area or district of the municipality. Standards may include, but are not limited to,

specifications for rights-of-way, streets, sidewalks, lighting, landscaping, public access, utilities,

drainage systems, fire protection, and soil erosion control.

     (b) All public improvements required in a land development project or subdivision by a

municipality shall reflect the physical character and design for that district which that is specified

by the municipality's adopted comprehensive plan. Public improvement requirements and

standards need not be the same in all areas or districts of a municipality. The technical details of

the improvement standards may be contained in an appendix to the local regulations but shall be

considered part of the regulations.

     (c) A town or city that requires the installation of a common cistern or any other water

reservoir for fire protection purposes in a residential subdivision, may, by ordinance, provide the

developer the option in lieu thereof to require the installation of code-compliant residential

sprinkler systems in structures for human habitation.


 

405)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-24-31

165 and 244

 

 

45-24-31. Definitions.

     Where words or terms used in this chapter are defined in � 45-22.2-4, or 45-23-32, they

have the meanings stated in that section. In addition, the following words have the following

meanings. Additional words and phrases may be used in developing local ordinances under this

chapter; however, the words and phrases defined in this section are controlling in all local

ordinances created under this chapter:

     (1) Abutter. One whose property abuts, that is, adjoins at a border, boundary, or point

with no intervening land.

     (2) Accessory Dwelling Unit dwelling unit. A dwelling unit: (i) Rented to and occupied

either by one or more members of the family of the occupant or occupants of the principal

residence; or (ii) Reserved for rental occupancy by a person or a family where the principal

residence is owner occupied and that meets the following provisions:

     (A) In zoning districts that allow residential uses, no more than one accessory dwelling

unit may be an accessory to a single-family dwelling.

     (B) An accessory dwelling unit shall include separate cooking and sanitary facilities, with

its own legal means of ingress and egress, and is a complete, separate dwelling unit. The

accessory dwelling unit shall be within, or attached to, the principal dwelling-unit structure or

within an existing structure, such as a garage or barn, and designed so that the appearance of the

principal structure remains that of a one-family residence.

     (3) Accessory Use use. A use of land or of a building, or portion thereof, customarily

incidental and subordinate to the principal use of the land or building. An accessory use may be

restricted to the same lot as the principal use. An accessory use shall not be permitted without the

principal use to which it is related.

     (4) Aggrieved Party party. An aggrieved party, for purposes of this chapter, shall be:

     (i) Any person, or persons, or entity, or entities, who or that can demonstrate that his, her,

or its property will be injured by a decision of any officer or agency responsible for administering

the zoning ordinance of a city or town; or

     (ii) Anyone requiring notice pursuant to this chapter.

     (5) Agricultural Land land. "Agricultural land", as defined in � 45-22.2-4.

     (6) Airport Hazard Area hazard area. "Airport hazard area", as defined in � 1-3-2.

     (7) Applicant. An owner, or authorized agent of the owner, submitting an application or

appealing an action of any official, board, or agency.

     (8) Application. The completed form, or forms, and all accompanying documents,

exhibits, and fees required of an applicant by an approving authority for development review,

approval, or permitting purposes.

     (9) Buffer. Land that is maintained in either a natural or landscaped state, and is used to

screen and/or mitigate the impacts of development on surrounding areas, properties, or rights-of-

way.

     (10) Building. Any structure used or intended for supporting or sheltering any use or

occupancy.

     (11) Building Envelope envelope. The three-dimensional space within which a structure

is permitted to be built on a lot and that is defined by regulations governing building setbacks,

maximum height, and bulk; by other regulations; and/or by any combination thereof.

     (12) Building Height height. For a vacant parcel of land, building height shall be

measured from the average, existing-grade elevation where the foundation of the structure is

proposed. For an existing structure, building height shall be measured from average grade taken

from the outermost four (4) corners of the existing foundation. In all cases, building height shall

be measured to the top of the highest point of the existing or proposed roof or structure. This

distance shall exclude spires, chimneys, flag poles, and the like. For any property or structure

located in a special flood hazard area, as shown on the official FEMA Flood Insurance Rate Maps

(FIRMs), building height shall be measured from base flood elevation, and where freeboard, as

defined in this section, is being utilized or proposed, such freeboard area, not to exceed five feet

(5'), shall be excluded from the building height calculation; provided, however that the Rhode

Island coastal resources management council design elevation maps may be used by an owner or

applicant to establish a base flood elevation for a property that is higher than the official FEMA

FIRMs.

     (13) Cluster. A site-planning technique that concentrates buildings in specific areas on

the site to allow the remaining land to be used for recreation, common open space, and/or

preservation of environmentally, historically, culturally, or other sensitive features and/or

structures. The techniques used to concentrate buildings shall be specified in the ordinance and

may include, but are not limited to, reduction in lot areas, setback requirements, and/or bulk

requirements, with the resultant open land being devoted by deed restrictions for one or more

uses. Under cluster development, there is no increase in the number of lots that would be

permitted under conventional development except where ordinance provisions include incentive

bonuses for certain types or conditions of development.

     (14) Common Ownership ownership. Either:

     (i) Ownership by one or more individuals or entities in any form of ownership of two (2)

or more contiguous lots; or

     (ii) Ownership by any association (ownership may also include a municipality) of one or

more lots under specific development techniques.

     (15) Community Residence residence. A home or residential facility where children

and/or adults reside in a family setting and may or may not receive supervised care. This does not

include halfway houses or substance-abuse-treatment facilities substance-use-disorder-

treatment facilities. This does include, but is not limited, to, the following:

     (i) Whenever six (6) or fewer children or adults with retardation intellectual and/or

developmental disability reside in any type of residence in the community, as licensed by the

state pursuant to chapter 24 of title 40.1. All requirements pertaining to local zoning are waived

for these community residences;

     (ii) A group home providing care or supervision, or both, to not more than eight (8)

persons with disabilities, and licensed by the state pursuant to chapter 24 of title 40.1;

     (iii) A residence for children providing care or supervision, or both, to not more than

eight (8) children, including those of the care giver caregiver, and licensed by the state pursuant

to chapter 72.1 of title 42;

     (iv) A community transitional residence providing care or assistance, or both, to no more

than six (6) unrelated persons or no more than three (3) families, not to exceed a total of eight (8)

persons, requiring temporary financial assistance, and/or to persons who are victims of crimes,

abuse, or neglect, and who are expected to reside in that residence not less than sixty (60) days

nor more than two (2) years. Residents will have access to, and use of, all common areas,

including eating areas and living rooms, and will receive appropriate social services for the

purpose of fostering independence, self-sufficiency, and eventual transition to a permanent living

situation.

     (16) Comprehensive Plan plan. The comprehensive plan adopted and approved pursuant

to chapter 22.2 of this title and to which any zoning adopted pursuant to this chapter shall be in

compliance.

     (17) Day Care care -- Day-Care Center care center. Any other day-care center that is not

a family day-care home.

     (18) Day Care Day care -- Family Day-Care Home Family day-care home. Any home,

other than the individual's home, in which day care in lieu of parental care or supervision is

offered at the same time to six (6) or less individuals who are not relatives of the care giver

caregiver, but may not contain more than a total of eight (8) individuals receiving day care.

     (19) Density, Residential residential. The number of dwelling units per unit of land.

     (20) Development. The construction, reconstruction, conversion, structural alteration,

relocation, or enlargement of any structure; any mining, excavation, landfill, or land disturbance;

or any change in use, or alteration or extension of the use, of land.

     (21) Development Plan Review plan review. The process whereby authorized, local

officials review the site plans, maps, and other documentation of a development to determine the

compliance with the stated purposes and standards of the ordinance.

     (22) District. See "zoning-use district".

     (23) Drainage System system. A system for the removal of water from land by drains,

grading, or other appropriate means. These techniques may include runoff controls to minimize

erosion and sedimentation during and after construction or development; the means for preserving

surface and groundwaters; and the prevention and/or alleviation of flooding.

     (24) Dwelling Unit unit. A structure, or portion of a structure, providing complete,

independent living facilities for one or more persons, including permanent provisions for living,

sleeping, eating, cooking, and sanitation, and containing a separate means of ingress and egress.

     (25) Extractive Industry industry. The extraction of minerals, including: solids, such as

coal and ores; liquids, such as crude petroleum; and gases, such as natural gases. The term also

includes quarrying; well operation; milling, such as crushing, screening, washing, and flotation;

and other preparation customarily done at the extraction site or as a part of the extractive activity.

     (26) Family. A person, or persons, related by blood, marriage, or other legal means. See

also "household".

     (27) Floating Zone zone. An unmapped zoning district adopted within the ordinance that

is established on the zoning map only when an application for development, meeting the zone

requirements, is approved.

     (28) Floodplains, or Flood Hazard Area hazard area. As defined in � 45-22.2-4.

     (29) Freeboard. A factor of safety expressed in feet above the base flood elevation of a

flood hazard area for purposes of floodplain management. Freeboard compensates for the many

unknown factors that could contribute to flood heights, such as wave action, bridge openings, and

the hydrological effect of urbanization of the watershed.

     (30) Groundwater. "Groundwater" and associated terms, as defined in � 46-13.1-3.

     (31) Halfway House house. A residential facility for adults or children who have been

institutionalized for criminal conduct and who require a group setting to facilitate the transition to

a functional member of society.

     (32) Hardship. See � 45-24-41.

     (33) Historic District, or Historic Site district or historic site. As defined in � 45-22.2-4.

     (34) Home Occupation occupation. Any activity customarily carried out for gain by a

resident, conducted as an accessory use in the resident's dwelling unit.

     (35) Household. One or more persons living together in a single-dwelling unit, with

common access to, and common use of, all living and eating areas and all areas and facilities for

the preparation and storage of food within the dwelling unit. The term "household unit" is

synonymous with the term "dwelling unit" for determining the number of units allowed within

any structure on any lot in a zoning district. An individual household shall consist of any one of

the following:

     (i) A family, which may also include servants and employees living with the family; or

     (ii) A person or group of unrelated persons living together. The maximum number may

be set by local ordinance, but this maximum shall not be less than three (3).

     (36) Incentive Zoning zoning. The process whereby the local authority may grant

additional development capacity in exchange for the developer's provision of a public benefit or

amenity as specified in local ordinances.

     (37) Infrastructure. Facilities and services needed to sustain residential, commercial,

industrial, institutional, and other activities.

     (38) Land-Development Projectdevelopment project. A project in which one or more

lots, tracts, or parcels of land are developed or redeveloped as a coordinated site for one or more

uses, units, or structures, including, but not limited to, planned development and/or cluster

development for residential, commercial, institutional, recreational, open space, and/or mixed

uses as provided in the zoning ordinance.

     (39) Lot. Either:

     (i) The basic development unit for determination of lot area, depth, and other dimensional

regulations; or

     (ii) A parcel of land whose boundaries have been established by some legal instrument,

such as a recorded deed or recorded map, and which that is recognized as a separate legal entity

for purposes of transfer of title.

     (40) Lot Area area. The total area within the boundaries of a lot, excluding any street

right-of-way, usually reported in acres or square feet.

     (41) Lot Area areaMinimum minimum. The smallest land area established by the local

zoning ordinance upon which a use, building, or structure may be located in a particular zoning

district.

     (42) Lot Building Coverage building coverage. That portion of the lot that is, or may be,

covered by buildings and accessory buildings.

     (43) Lot Depth depth. The distance measured from the front lot line to the rear lot line.

For lots where the front and rear lot lines are not parallel, the lot depth is an average of the depth.

     (44) Lot Frontage frontage. That portion of a lot abutting a street. A zoning ordinance

shall specify how noncontiguous frontage will be considered with regard to minimum frontage

requirements.

     (45) Lot Line line. A line of record, bounding a lot, that divides one lot from another lot

or from a public or private street or any other public or private space and shall include:

     (i) Front: the lot line separating a lot from a street right-of-way. A zoning ordinance shall

specify the method to be used to determine the front lot line on lots fronting on more than one

street, for example, corner and through lots;

     (ii) Rear: the lot line opposite and most distant from the front lot line, or in the case of

triangular or otherwise irregularly shaped lots, an assumed line at least ten feet (10') in length

entirely within the lot, parallel to and at a maximum distance from, the front lot line; and

     (iii) Side: any lot line other than a front or rear lot line. On a corner lot, a side lot line

may be a street lot line, depending on requirements of the local zoning ordinance.

     (46) Lot Size, Minimum Lot size, minimum. Shall have the same meaning as "minimum

lot area" defined herein.

     (47) Lot, Through through. A lot that fronts upon two (2) parallel streets, or that fronts

upon two (2) streets that do not intersect at the boundaries of the lot.

     (48) Lot Width width. The horizontal distance between the side lines of a lot measured at

right angles to its depth along a straight line parallel to the front lot line at the minimum front

setback line.

     (49) Mere Inconvenience inconvenience. See � 45-24-41.

     (50) Mixed Use use. A mixture of land uses within a single development, building, or

tract.

     (51) Modification. Permission granted and administered by the zoning enforcement

officer of the city or town, and pursuant to the provisions of this chapter to grant a dimensional

variance other than lot area requirements from the zoning ordinance to a limited degree as

determined by the zoning ordinance of the city or town, but not to exceed twenty-five percent

(25%) of each of the applicable dimensional requirements.

     (52) Nonconformance. A building, structure, or parcel of land, or use thereof, lawfully

existing at the time of the adoption or amendment of a zoning ordinance and not in conformity

with the provisions of that ordinance or amendment. Nonconformance is of only two (2) types:

     (i) Nonconforming by use: a lawfully established use of land, building, or structure that is

not a permitted use in that zoning district. A building or structure containing more dwelling units

than are permitted by the use regulations of a zoning ordinance is nonconformity by use; or

     (ii) Nonconforming by dimension: a building, structure, or parcel of land not in

compliance with the dimensional regulations of the zoning ordinance. Dimensional regulations

include all regulations of the zoning ordinance, other than those pertaining to the permitted uses.

A building or structure containing more dwelling units than are permitted by the use regulations

of a zoning ordinance is nonconforming by use; a building or structure containing a permitted

number of dwelling units by the use regulations of the zoning ordinance, but not meeting the lot

area per dwelling unit regulations, is nonconforming by dimension.

     (53) Overlay District district. A district established in a zoning ordinance that is

superimposed on one or more districts or parts of districts. The standards and requirements

associated with an overlay district may be more or less restrictive than those in the underlying

districts consistent with other applicable state and federal laws.

     (54) Performance Standards standards. A set of criteria or limits relating to elements that

a particular use or process must either meet or may not exceed.

     (55) Permitted Use use. A use by right that is specifically authorized in a particular

zoning district.

     (56) Planned Development development. A "land-development project", as defined in

subsection (38) � 45-24-31(38), and developed according to plan as a single entity and

containing one or more structures and/or uses with appurtenant common areas.

     (57) Plant Agriculture agriculture. The growing of plants for food or fiber, to sell or

consume.

     (58) Preapplication Conference conference. A review meeting of a proposed

development held between applicants and reviewing agencies as permitted by law and municipal

ordinance, before formal submission of an application for a permit or for development approval.

     (59) Setback Line or Lines line or lines. A line, or lines, parallel to a lot line at the

minimum distance of the required setback for the zoning district in which the lot is located that

establishes the area within which the principal structure must be erected or placed.

     (60) Site Plan plan. The development plan for one or more lots on which is shown the

existing and/or the proposed conditions of the lot.

     (61) Slope of Land land. The grade, pitch, rise, or incline of the topographic landform or

surface of the ground.

     (62) Special Use use. A regulated use that is permitted pursuant to the special-use permit

issued by the authorized governmental entity, pursuant to � 45-24-42. Formerly referred to as a

special exception.

     (63) Structure. A combination of materials to form a construction for use, occupancy, or

ornamentation, whether installed on, above, or below, the surface of land or water.

     (64) Substandard Lot of Record lot of record. Any lot lawfully existing at the time of

adoption or amendment of a zoning ordinance and not in conformance with the dimensional

and/or area provisions of that ordinance.

     (65) Use. The purpose or activity for which land or buildings are designed, arranged, or

intended, or for which land or buildings are occupied or maintained.

     (66) Variance. Permission to depart from the literal requirements of a zoning ordinance.

An authorization for the construction or maintenance of a building or structure, or for the

establishment or maintenance of a use of land, that is prohibited by a zoning ordinance. There are

only two (2) categories of variance, a use variance or a dimensional variance.

     (i) Use Variance variance. Permission to depart from the use requirements of a zoning

ordinance where the applicant for the requested variance has shown by evidence upon the record

that the subject land or structure cannot yield any beneficial use if it is to conform to the

provisions of the zoning ordinance.

     (ii) Dimensional Variance variance. Permission to depart from the dimensional

requirements of a zoning ordinance, where the applicant for the requested relief has shown, by

evidence upon the record, that there is no other reasonable alternative way to enjoy a legally

permitted beneficial use of the subject property unless granted the requested relief from the

dimensional regulations. However, the fact that a use may be more profitable or that a structure

may be more valuable after the relief is granted are not grounds for relief.

     (67) Waters. As defined in � 46-12-1(23).

     (68) Wetland, Coastal coastal. As defined in � 45-22.2-4.

     (69) Wetland, Freshwater freshwater. As defined in � 2-1-20.

     (70) Zoning Certificate certificate. A document signed by the zoning-enforcement

officer, as required in the zoning ordinance, that acknowledges that a use, structure, building, or

lot either complies with, or is legally nonconforming to, the provisions of the municipal zoning

ordinance or is an authorized variance or modification therefrom.

     (71) Zoning Map map. The map, or maps, that are a part of the zoning ordinance and that

delineate the boundaries of all mapped zoning districts within the physical boundary of the city or

town.

     (72) Zoning Ordinance ordinance. An ordinance enacted by the legislative body of the

city or town pursuant to this chapter and in the manner providing for the adoption of ordinances

in the city or town's legislative or home rule charter, if any, that establish regulations and

standards relating to the nature and extent of uses of land and structures; that is consistent with

the comprehensive plan of the city or town as defined in chapter 22.2 of this title; that includes a

zoning map,; and that complies with the provisions of this chapter.

     (73) Zoning-Use use District district. The basic unit in zoning, either mapped or

unmapped, to which a uniform set of regulations applies, or a uniform set of regulations for a

specified use. Zoning-use districts include, but are not limited to: agricultural, commercial,

industrial, institutional, open space, and residential. Each district may include sub-districts.

Districts may be combined.


 

406)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-24-53

166 and 243

 

 

45-24-53. Adoption -- Notice and hearing requirements.

     (a) No zoning ordinance shall be adopted, repealed, or amended until after a public

hearing has been held upon the question before the city or town council. The city or town council

shall first give notice of the public hearing by publication of notice in a newspaper of general

circulation within the city or town at least once each week for three (3) successive weeks prior to

the date of the hearing, which may include the week in which the hearing is to be held, at which

hearing opportunity shall be given to all persons interested to be heard upon the matter of the

proposed ordinance. Written notice, which may be a copy of the newspaper notice, shall be

mailed to the statewide planning program of the department of administration, and, where

applicable, to the parties specified in subsections (b), (c), (d), and (e), and (f) of this section, at

least two (2) weeks prior to the hearing. The newspaper notice shall be published as a display

advertisement, using a type size at least as large as the normal type size used by the newspaper in

its news articles, and shall:

     (1) Specify the place of the hearing and the date and time of its commencement;

     (2) Indicate that adoption, amendment, or repeal of a zoning ordinance is under

consideration;

     (3) Contain a statement of the proposed amendments to the ordinance that may be printed

once in its entirety, or summarize and describe the matter under consideration as long as the

intent and effect of the proposed ordinance is expressly written in that notice;

     (4) Advise those interested where and when a copy of the matter under consideration may

be obtained or examined and copied; and

     (5) State that the proposals shown on the ordinance may be altered or amended prior to

the close of the public hearing without further advertising, as a result of further study or because

of the views expressed at the public hearing. Any alteration or amendment must be presented for

comment in the course of the hearing.

     (b) Where a proposed general amendment to an existing zoning ordinance includes

changes in an existing zoning map, public notice shall be given as required by subsection (a) of

this section.

     (c) Where a proposed text amendment to an existing zoning ordinance would cause a

conforming lot of record to become nonconforming by lot area and/or frontage, written notice

shall be given to all owners of such the real property as shown on the current real estate tax

assessment records of the city or town. Such The notice shall be given at least two (2) weeks

prior to the hearing at which the text amendment is to be considered, with the content required by

subsection (a) of this section. If the city or town zoning ordinance contains an existing merger

clause to which the nonconforming lots would be subject, the notice shall include reference to the

merger clause and the impacts of common ownership of nonconforming lots. The sender of the

notice shall utilize and obtain a United States Postal Service certificate of mailing, and such the

certificate or an electronic copy thereof shall be retained to demonstrate proof of such the

mailing.

     (c)(d) Where a proposed amendment to an existing ordinance includes a specific change

in a zoning district map, but does not affect districts generally, public notice shall be given as

required by subsection (a) of this section, with the additional requirements that:

     (1) Notice shall include a map showing the existing and proposed boundaries, zoning

district boundaries, existing streets and roads and their names, and city and town boundaries

where appropriate; and

     (2) Written notice of the date, time, and place of the public hearing and the nature and

purpose of the hearing shall be sent to all owners of real property whose property is located in or

within not less than two hundred feet (200') of the perimeter of the area proposed for change,

whether within the city or town or within an adjacent city or town. Notice shall also be sent to any

individual or entity holding a recorded conservation or preservation restriction on the property

that is the subject of the amendment. The notice shall be sent by registered, certified, or first-class

mail to the last known address of the owners, as shown on the current real estate tax assessment

records of the city or town in which the property is located; provided, for any notice sent by first-

class mail, the sender of the notice shall utilize and obtain a United States Postal Service

certificate of mailing, PS form 3817, or any applicable version thereof, to demonstrate proof of

such mailing.

     (d)(e) Notice of a public hearing shall be sent by first-class mail to the city or town

council of any city or town to which one or more of the following pertain:

     (1) That is located in or within not less than two hundred feet (200') of the boundary of

the area proposed for change; or

     (2) Where there is a public or quasi-public water source, or private water source that is

used, or is suitable for use, as a public water source, within two thousand feet (2,000') of any real

property that is the subject of a proposed zoning change, regardless of municipal boundaries.

     (e)(f) Notice of a public hearing shall be sent to the governing body of any state or

municipal water department or agency, special water district, or private water company that has

riparian rights to a surface water resource and/or surface watershed that is used, or is suitable for

use, as a public water source and that is within two thousand feet (2,000') of any real property that

is the subject of a proposed zoning change; provided, that the governing body of any state or

municipal water department or agency, special water district, or private water company has filed

with the building inspector in the city or town a map survey, that shall be kept as a public record,

showing areas of surface water resources and/or watersheds and parcels of land within two

thousand feet (2,000') thereof.

     (f)(g) Notwithstanding any of the requirements set forth in subsections (a) through (e)

above, each municipality shall establish and maintain a public notice registry allowing any person

or entity to register for electronic notice of any changes to the zoning ordinance. The city or town

shall provide public notice annually of the existence of the electronic registry by publication of

notice in a newspaper of general circulation within the city or town. In addition, each

municipality is hereby encouraged to provide public notice of the existence of the public notice

registry in all of its current and future communications with the public, including, but not limited

to, governmental websites, electronic newsletters, public bulletins, press releases, and all other

means the municipality may use to impart information to the local community.

     (1) Provided, however, notice pursuant to a public notice registry as per this section does

not alone qualify a person or entity on the public notice registry as an "aggrieved party" under �

45-24-31(4).

     (g)(h) No defect in the form of any notice under this section shall render any ordinance or

amendment invalid, unless the defect is found to be intentional or misleading.

     (h)(i) Costs of any notice required under this section shall be borne by the applicant.

     (i)(j) In granting a zoning ordinance amendment, notwithstanding the provisions of � 45-

24-37, the town or city council may limit the change to one of the permitted uses in the zone to

that which the subject land is rezoned and impose limitations, conditions, and restrictions,

including, without limitation: (1) Requiring the petitioner to obtain a permit or approval from any

and all state or local governmental agencies or instrumentalities having jurisdiction over the land

and use that are the subject of the zoning change; (2) Those relating to the effectiveness or

continued effectiveness of the zoning change; and/or (3) Those relating to the use of the land as it

deems necessary. The responsible town or city official shall cause the limitations and conditions

so imposed to be clearly noted on the zoning map and recorded in the land evidence records;

provided, that in the case of a conditional zone change, the limitations, restrictions, and

conditions shall not be noted on the zoning map until the zone change has become effective. If the

permitted use for which the land has been rezoned is abandoned or if the land is not used for the

requested purpose for a period of two (2) years or more after the zone change becomes effective,

the town or city council may, after a public hearing, change the land to its original zoning use

before the petition was filed. If any limitation, condition, or restriction in an ordinance is held to

be invalid by a court in any action, that holding shall not cause the remainder of the ordinance to

be invalid.

     (j)(k) The above requirements are to be construed as minimum requirements.


 

407)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-32-1

156 and 292

 

 

45-32-1. Compliance prerequisite to further proceedings.

     A community must comply with the requirements of �� 45-32-2 -- 45-32-4 45-32-3

before proceeding further under chapters 31 -- 33 of this title.


 

408)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2

156 and 292

 

 

CHAPTER 45-33.2

MUNICIPAL TAX INCREMENT FINANCING ACT


 

 

 

 

 

409)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-1

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-1. Short title.

     This chapter may be referred to and cited as the "Tax Increment Financing Act".

"Municipal Tax Increment Financing Act."


 

410)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-3

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-3. Definitions.

     As used in �� 45-33.2-3 through 45-33.2-21 in this chapter, excepting � 45-33.2-3.1, or

as otherwise specified with respect to other sections, unless a different meaning clearly appears

from the context, the following words have the following meanings:

     (1) "Base date" means the last assessment date next preceding the adoption of the project

plan.

     (2) "Capital project" means a project to purchase, upgrade, improve, or extend the useful

life of property infrastructure or equipment with a useful life of more than one year.

     (23) "Project" means the undertaking of one or more of the following activities in

accordance with a project plan:

     (i) The acquisition of land and improvements on it, if any, within the project area, and the

assembly and clearance of the land so acquired,

     (ii) The development, redevelopment, revitalization, or conservation of the project area

through the construction or rehabilitation of buildings or other improvements or through

acquisition by gift, purchase, or eminent domain of land and any improvements of the area, and

demolition, removal, or rehabilitation of those improvements, whenever these activities are

necessary to provide land for and the development of needed municipal and other public facilities

or industrial or commercial development or revitalization, or to eliminate unhealthful, unsanitary,

or unsafe conditions or lessen density, mitigate or eliminate traffic congestion, reduce traffic

hazards, eliminate obsolete or other uses detrimental to the public welfare or otherwise remove or

prevent the spread of blight or deterioration,

     (iii) The provision of grants, loans, security or other assistance from project revenues or

other revenues and other funds in connection with (A) home and neighborhood improvement

programs, (B) programs to acquire, renovate or transfer abandoned or fully or partially vacated

houses, and (C) programs to acquire land, demolish buildings and other structures and clear and

rehabilitate sites for the purpose of reducing building density or promoting new housing

construction, or

     (iv) The provision of grants, loans, security or other assistance from project revenues or

other revenues and other funds to combat poverty, improve municipal and neighborhood living

conditions and enhance educational and employment opportunities, including, without limiting

the generality of the foregoing, by means of job training and retraining programs, literacy

programs, apprenticeship programs, programs to provide post-secondary postsecondary school

educational grants or other assistance to students meeting eligibility criteria established in the

project plan, programs to improve the performance of public schools, pilot projects to provide

special or enhanced municipal services and commercial and industrial revitalization and

development.

     (v) A project may involve a combination of the previously mentioned activities. A project

may include the provision of financial and other assistance in the relocation of persons and

organizations displaced thereby, and the planning and construction, reconstruction, or

rehabilitation of public facilities.

     (34) "Project area" except as set forth in this subdivision, means all or any portion of a

"redevelopment area," as that term is defined in � 45-31-8(15), in which the project is to be

carried out; provided, that the following projects are not required to be in a "redevelopment area":

(i) the The acquisition and clearance of land and the construction on it of a municipal or other

public facility under the definition of "project," paragraphs (23)(i)or (23)(ii); or (ii) a A project

described in paragraphs (23)(iii) or (23)(iv) of the definition of "project.". The project area may

consist of one or more parcels or lots of land, whether or not contiguous, or one or more buildings

or structures, whether or not adjacent, on one or more parcels of land. The project area may, but

need not, be within the tax increment area. All or any portion of a project area may be amended

as provided in � 45-33.2-4. A project for which a designated beneficiary class or classes is

established on the basis of income and/or some other generally applicable criteria in the project

plan may have, but is not required to have, a project area.

     (4) (5) (i) "Project plan" means a plan, which, except as set forth in this subdivision, is

part of a "redevelopment plan," as that term is defined in � 45-31-8(16), adopted by a city or town

in the manner provided in � 45-33.2-4, for a project, provided, that a project plan for the

following projects is not required to be a part of a "redevelopment plan": (A) the acquisition and

clearance of land and the construction on it of a municipal or other public facility under

paragraphs (23)(i) or (23)(ii) of the definition of "project"; or (B) a project under subdivision (2).

The project plan shall present an estimate of project costs and the amounts and sources of funds

to be used to defray those costs and shall include provisions for tax increment funding and/or

financing of project costs in whole or in part. The tax increment financing provisions of the

project plan shall state the estimated amount of indebtedness to be incurred pursuant to this

chapter, an estimate of the tax increment to be generated as a result of the project, the method of

calculating the tax increment, together with any provisions for adjustment of the method of

calculation, and shall designate the board or officer of the city or town responsible for calculating

the tax increment. Funds may be provided to carry out the plan from any lawful source, including

the direct use of all or any portion of the tax increment therefore or the issuance of bonds under

this chapter, but may not be provided by the issuance of general obligation bonds for any purpose

for which general obligation bonds could not be issued in the absence of this chapter. The plan

may include any other provisions that may be deemed necessary in order to carry out the tax

increment funding and/or financing of the project. The project plan shall not be inconsistent with

the comprehensive plan for the city or town as is then applicable, shall be sufficiently complete to

indicate the nature of any designated beneficiary class, as described in this subdivision, the

location and boundaries of any project area and of the tax increment area, and land acquisition,

demolition, removal and rehabilitation of structures and development, redevelopment, and

general public improvements that are proposed to be carried out within the project area, and to the

extent applicable the plan shall indicate the proposed method for relocation of persons or

organizations that may be displaced as a result of carrying out the project.

     (ii) Once adopted by the legislative body of a city or town, a project plan may be

amended to add additional projects, to increase the estimated amount of indebtedness to be

incurred pursuant to this chapter or to amend all or any portion of a project area or the designation

of a beneficiary class relating to any project contained in the project plan, in the manner provided

in � 45-33.2-4. Each project contained in a project plan shall either have a project area designated

in the project plan or there shall be established in the project plan a designated beneficiary class

or classes (from whose members the actual beneficiaries shall be chosen) on the basis of income

(with provision for revision of income limits due to inflation and other external economic factors)

or some other generally applicable criteria; provided, that a project may have both a project area

and a designated beneficiary class or classes.

     (56) "Project revenues" means any receipts of a city or town with respect to a project or

the tax increment area or tax increment district, as defined in � 45-33.2-3.1(11), relating to it

including, without limiting the generality of the foregoing, tax increments, repayments of loans,

including loans made under � 45-33.2-5(13), investment earnings, proceeds of insurance, or

disposition of property, and proceeds of borrowing under this chapter.

     (67) "Tax increment" , for the purposes of �� 45-33.2-3 through 45-33.2-21, means the

tax levied on the real and personal property situated in or otherwise assignable for the purposes of

property taxation to a tax increment area, to the extent that the tax is attributable to an excess of

the aggregate taxable valuation of the property over its aggregate taxable valuation as of the base

date. The portion of the tax levy attributable to the increased valuation after the base date shall be

calculated using the same classification factors as were used as of the base date, or without

classification factors if property was not classified for tax purposes as of the base date. In

calculating the tax increment there shall be excluded from the tax the portion levied for the

purpose of paying the principal of or interest on bonds, notes, and other evidences of

indebtedness which are general obligations of the city or town. Prior to the actual use of any

portion of a tax increment to support or secure a project or portion of one, unused tax increment

may be deposited upon receipt into the general fund of the city or town, to be used in accordance

with generally applicable law. Once the city or town has used any portion of the tax increment to

support or secure one or more projects or portions of them, only the excess of tax increment may

be deposited into the general fund of the city or town, to be used in accordance with generally

applicable law, after satisfaction of: (i) the payment of the principal of or interest on any special

obligation bonds issued under the provisions of � 45-33.2-6, as principal and interest shall then be

due and owing; (ii) any requirement to fund any reserve or other account or satisfy any other

financial requirement which must be satisfied in connection with the issuance of bonds or any

other indebtedness or obligation incurred in connection with any project or portion of one; and

(iii) any payments made to directly fund any project or portion of one as provided in the project

plan therefor.

     (78) "Tax increment area" means a tax increment area designated in a project plan

adopted pursuant to � 45-33.2-4. The tax increment area may consist of one or more parcels or

lots of land, whether or not contiguous, on one or more buildings or structures, whether or not

adjacent, or on one or more parcels of land; provided, that upon adoption of the project plan the

aggregate taxable valuation of the property within all tax increment areas within the city or town

does not exceed twenty-five percent (25%) of the taxable valuation of all property subject to

taxation within the city or town.


 

411)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-3.1

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-3.1. Additional definitions.

     As used in �� 45-33.2-22 through 45-33.2-2928, or as otherwise specified, unless the

context otherwise requires:

     (1) "Betterment assessment" means a special charge that is permitted where real property

within a limited and determinable area receives a special benefit or advantage, other than the

general advantage to the community, from the construction of a public improvement. If

properties abutting or nearby the improvement are specially benefited, all or a portion of the cost

of making that improvement may be assessed on those properties.

     (2) "Capital project" means a project to purchase, upgrade, improve, or extend the useful

life of property infrastructure or equipment with a useful life of more than one year.

     (3) "Captured assessed value" means the amount, as a percentage or stated sum, of

increased assessed value that is utilized from year to year to finance project costs pursuant to a

tax increment district master plan.

     (4) "Current assessed value" means the assessed value of all taxable real property within

a tax increment district as of December 31 of each year that the tax increment district remains in

effect.

     (5) "Downtown" means a central business district or other commercial neighborhood area

of a community that serves as a center of socioeconomic interaction in the community,

characterized by a cohesive core of commercial and mixed-use buildings, often interspersed with

civic, religious and residential buildings and public spaces, that are typically arranged along a

main street and intersecting side streets and served by public infrastructure.

     (6) "Increased assessed value" means the valuation amount by which the current assessed

value of a tax increment district exceeds the original assessed value of the tax increment district.

If the current assessed value is equal to or less than the original assessed value, there is no

increased assessed value.

     (7) "Maintenance and operation" means all activities necessary to maintain facilities after

they have been developed and all activities necessary to operate such facilities, including, but not

limited to, informational, promotional and educational programs and safety and surveillance

activities.

     (8) "Original assessed value" means the assessed value of all taxable real property within

a tax increment district as of December 31 of the tax year preceding the year in which the tax

increment district was established by a city or town council.

     (9) "Project costs" means any expenditures or monetary obligations incurred or expected

to be incurred that are authorized by � 45-33.2-28 and included in a tax increment district master

plan.

     (10) "Tax increment" means real property taxes assessed by a city or town upon the

increased assessed value of property in the tax increment district.

     (11) "Tax increment district" means that area wholly within the corporate limits of a

municipality that has been established and designated as such pursuant to � 45-33.2-23 and that is

to be developed under a tax increment district master plan.

     (12) "Tax increment district financial plan" means a statement of the project costs and

sources of revenue required to accomplish the tax increment district master plan.

     (13) "Tax increment district master plan" means a statement of means and objectives

prepared by a city or town relating to a tax increment district designed to provide new

employment opportunities,; retain existing employment,; provide housing opportunities,;

improve or broaden the tax base; or construct or improve the physical facilities and structures

through the development of industrial, commercial, residential, retail, and mixed use, transit-

oriented development, downtown development, or any combination thereof, as described in � 45-

33.2-26.

     (14) "Tax year" means the period of time beginning on July 1 and ending on the

succeeding June 30 or such other twelve-(12) month (12) period adopted as the tax year of a city

or town.

     (15) "Transit" means transportation systems in which people are conveyed by means

other than their own vehicles, including, but not limited to, bus systems, street cars, ferries, light

rail, and other rail systems.

     (16) "Transit facility" means a place providing access to transit services, including, but

not limited to, bus stops, bus stations, interchanges on a highway used by one or more transit

providers, ferry landings, train stations, shuttle terminals, and bus rapid transit stops.

     (17) "Transit-oriented development" means the development of residential, commercial,

and employment centers within one-half (1/2) mile or walking distance of a transit facility,

including rail and bus rapid transit, and services that meet transit supportive standards for land

uses, built environment densities, and walkable environments, in order to facilitate and encourage

the use of those services. Transit-oriented development includes, but is not limited to, transit

vehicles such as buses, ferries, vans, rail conveyances, and related equipment; bus shelters and

other transit-related structures; benches, signs, and other transit-related infrastructure; bicycle-

lane construction and other bicycle-related improvements; pedestrian improvements, such as

crosswalks, crosswalk signals and warning systems, and crosswalk curb treatments; and the

industrial, commercial, residential, retail, and mixed-use portions of transit-oriented development

projects.


 

 

412)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-5

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-5. Authorization to undertake projects -- Powers.

     Cities and towns are authorized to undertake projects pursuant to duly adopted project

plans and tax increment district master plans, as defined in � 45-33.2-3.1(13). In addition to

powers granted under this section or by any other law, for the purposes of carrying out a project

as authorized by this chapter, a city or town has the following powers:

     (1) To incur indebtedness, and pledge tax increments, and other project revenues and

other revenues for repayment of indebtedness;

     (2) To designate a board or officer of the city or town to be responsible for administering

the project plan or tax increment district master plan;

     (3) To make and enter into all contracts and agreements necessary in order to carry out

the project;

     (4) To receive from the federal government or the state, loans or grants for or in aid of a

project, and to receive contributions from any other source to defray project costs;

     (5) To purchase or otherwise acquire property or interests in property therein within or

without a project area or tax increment district as the city or town may deem necessary in order to

carry out the project;

     (6) To make relocation payments to persons, businesses, or organizations that may be

displaced as a result of carrying out the project;

     (7) To clear and improve property acquired by it pursuant to the project plan or tax

increment district master plan, and construct public facilities on it, or contract for the

construction, development, redevelopment, rehabilitation, remodeling, alteration, or repair of the

property;

     (8) To cause parks, playgrounds, or schools or water, sewer, or drainage facilities, or any

other public improvements which it otherwise is authorized to undertake, to be laid out,

constructed, or furnished in connection with the project;

     (9) To lay out and construct, alter, relocate, change the grade of, make specific repairs

upon or discontinue public ways, and construct sidewalks in or adjacent to the project area or tax

increment district;

     (10) To cause private ways, sidewalks, ways for vehicular travel, playgrounds, or water,

sewer, or drainage facilities and similar improvements to be constructed within the project area or

tax increment district for the particular use of the project area or tax increment district of those

dwelling or working in it;

     (11) To adopt ordinances, or repeal or modify ordinances, or establish exceptions to

existing ordinances regulating the design, construction, and use of buildings;

     (12) To sell, mortgage, lease as lessor, transfer, or dispose of any property or interest in

property acquired by it pursuant to the project plan or tax increment district master plan for

development, redevelopment, or rehabilitation in accordance with the plan;

     (13) To grant or loan any project revenues or other revenues, including the proceeds of

any issue of bonds or notes issued pursuant to this chapter to an individual or any private

enterprise, nonprofit organization or governmental or quasi-governmental entity in order to

finance the cost of any portion of a project authorized under this chapter, including, without

limiting the generality of the preceding, the cost of acquiring land for, and constructing or

rehabilitating and equipping industrial or commercial development facilities industrial,

commercial, residential, retail and mixed use, transit-oriented development, downtown

development or any combination thereof, within the project area in accordance with the plan or

within a tax increment district in accordance with a tax increment district master plan, or to loan

bond or note proceeds in order to refinance any loans;

     (14) To invest project revenues or other revenues as provided in � 45-33.2-12; and

     (15) To do all things reasonably necessary or convenient to carry out the powers granted

in this chapter.


 

413)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-6

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-6. Issuance of special obligation bonds.

     (a) A city or town may, in compliance with any applicable provisions of the general laws

(except as provided in this section) borrow money by the issue of special obligation bonds for the

purpose of carrying out a project pursuant to a duly adopted project plan or tax increment district

master plan, as defined in �45-33.2-3.1(11)(13). Without limiting the generality of the preceding,

the bonds may be issued for project costs which may include interest prior to and during the

carrying out of a project and for a reasonable time thereafter, reserves that may be required by

any agreement securing the bonds, and all other expenses including reimbursements of expenses

previously paid from any other source, incidental to planning, carrying out, and financing the

project. Bonds issued under this section shall be payable solely from:

     (1) Project project revenues;

     (2) A pledge of and lien upon any or all of the income, proceeds, revenues and property

of the project within the tax increment area, project area or tax increment district, including the

proceeds of grants, loans, advances or contributions from the federal government, the state or

other source; and

     (3) Any combination of the sources in subsections (a)(1) and (a)(2) of this section, and

shall not be deemed to be a pledge of faith and credit of the city or town. Every bond issued under

this section shall recite on its face that it is a special obligation bond payable solely from project

revenues or other revenues pledged for its repayment.

     (b) The bonds of each issue shall be dated and may be made redeemable before maturity

with or without premium. Subject to the authorizing vote, the officers authorized to sell the bonds

shall determine the date or dates of the bonds, their denomination or denominations, the place or

places of payment of the principal and interest, which may be at any bank or trust company

within or without the state, their interest rate or rates, prices, maturity or maturities not to exceed

thirty (30) years, redemption privileges, if any, and the form and other details of the bonds,

including interest coupons to be attached to them. The bonds shall be signed by the city or town

treasurer, countersigned by the mayor of a city or by the president of the town council of a town,

either manually or by facsimile, and shall bear the seal of the city or town or a facsimile of the

seal. Any coupons attached thereto shall bear the facsimile signature of the city or town treasurer.

     (c) In case any officer whose signature or a facsimile of whose signature appears on any

bonds, coupons, or notes issued under this chapter ceases to be an officer before their delivery,

the signature or the facsimile shall nevertheless be valid and sufficient for all purposes the same

as if the officer had remained in office until the delivery.

     (d) The bonds may be issued in coupon or registered form, or both, and provision may be

made for the registration of any coupon bonds as to principal alone and also as to principal and

interest, for the reconversion into coupon bonds or bonds registered as to both principal and

interest, and for the interchange of registered and coupon bonds. Subject to the authorizing vote,

the officers authorized to sell the bonds may sell the bonds in a manner, either at public or private

sale, and for a price, as they may determine will best effect the purposes of this chapter.

     (e) Prior to the preparation of definitive bonds, the city or town may issue interim receipts

or temporary bonds, with or without coupons, exchangeable for definitive bonds when those

bonds have been executed and are available for delivery. Provision may be made for the

replacement of any bonds which have become mutilated or have been destroyed or lost.

     (f) Notwithstanding any provisions of any municipal charter or general or special law to

the contrary, bonds issued under this section may provide for annual or more frequent

installments of principal in equal, diminishing, or increasing amounts, with the first installment of

principal to be due at any time within five (5) years from the date of the issuance of the bonds.

     (g) While any bonds issued hereunder remain outstanding, the existence of the tax

increment district and the powers and duties of a city or town with respect to such tax increment

district shall not be diminished or impaired in any way that will affect adversely the interests and

rights of the holders of the bonds. Any bonds issued by a city or town pursuant to this section

shall contain on their face a statement to the effect that neither the state nor the city or town shall

be obliged to pay the principal of or the interest thereon, and that neither the full faith and credit

or taxing power of the state or the city or town is pledged to the payment of the bonds. All bonds

issued under this section are deemed to be negotiable instruments under the laws of this state.

     (h) As used in this section, "bonds" means any bonds, including refunding bonds, notes,

interim certificates, debentures or other obligations.


 

414)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-12

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-12. Investment of funds.

     Subject to any agreement securing bonds or notes issued under this chapter, the proceeds

of the bonds or notes, pledged tax increments, and other project revenues may be deposited or

invested in:

     (1) Obligations of the state or the United States,;

     (2) Obligations of the principal and interest of which are guaranteed by the state or the

United States,;

     (3) Obligations of agencies and instrumentalities of the state or the United States; or

     (4) Certificates of deposits of, and repurchase agreements, so called, issued with respect

to obligations of the United States by, banks and trust companies organized under the laws of the

state or doing business in the state.; or

     (5) As may be provided in any other applicable law of the state or resolution of a city or

town council or pursuant to an investment policy of the city or town.


 

415)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-21

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-21. Tax limitations.

     (a) Except as provided below, a tax increment shall be included in the calculation of the

maximum tax a city or town may levy pursuant to the provisions of � 44-5-2 of the general laws.

     (b) To the extent that inclusion of a tax increment in a tax levy causes a municipality to

exceed the maximum tax a city or town may levy pursuant to the provisions of � 44-5-2 of the

general laws, such excess shall be excluded from such calculation for a period not to exceed

twenty-five (25) years if:

     (1) Suchsuch excess tax increment is allocable to: (i) the payment of the principal of or

interest on any special obligation bonds issued under the provisions of � 45-33.2-6, to fund a

capital project as described in subdivisions 45-33.2-3(2)(i), (ii) or (iii); under this chapter; (ii) any

requirement to fund any reserve or other account or satisfy any other financial requirement which

must be satisfied in connection with the issuance of such bonds or any other indebtedness or

obligation incurred in connection with any such capital project or portion of one; or (iii) any

payments made to directly fund any capital project described in subdivisions 45-33.2-3(2)(i), (ii)

or (iii); and .

     (2) The project is determined by the division of property valuation in the department of

revenue to be: (i) within or contiguous to the tax increment area; or (ii) substantially related to the

improvements giving rise to the tax increment; or (iii) reasonably necessary to assure the private

investment required to generate the tax increment.

     (c) The tax assessor in each city and town shall include calculations reflecting any tax

increment excluded from the tax cap provisions of � 44-5-2 of the general laws when submitting

the municipality's adopted tax levy and rate to the division of property valuation in accordance

with � 44-5-2 of the general laws.

     (d) The division of property valuation in the department of revenue may issue such

regulations as may be required to implement and enforce the provisions of this section.


 

416)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-22

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-22. Alternate tax increment provisions.

     Section 45-33.2-3.1 and �� 45-33.2-22 through 45-33.2-2928 are intended to modernize

the laws of the state governing tax increment financing to facilitate economic development in the

state. Section 45-33.2-3.1 and �� 45-33.2-22 through 45-33.2-2928 shall be construed to provide

a complete, additional, and alternative method for performing the things authorized by this

chapter, and shall be regarded as supplemental and in addition to the powers conferred by other

laws, including �� 45-33.2-2 through 45-33.2-21. Cities and towns which have created tax

increments in accordance with �� 45-33.2-2 through 45-33.2-21 may elect to use the provisions

of � 45-33.2-3.1 and �� 45-33.2-22 through 45-33.2-2928 by adopting an ordinance of the city or

town council:

     (1) Declaring the intention to be bound by � 45-33.2-3.1 and �� 45-33.2-22 through 45-

33.2-2928; and

     (2) Approving such amendments to the city or town redevelopment plan and project plan

as may be required to proceed in accordance with � 45-33.2-3.1 and �� 45-33.2-22 through 45-

33.2-2928. Effective July 1, 2018, a tax increment may be established which is not in a project

area, as defined in � 45-33.2-3(4) or adopted pursuant to a project plan, as defined in � 45-33.2-

3(5).


 

417)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-23

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-23. Establishment of tax increment district -- Powers within tax increment

district.

     (a) A city or town council may establish a tax increment district located wholly within the

boundaries of such city or town in accordance with the requirements of � 45-33.2-3.1 and �� 45-

33.2-22 through 45-33.2-2928. Establishment of a tax increment district is effective upon

approval by a city or town council and upon adoption of a tax increment district master plan

pursuant to � 45-33.2-26.

     (b) Within tax increment districts and consistent with the tax increment district master

plan, a city or town, in addition to powers granted to it under the Constitution, the general laws,

any special act, � 45-33.2-5 and �� 45-33.2-22 through 45-33.2-2928 shall have the following

powers with respect to tax increment districts:

     (1) To acquire, construct, reconstruct, improve, preserve, alter, extend, operate or

maintain property or promote development intended to meet the objectives of the tax increment

district master plan. A city or town may acquire property, land or easements through negotiation

or by other means authorized for municipalities under the general laws. Notwithstanding � 45-2-5

of the general laws or any contrary provisions of any charter, other laws or ordinances, general,

special or local, or of any rule or regulations of the state or the city or town, any city or town is

authorized and empowered to lease, lend, pledge, grant, or convey terms and conditions that the

city or town council may deem reasonable and fair, any real property or personal property which

may be necessary or convenient to effectuation of a project, including public roads and other real

property already devoted to public use;

     (2) To execute and deliver contracts, agreements and other documents relating to the

development, operation and maintenance of the tax increment district, including but not limited to

contracts providing for liquidity facilities such as letters of credit, or providing for credit

enhancement, which contracts, agreements and other documents may have a term not to exceed

twenty-five (25) years;

     (3) To issue bonds and other obligations of the city or town in accordance with the

provisions set forth in � 45-33.2-6;

     (4) To enter into written agreements with a taxpayer stabilizing or otherwise fixing the

assessment of real estate within a tax increment district, provided:

     (i) The term of such agreement shall not exceed twenty-five (25) years from the date of

the agreement; and

     (ii) The assessment agreed on for the real estate plus future improvements shall not be

less than the assessment of the real estate as of the last regular assessment date without such the

future improvements. Any such agreement shall be recorded in the land records in the city or

town. Recording of the agreement constitutes notice of the agreement to a subsequent purchaser

or encumbrancer of the property or any part of it, whether voluntary or involuntary, and is

binding upon a subsequent purchaser or encumbrancer. If a city or town claims that the taxpayer

is not complying with the terms of such agreement, the city or town may bring an action in the

superior court for the county in which the city or town is located to force compliance with such

the agreement;

     (5) Accept grants, advances, loans, or other financial assistance from the federal

government, the state, private entities, or any other source, and do any and all things necessary or

desirable to secure such financial aid;

     (6) Upon such terms as a city or town determines, furnish service or facilities, provide

property, lend, grant, or contribute funds, including tax increment, and take any other action of a

character that it is authorized to perform for other purposes; and

     (7) Fix, revise, charge, collect, and abate fees, rates, rents, betterment assessments,

delinquency charges, and other charges for services, and other services, facilities, and

commodities furnished or supplied by the city or town, including penalties for violations of such

regulations as the city or town council may from time to time promulgate. Fees, rates, rents,

betterment assessments, delinquency charges, and other charges of general application shall be

adopted and revised by the city or town council in accordance with procedures that assure ensure

interested persons are afforded notice and an opportunity to present data, views, and arguments.

The city or town council shall hold at least one public hearing on its schedule of fees, rates, and

charges, or any revision thereof, prior to adoption, notice of which shall be published in a

newspaper of substantial circulation in the district at least fifteen (15) days in advance of the

hearing. No later than the date of such the publication, the city or town council shall make

available to the public the proposed schedule of fees, rates, rents, betterment assessments, and

charges. Fees, rates, rents, betterment assessments, abatements, and other charges established by

the city or town council shall not be subject to supervision or regulation by any department,

division, district, board, bureau, or agency of the State state or any of its political subdivisions.

Fees, rates, rents, betterment assessments, delinquency charges, and other charges, made under

this section shall be collected in the same manner as municipal taxes. Municipalities are granted

all the powers and privileges with respect thereto as provided to municipalities in the general laws

for the enforcement and collection of betterment assessments and tax liens, or as otherwise

provided in �� 45-33.2-22 through 45-33.2-2928 of this chapter. Betterment assessments, fees,

rates, rents, and charges shall be due and payable at such the times as are fixed by the city or

town, provided the city or town shall give notice of such the due date not less than thirty (30)

days prior to such the due date by publication in a newspaper of general circulation in the city or

town and by mailing such the notice to the owners of the real property assessed at their last-

known address. All revenues from fees, rates, rents, betterment assessments, and other charges

under this section shall be paid into the appropriate tax increment district master plan fund

account established under � 45-33.2-27(c).

     Fees, rates, rents, betterment assessments, and other charges if not paid when due, shall

constitute a lien upon the real property served and a charge against the owners thereof, which lien

and charge shall bear interest at the same rate as delinquent property taxes. Each such lien may be

continued, recorded, and released in the manner provided for property tax liens and shall take

precedence over all other liens or encumbrances, except a lien for property taxes of the city or

town.

     (c) The tax increment district may be dissolved at any time, and the boundaries of such

the district may be changed at any time, by a vote of a city or town council, except that the tax

increment district may not be dissolved nor may the boundaries of the tax increment district be

changed so long as any bonds or other indebtedness authorized and issued under �� 45-33.2-22

through 45-33.2-2928, inclusive, or any other obligations authorized and incurred under �� 45-

33.2-22 through 45-33.2-2928, inclusive, remain outstanding. The tax increment district shall

terminate without further action of a city or town council forty (40) years after the date it is

established, if no such bonds or other indebtedness remain outstanding.


 

 

418)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-24

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-24. Reserved.


 

419)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-25

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-25. Planning commission advisory opinion -- Conditions for tax increment

district.

     Prior to the establishment of a tax increment district and approval of a tax increment

district master plan for such tax increment district, a city or town council shall:

     (1) Find that the proposed tax increment district and tax increment district master plan

will contribute to the economic growth or well-being of the city or town or to the betterment of

the health, welfare, or safety of the inhabitants of the city or town;

     (2) Transmit the tax increment district master plan to the planning commission of the city

or town, if any, requesting a study of the tax increment district master plan and a written advisory

opinion. The planning commission shall, within ninety (90) days, or such the additional period

approved by the city or town council, provide a written advisory opinion to the city or town

council. Such The written advisory opinion shall include a determination on whether the plan is

consistent with the comprehensive plan of the city or town adopted under � 45-22.2-8;

     (3) Hold at least one public hearing on the proposal to establish a tax increment district.

Notice of the hearing shall be published at least ten (10) days prior to the hearing in a newspaper

having general circulation within the city or town and shall include:

     (i) The date, time, and place of such the hearing; and

     (ii) The boundaries of the proposed tax increment district by legal description; and

     (4) Determine whether the proposed tax increment district meets the following

conditions:

     (i) A portion of the real property within a tax increment district shall meet at least one of

the following criteria:

     (A) Be a substandard, insanitary, deteriorated, deteriorating, or blighted area;

     (B) Be in need of rehabilitation, redevelopment, or conservation work; or

     (C) Be suitable for industrial, commercial, residential, mixed-use or retail uses,

downtown development, or transit-oriented development; and

     (ii) The original assessed value of a proposed tax increment district plus the assessed

value of all existing tax increment districts within a city or town may not exceed twenty-five

percent (25%) of the total value of taxable property within the city or town as of December 31 of

the year immediately preceding the establishment of the tax increment district. Excluded from the

calculation in this subdivision is any tax increment district established on or after the effective

date of � 45-33.2-3.1 and �� 45-33.2-22 through 45-33.2-2928 that consists entirely of contiguous

property owned by a single taxpayer. For the purpose of this subdivision, "contiguous property"

includes a parcel or parcels of land divided by a road, power line, railroad line, or right-of-way. A

city or town may not establish a tax increment district if the conditions in this subdivision are not

met.


 

420)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-26

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-26. Adoption of tax increment district master plan.

     (a) In connection with the establishment of a tax increment district, a city or town council

shall adopt a tax increment district master plan for each tax increment district and a statement of

the percentage or stated sum of increased assessed value to be designated as captured assessed

value in accordance with such the plan. The tax increment district master plan shall be adopted at

the same time that the tax increment district is established, as part of the tax increment district

adoption proceedings set forth in �� 45-33.2-22 through 45-33.2-2928.

     (b) The tax increment district master plan shall include:

     (1) The boundaries of the tax increment district by legal description;

     (2) A list of the tax identification numbers for all lots or parcels within the tax increment

district;

     (3) A description of the present condition and uses of all land and buildings within the tax

increment district;

     (4) A description of the public facilities, improvements, or programs within the tax

increment district anticipated to be added and financed in whole or in part;

     (5) A description of the industrial, commercial, residential, mixed-use or retail

improvements, downtown development, or transit-oriented development within the tax increment

district anticipated to be financed in whole or in part;

     (6) A tax increment district financial plan in accordance with subsection (c) of this

section;

     (7) A plan for the proposed maintenance and operation of the tax increment district after

the planned capital improvements are completed; and

     (8) The maximum duration of the tax increment district, which may not exceed a total of

forty (40) tax years beginning with the tax year in which the tax increment district is established.

     (c) The tax increment district financial plan for a tax increment district master plan shall

include:

     (1) Cost estimates for the public improvements and developments anticipated in the tax

increment district master plan;

     (2) The maximum amount of indebtedness to be incurred to implement the tax increment

district master plan;

     (3) Sources of anticipated revenues;

     (4) A description of the terms and conditions of any agreements, including any

anticipated assessment agreements, contracts, or other obligations related to the tax increment

district master plan;

     (5) Estimates of increased assessed values of the tax increment district;

     (6) The portion of the increased assessed values to be applied to the tax increment district

master plan as captured assessed values and resulting tax increments in each year of the plan;

     (7) A five-year plan for all revenues and expenditures; and

     (8) A plan for costs, as described in � 45-38.2-28, to be paid from any tax increment

master plan fund.

     (d) The tax increment district master plan may be amended from time to time by a city or

town council. The city or town council shall review the tax increment district master plan at least

once every five (5) years after the initial approval of the tax increment district and the tax

increment district master plan in order for the tax increment district and the tax increment district

master plan to remain in effect; provided, however, that so long as any bonds or other

indebtedness or obligations authorized and incurred under �� 45-33.2-22 through 45-33.2-2928

remain outstanding, the tax increment district master plan shall remain in effect. With respect to

any tax increment district master plan that includes development that is funded in whole or in part

by federal funds, the provisions of this subsection shall not apply to the extent that such

provisions are prohibited by federal law.


 

 

421)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-27

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-27. Designation of tax increment revenues.

     (a) In the tax increment district master plan, a city or town may designate all or part of

the tax increment revenues generated from the increased assessed value of a tax increment district

for the purpose of financing all or part of the tax increment district master plan. The amount of

tax increment revenues to be designated is determined by designating the captured assessed value,

subject to any assessment agreements.

     (b) On or after the establishment of a tax increment district and the adoption of a tax

increment district master plan, the assessor of a city or town in which it is located shall certify the

original assessed value of the taxable real property within the boundaries of the tax increment

district. Each year after the establishment of a tax increment district, the municipal assessor shall

certify the amount of:

     (1) The current assessed value;

     (2) The amount by which the current assessed value has increased or decreased from the

original assessed value, subject to any assessment agreements; and

     (3) The amount of the captured assessed value. Taxes shall be assessed in accordance

with chapter 45-5 of the general laws 5 of title 45. Nothing in this subsection allows for unequal

apportionment or assessment of the taxes to be paid on real property in a city or town. Subject to

any assessment agreements, an owner of real property within the tax increment district shall pay

real property taxes apportioned equally with property taxes paid elsewhere in the city or town.

     (c) If a city or town has designated captured assessed value under � 45-33.2-26(a):

     (1) The city or town shall establish a tax increment district master plan fund that consists

of:

     (i) A project cost account that is pledged to and charged with the payment of project costs

that are outlined in the tax increment district financial plan, including the reimbursement of

project cost expenditures incurred by a public body, including the city or town, a developer, any

property owner, or any other third-party entity, and are paid in a manner other than as described

in subsection (c)(1)(ii) of this section; and

     (ii) In instances of indebtedness issued by a city or town in accordance with � 44-33.2-6

to finance or refinance project costs, a development sinking fund account that is pledged to and

charged with the:

     (A) Payment of the interest and principal as the interest and principal fall due, including

any redemption premium;

     (B) Payment of the costs of providing or reimbursing any provider of any guarantee,

letter of credit, policy of bond insurance, or other credit enhancement device used to secure

payment of debt service on any such indebtedness; and

     (C) Funding any required reserve fund;

     (2) The city or town shall annually set aside all tax increment revenues on captured

assessed values and deposit all such these revenues to the appropriate tax increment district

master plan fund account established under subsection (c)(1) of this section in the following order

of priority:

     (i) To the development sinking fund account, an amount sufficient, together with

estimated future revenues to be deposited to the account and earnings on the amount, to satisfy all

annual debt service on the indebtedness issued in accordance with � 45-33.2-6 and the tax

increment district financial plan; and

     (ii) To the project cost account, all such remaining tax increment revenues on captured

assessed values;

     (3) The city or town shall make transfers between tax increment district master plan fund

accounts established under subsection (c)(1) of this section, provided the transfers do not result in

a balance in either account that is insufficient to cover the annual obligations of that account;

     (4) A city or town may, at any time during the term of the tax increment district, by vote

of the city or town council, return to the municipal general fund any tax increment revenues

remaining in either account established under subsection (c)(1) of this section in excess of those

estimated to be required to satisfy the obligations of the account after taking into account any

transfer made under subsection (c)(3) of this section; and

     (5) Any account or fund established pursuant to subsection (c)(1) of this section shall be

audited as part of the annual audit required for municipalities by � 45-10-4 of the general laws.


 

422)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-28

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-28. Project costs.

     Costs authorized for payment from a tax increment district master plan fund established

pursuant to � 45-33.2-27 are limited to:

     (1) Costs of improvements made within the tax increment district, including, but not

limited to:

     (i) Capital costs, including, but not limited to:

     (A) The acquisition or construction of land, improvements, infrastructure, public ways,

parks, buildings, structures, railings, street furniture, signs, landscaping, plantings, benches, trash

receptacles, curbs, sidewalks, turnouts, recreational facilities, structured parking, transportation

improvements, pedestrian improvements, and other related improvements, fixtures, and

equipment for public use;

     (B) The acquisition or construction of land, improvements, infrastructure, buildings,

structures, including facades and signage, fixtures, and equipment for industrial, commercial,

residential, mixed-use or retail use, or transit-oriented development;

     (C) The demolition, alteration, remodeling, repair, or reconstruction of existing buildings,

structures, and fixtures;

     (D) Environmental remediation;

     (E) Site preparation and finishing work; and

     (F) All fees and expenses associated with the capital cost of such improvements,

including, but not limited to, licensing and permitting expenses and planning, engineering,

architectural, testing, legal, and accounting expenses;

     (ii) Financing costs, including, but not limited to, closing costs, issuance costs, reserve

funds, and capitalized interest;

     (iii) Real property assembly costs;

     (iv) Costs of technical and marketing assistance programs;

     (v) Professional service costs, including for municipal staff, which may include but not

be limited to, licensing, architectural, planning, engineering, development, and legal expenses;

     (vi) Organizational costs relating to the planning and the establishment of the tax

increment district, including, but not limited to, the costs of conducting environmental impact and

other studies and the costs of informing the public about the creation of tax increment districts

and the implementation of the tax increment district master plan; and

     (2) Costs of improvements that are made outside the tax increment district but are directly

related to or are made necessary by the establishment or operation of the tax increment district,

including, but not limited to that portion of the costs reasonably related to the construction,

alteration or expansion of any facilities not located within the tax increment district that are

required due to improvements or activities within the tax increment district, including, but not

limited to, roadways, traffic signalization, easements, sewage treatment plants, water treatment

plants or other environmental protection devices, storm or sanitary sewer lines, water lines,

electrical lines, improvements to fire stations, and street signs.


 

 

423)

Section

Add Chapter Numbers:

 

45-33.2-29

156 and 292

 

 

45-33.2-29. Limitation of powers.

     The state pledges to and agrees with any person, firm, or corporation, or federal agency

subscribing to or acquiring the bonds to be issued under this chapter, that the state will not limit

or alter the rights vested in the authority until all bonds at any time issued, together with their

interest, are fully met and discharged. The state does further pledge to and agree with the United

States, and any other federal agency, that in the event that any federal agency constructs or

contributes any funds for the construction, extension, improvement, equipping, furnishing, or

enlargement of any project, or any portion of it, the state will not alter or limit this chapter in any

manner which that would be inconsistent with the due performance of any agreements with the

federal agency; and cities and towns continue to have and may exercise all powers granted by this

chapter, so long as the powers are necessary or desirable for the carrying out of the purposes of

this chapter.


 

424)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

46-23-2

87 and 99

 

 

46-23-2. Coastal resources management council created -- Appointment of

members.

     (a) There is hereby created the coastal resources management council. The coastal

resources management council shall consist of ten (10) members. Nine (9) members shall be

appointed by the governor, with advice and consent of the senate, and one member shall serve ex

officio. All current appointments to the coastal resources management council made by the

governor with advice and consent of the senate are hereby validated and ratified and those

appointees shall serve for the remainder of their term.

     (1) The coastal resources management council shall consist of sixteen (16) members, two

(2) of whom shall be members of the house of representatives, at least one of the members shall

represent a coastal municipality, appointed by the speaker, two (2) of whom shall be members of

the senate, each of whom shall represent a coastal municipality, appointed by the president of the

senate, two (2) of whom shall be from the general public appointed by the speaker of the house

for a term of two (2) years, two (2) of whom shall be from a coastal municipality appointed by the

speaker of the house for a term of three (3) years.

     (2)(1) In addition, four (4) Six (6) of the members shall be appointed or elected officials

of local government: appointed by the governor, one three (3) of whom shall be from appointed

or elected officials in a municipality of less fewer than twenty-five thousand (25,000) in

population, appointed to serve until January 31, 1972, one three (3) of whom shall be from

appointed or elected officials in a coastal municipality of more than twenty-five thousand

(25,000) in population appointed to serve until January 31, 1973, and one of whom shall be from

a coastal municipality of less than twenty-five thousand (25,000) population appointed to serve

until January 31, 1974, and one of whom shall be from a coastal community of more than twenty-

five thousand (25,000) population appointed to serve until January 31, 1975, the . The

populations are to be determined by the latest federal census.; all members shall serve until their

successors are appointed and qualified; during the month of January, the governor shall appoint a

member to succeed the member whose term will then next expire for a term of four (4) years

commencing on the first day of February then next following and until his or her successor is

named and qualified; each Elected or appointed municipal officials shall hold seats on the council

only so long as they remain in their elected or appointed office. Each municipal appointment shall

cease if the appointed or elected official shall no longer hold or change the office which he or she

they held upon appointment, and further, each appointee shall be eligible to succeed himself or

herselfAt least five (5) out of the six (6) appointed or elected members must be appointed or

elected in a coastal municipality. When the governor submits their his or her appointments to the

senate for advice and consent, the governor shall specify the appointed or elected office that each

municipal appointment holds,; the population of the municipality represented,; and the member

being replaced.

     (3)(2) Three (3) members shall be appointed by the governor from the public, with the

advice and consent of the senate, one of whom shall serve until January 1, 1972, one of whom

shall serve until January 1, 1973 and one of whom shall serve until January 1, 1974; the public

members and their his or her successors shall represent reside in a coastal community

municipality.

     (4)(3) All members shall serve until their successors are appointed and qualified; during

the month of January, the governor shall appoint, with the advice and consent of the senate, a

member to succeed the members whose term will then next expire for a term of three (3) years

commencing on the first day of February next following and until his or her their successor is

named and qualified. A member shall be eligible to succeed himself or herself for successive

appointments. No more than two (2) persons on the council shall be from the same community

municipality. A vacancy other than by expiration shall be filled in the manner of the original

appointment but only for the unexpired portion of the term.

     (5)(4) Appointments shall first be made by the governor, then by the president of the

senate, and then by the speaker. The commissioner of the environmental protection branch or his

or her The director of the department of environmental management, or their designee, within the

department of environmental management shall serve ex officio. The ex-officio member shall not

be counted as serving from any particular community municipality.

     (b) In addition to the foregoing voting members, the council shall may include a varying

number of other members who shall may serve in an advisory capacity without the right to vote

and who shall may be invited to serve by either the governor or the voting members. These

advisory members shall may represent the federal agencies such as the navy, coast guard, corps of

engineers, public health service, and the federal water pollution control administration Federal

Water Pollution Control Administration, and such regional agencies as the New England river

basins commission River Basins Commission and the New England regional commission

Regional Commission and any other group or interest not otherwise represented.

     (c) There shall may be established a coastal resources advisory committee which

committee, appointed by the executive director of the coastal resources management council,

shall may include, but not be limited to, representation from the following groups: one of whom

shall may be a representative of the University university of Rhode Island Graduate School

graduate school of Oceanography oceanography and the College college of Resources

Development resources development, one of whom shall may be a representative of the Sea

Grant National College Program, one of whom shall may be a representative of the army corps of

engineers, one of whom shall may be a representative of the federal environmental protection

agency's Narragansett Bay laboratory, one of whom shall be a representative of the coastal

resources management council, one of whom shall may be the director of the department of

environmental management; one of whom shall may be a member of the Rhode Island Marine

Trade Association and one of whom shall may be a representative of a regional environmental

group. The council shall have the authority to appoint such these additional members to said the

advisory committee as is deemed necessary or advisable by the advisory committee or the

council. It shall be the responsibility of the committee to advise the coastal resources

management council on environmental issues relating to dredging and permitting related thereto,

including, but not limited to, those issues defined in �� 46-23-18.1 -- 46-23-18.3, inclusive.

     (d) The council shall have the authority to form committees of other advisory groups as

needed from both its own members and others.


 

 

 

425)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

46-23-2.1

87 and 99

 

 

46-23-2.1. Members -- Term of office -- Vacancies.

     (a) The term of office of the appointed members shall be three (3) years, only so long as

the members shall remain eligible to serve on the council under the appointment authority.

     (b) The members are eligible to succeed themselves for successive appointments.

     (c) Elected or appointed municipal officials shall hold seats on the council, only so long

as they remain in their elected or appointed office. Members of the senate and house shall serve at

the pleasure of the appointing authority and shall not be subject to the provisions of subsection

(b).

     (d) A vacancy other than by expiration shall be filled in the manner of the original

appointment but only for the unexpired portion of the term. The appointing authority governor

shall have the power to remove its their his or her appointee for just cause.


 

426)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

46-23-4

87 and 99

 

 

46-23-4. Officers of the council -- Quorum and vote required for action.

     The governor, upon the appointment of the appointed members of the council, shall select

from the appointed members a chairperson and vice chairperson. The council shall thereupon

select a secretary from among its membership or staff. The council may engage such staff,

including legal counsel, as it deems necessary. A quorum shall consist of seven (7) six (6)

members of the council. A majority vote of those present shall be required for action.


 

427)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

47-2-7

211 and 272

 

 

47-2-7. Fees and compensation of sealer -- Condemnation of incorrect scales or

balances.

     (a) The sealer of weights and measures, in any town or city, shall receive the same fee as

any state sealer appointed by the state and no less than a fee of twenty-five cents (25�) for every

weight, wine, or dry measure, sealed by him or her at his or her office; the sealer shall receive a

fee of twenty-five cents (25�) for every yardstick or yard measure sealed by him or her; for

sealing every spring balance of a capacity less than one hundred pounds (100 lbs.) the sealer shall

receive a fee of two dollars ($2.00), for every spring balance of a capacity of one hundred (100)

and less than five hundred pounds (500 lbs.), three dollars ($3.00); for every platform scale of a

capacity of five thousand pounds (5,000 lbs.) or more, five dollars ($5.00); for every balance of a

capacity of less than five thousand pounds (5,000 lbs.), two dollars ($2.00); for every steel yard of

a capacity of fifty pounds (50 lbs.) or less, one dollar ($1.00); and for every steel yard of a

capacity over fifty pounds (50 lbs.), two dollars ($2.00); every scale or balance used for weighing

people shall be tested, and if found correct shall be sealed, by the sealer, and he or she shall

receive a fee of two dollars ($2.00) for each and every scale or balance so sealed. If any of the

scales or balances are found to be incorrect, then they shall be condemned and their use forbidden

as hereinbefore provided. For proving and sealing coal and wood baskets, he or she shall receive

a fee of fifty cents (50�) each, and for every charcoal basket so sealed, sixty cents (60�); he or she

shall also have a reasonable compensation for all repairs, alterations, and adjustments which that

it may be necessary for the sealer to make, made by him or her, and for the expenses incurred in

visiting any place, as provided for in � 47-2-5. These fees and compensation shall be paid to the

sealer by the person owning or using the weights, measures, or balances so adjusted and sealed.

Every person violating the provisions of this section shall be fined not exceeding one hundred

dollars ($100) for each offense, one-half (1/2) thereof to go to the town or city and one-half (1/2)

to the complainant. All the fees received by any sealer of weights and measures of any town or

city shall be retained by him or her as compensation for his or her services except as hereinafter

provided. Any town or city council may, at any time, by ordinance, fix an annual salary for the

sealer of weights and measures of the town or city, and in that case the fees received by him or

her shall be paid over by him or her to the town or city treasurer, at the time or times prescribed

by any ordinance of the town or city.

     (b) (1) For every spring balance or balance scale of a capacity of less than ten pounds (10

lbs.), he or she shall receive a fee of five dollars ($5.00); for every spring balance or balance scale

of a capacity of more than ten pounds (10 lbs.) and less than one hundred pounds (100 lbs.), he or

she shall receive a fee of six dollars ($6.00); for every spring balance, balance scale, or platform

scale of a capacity of more than one hundred pounds (100 lbs.) and less than one thousand pounds

(1,000 lbs.), he or she shall receive a fee of ten dollars ($10.00).

     (2) If any of the scales or balances are found to be incorrect, they shall be condemned and

their use forbidden as hereinbefore provided.


 

428)

Section

Amend Chapter Numbers:

 

47-8-1

211 and 272

 

 

47-8-1. Testing of measuring devices -- Forbidding use -- Fee.

     (a) The director of the department of labor and training is hereby authorized and directed

to have tested all gasoline measuring devices used in the sale of gasoline, from time to time, as in

his or her judgment it may be deemed necessary, to prevent fraud or deception in the use of these

devices or to insure ensure the accurate measurement of gasoline in the sale.

     (b) Any town or city sealer of weights, measures, and balances shall have authority to

condemn and forbid the use of any gasoline measuring device for the sale of gasoline in his or her

respective town or city, or until the device has been duly tried and sealed, or until the gasoline

measuring device has been equipped with such an attachment, contrivance, or apparatus as will

insure ensure the correct and proper functioning of the measuring device for the sale of the

gasoline by accurate measurement.

     (c) For the testing and sealing of a gasoline measuring device, a fee of five dollars ($5.00)

shall be paid unless otherwise stated in � 47-1-5.1, The sealer of weights and measures in any

town or city shall receive the same fee as any state sealer, appointed by the state, as set forth in �

47-1-5.1, except in the city of Providence where the sealer shall have the authority to remove and

replace any lead seal on any gasoline measuring device and to charge an additional fee of five

dollars ($5.00) for that service.


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

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525)

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526)

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Chapter Numbers:

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

527)

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530)

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532)

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535)

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536)

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545)

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574)

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575)

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586)

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587)

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588)

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592)

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593)

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617)

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Chapter Numbers:

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

618)

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620)

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622)

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624)

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626)

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627)

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628)

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629)

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630)

Section

Chapter Numbers:

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

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Chapter Numbers:

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

632)

Section

Chapter Numbers:

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

 

633)

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Chapter Numbers:

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

634)

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Section

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Chapter Numbers:

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

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639)

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640)

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641)

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644)

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645)

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646)

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647)

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648)

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649)

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650)

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652)

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653)

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654)

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655)

Section

Chapter Numbers:

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

656)

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657)

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Chapter Numbers:

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

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Chapter Numbers:

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

659)

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Chapter Numbers:

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

 

661)

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662)

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670)

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671)

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Chapter Numbers:

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

 

 

672)

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Chapter Numbers:

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

673)

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674)

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677)

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680)

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681)

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682)

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684)

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685)

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686)

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687)

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688)

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689)

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691)

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693)

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694)

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695)

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696)

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697)

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698)

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699)

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700)

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701)

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702)

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703)

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704)

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705)

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711)

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712)

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713)

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714)

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715)

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716)

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717)

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720)

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726)

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727)

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728)

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730)

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732)

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734)

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735)

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737)

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740)

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748)

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749)

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751)

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752)

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753)

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754)

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755)

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756)

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757)

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758)

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761)

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762)

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763)

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765)

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767)

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768)

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770)

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771)

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773)

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774)

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775)

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776)

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777)

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778)

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779

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780

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790)

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791)

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793)

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794)

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796)

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797)

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798)

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800)

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802)

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804)

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805)

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806)

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808)

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809)

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810)

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684)

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690)

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691)

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692)

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694)

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695)

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697)

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Chapter Numbers:

 

 

 

 

 

 


 

698)

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499)

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500)

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502)

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503)

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506)

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507)

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508)

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